Search Results

Search found 10543 results on 422 pages for 'business enablement'.

Page 375/422 | < Previous Page | 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382  | Next Page >

• Codeplex/Sourceforge for internal use

  - by Josh

  I'm looking for a free/open source collaborative project manager that can be deployed internally in my workplace that would act similar to Codeplex or Sourceforge. Does anyone know of something like this, and if so do you have experience with it. Requirements: Open Source or Free Locally Deployable Has the same types of features found in Sourceforge / Codeplex Issue/Feature Tracking Community Interaction (ie. Voting, Roles, etc.) SCM Integration (Optional) .NET/Windows Friendly (Optional) Every business ends up having internal utilities, and domain specific apps that developers create to make life easier. Given the input of the internal developer community they have the potential to become much better (can you say GMail...), and I would simply like to foster such an environment internally by providing an easy place for that interaction to take place. UPDATE: So I like what I am seeing in both Trac and GForge, but both are heavily geared towards UNIX/Subversion environments. I should have specified this, but we are a MS shop from top to bottom. How practical do you think it is going to be to try and use these in a MS .NET environment? Would that be like trying to shove a square peg through a round hole?

  Read the article

• echo POST array.. or other ideas?

  - by gamerzfuse

  Update: As seen in the Original Questions below, I am looking to echo an array. The problem is that when I send the Moneris gateway to return a POST array to my new file (cart.php) it gets a 500 Internal Server Error. This is the same error I received when it send to the script, which should have worked. Is there any reason that it would always send a 500 Internal Server Error? Cart.php Direct Link Craig ORIGINAL QUESTION: Hello there, I am back for another question. Here is my dilemma: I have a script (ImageFolio Commerce) that hasn't been updated on our server since.. probably 2003. The script had a Payment Gateway (Moneris) manually added to it by the company who offers the script. This costs $1000 to get them to add a gateway. I now have a new client who purchased this business from the previous owner. While switching the account to the new owner's Moneris account, we found out that things have been updated. Long story short.. The Moneris gateway can send 3 types of responses: POST with XML Data POST GET I imagine it is easiest to just use the POST array. I have the file that it sends the response to. As of now the file responds with a Internal Server error, but it does process the order. What I want to do is determine what the POST array is that is being sent, so that I can take it and echo it in a logical manner. Is there a way to capture and echo the entire POST? Or can someone suggest a better method of doing this? Thank you, Craig

  Read the article

• How do i write this jpql query? java

  - by Nitesh Panchal

  Hello, Say i have 5 tables, tblBlogs tblBlogPosts tblBlogPostComment tblUser tblBlogMember BlogId BlogPostsId BlogPostCommentId UserId BlogMemberId BlogTitle BlogId CommentText FirstName UserId PostTitle BlogPostsId BlogId BlogMemberId Now i want to retrieve only those blogs and posts for which blogMember has actually commented. So in short, how do i write this plain old sql :- Select b.BlogTitle, bp.PostTitle, bpc.CommentText from tblBlogs b Inner join tblBlogPosts bp on b.BlogId = bp.BlogId Inner Join tblBlogPostComment bpc on bp.BlogPostsId = bpc.BlogPostsId Inner Join tblBlogMember bm On bpc.BlogMemberId = bm.BlogMemberId Where bm.UserId = 1; As you can see, everything is Inner join, so only that row will be retrieved for which the user has commented on some post of some blog. So, suppose he has joined 3 blogs whose ids are 1,2,3 (The blogs which user has joined are in tblBlogMembers) but the user has only commented in blog 2 (of say BlogPostId = 1). So that row will be retrieved and 1,3 won't as it is Inner Join. How do i write this kind of query in jpql? In jpql, we can only write simple queries like say :- Select bm.blogId from tblBlogMember Where bm.UserId = objUser; Where objUser is supplied using :- em.find(User.class,1); Thus once we get all blogs(Here blogId represents a blog object) which user has joined, we can loop through and do all fancy things. But i don't want to fall in this looping business and write all this things in my java code. Instead, i want to leave that for database engine to do. So, how do i write the above plain sql into jpql? and what type of object the jpql query will return? because i am only selecting few fields from all table. In which class should i typecast the result to? I think i posted my requirement correctly, if i am not clear please let me know. Thanks in advance :).

  Read the article

• StructureMap problems with bidirectional/circular dependencies

  - by leozilla

  I am currently integrating StructureMap within our business layer but have problems because of bidirectional dependencies. The layer contains multiple manager where each manager can call methods on each other, there are no restrictions or rules for communication. This also includes possible circular dependencies like in the example below. I know the design itself is questionable but currently we just want StructureMap to work and will focus on further refactoring in the future. Every manager implements the IManager interface internal interface IManager { bool IsStarted { get; } void Start(); void Stop(); } And does also have his own specific interface. internal interface IManagerA : IManager { void ALogic(); } internal interface IManagerB : IManager { void BLogic(); } Here are to dummy manager implementations. internal class ManagerA : IManagerA { public IManagerB ManagerB { get; set; } public void ALogic() { } public bool IsStarted { get; private set; } public void Start() { } public void Stop() { } } internal class ManagerB : IManagerB { public IManagerA ManagerA { get; set; } public void BLogic() { } public bool IsStarted { get; private set; } public void Start() { } public void Stop() { } } Here is the StructureMap configuration i use atm. I am still not sure how i should register the managers so currently i use a manual registration. Maybee someone could help me with this too. For<IManagerA>().Singleton().Use<ManagerA>(); For<IManagerB>().Singleton().Use<ManagerB>(); SetAllProperties(convention => { // configure the property injection for all managers convention.Matching(prop => typeof(IManager).IsAssignableFrom(prop.PropertyType)); }); After all i cannot create IManagerA because StructureMap complians about the circular dependency between ManagerA and ManagerB. Is there an easy and clean solution to solve this problem but keep to current design? br David

  Read the article

• TSQL - How to join 1..* from multiple tables in one resultset?

  - by ElHaix

  A location table record has two address id's - mailing and business addressID that refer to an address table. Thus, the address table will contain up to two records for a given addressID. Given a location ID, I need an sproc to return all tbl_Location fields, and all tbl_Address fields in one resultset: LocationID INT, ClientID INT, LocationName NVARCHAR(50), LocationDescription NVARCHAR(50), MailingAddressID INT, BillingAddressID INT, MAddress1 NVARCHAR(255), MAddress2 NVARCHAR(255), MCity NVARCHAR(50), MState NVARCHAR(50), MZip NVARCHAR(10), MCountry CHAR(3), BAddress1 NVARCHAR(255), BAddress2 NVARCHAR(255), BCity NVARCHAR(50), BState NVARCHAR(50), BZip NVARCHAR(10), BCountry CHAR(3) I've started by creating a temp table with the required fields, but am a bit stuck on how to accomplish this. I could do sub-selects for each of the required address fields, but seems a bit messy. I've already got a table-valued-function that accepts an address ID, and returns all fields for that ID, but not sure how to integrate it into my required result. Off hand, it looks like 3 selects to create this table - 1: Location, 2: Mailing address, 3: Billing address. What I'd like to do is just create a view and use that. Any assistance would be helpful. Thanks.

  Read the article

• running .net application over a network

  - by Marlon

  Hello, I need some advice please. I need to enable a .Net application to run over a network share, the problem is that this will be on clients network shares and so the path will not be identical. I've had a quick look at ClickOnce and the publish options in VS2008 but it wants a specific network share location - and I'm assuming this location gets stored somewhere when it does its thing. At the moment the job is being done with a old VB6 application and so gets around all these security issues, but that application is poorly written and almost impossible to maintain so it really needs to go. Is it possible for the domain controller to be set up to allow this specific .Net application to execute? Any other options would be welcomed as I want to get this little application is very business critical. I aught to say that the client networks are schools, and thus are often quite locked down as are the client machines, so manually adding exceptions to each client machine is a big no no. Marlon --Edit-- Apologies, I forgot to mention we're restricted to .net 2.0 for the moment, we are planning to upgrade this to 4.0 but that won't be immediate.

  Read the article

• Can I have two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain?

  - by Hamman359

  Is it possible to setup two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain? i.e. both point to different pages within www.somesite.com. Here's some background on the application and why I'm asking. This is a brownfield application that is currently 2.0 WebForms and is full of WebFormy 'goodness' (i.e. ObjectDataSources, FormView controls, UpdatePanels, etc...) There are lost of other 'fun' things in the code base like 600+ Stored Procedures and 200+ line methods in the business layer code that get data from the DB via stored proc, do some processing on the data, build an HTML string using string concatenation and then return that string to the UI layer. What we are planning on doing is developing new features in MVC and slowly converting the existing features over to MVC one at a time. As part of this transition, we will also be re-writing the layers below the UI to clean up the mess there and to do things like replace the stored procedures with NHibernate and introduce an IOC container. I know that you can run WebForms and MVC side-by-side in the same project, however, because we will be making wholesale changes to the way we do many things throughout our entire development stack, I'd like the new stuff to be a completely separate project within the solution. This should help serve as very visual reminder that this is a different way of doing things than before and make it easier to remove the old code as it is no longer needed. What I don't know is, is this even possible? Can two separate project point to the same domain? Here's an quick example of what I'm thinking: www.somesite.com/orders.aspx?id=123 (Orders page from existing WebForms project) www.somesite.com/customer/987 (Customer page from new MVC project)

  Read the article

• database design suggestion needed

  - by JMSA

  I need to design a table for daily sales of pharmaceutical products. There are hundreds of types of products available {Name, code}. Thousands of sales-persons are employed to sell those products{name, code}. They collect products from different depots{name, code}. They work in different Areas - Zones - Markets - Outlets, etc. {All have names and codes} Each product has various types of prices {Production Price, Trade Price, Business Price, Discount Price, etc.}. And, sales-persons are free to choose from those combination to estimate the sales price. The problem is, daily sales requires huge amount of data-entry. Within couple of years there may be gigabytes of data (if not terabytes). If I need to show daily, weekly, monthly, quarterly and yearly sales reports there will be various types of sql queries I shall need. This is my initial design: Product {ID, Code, Name, IsActive} ProductXYZPriceHistory {ID, ProductID, Date, EffectDate, Price, IsCurrent} SalesPerson {ID, Code, Name, JoinDate, and so on..., IsActive} SalesPersonSalesAraeaHistory {ID, SalesPersonID, SalesAreaID, IsCurrent} Depot {ID, Code, Name, IsActive} Outlet {ID, Code, Name, AreaID, IsActive} AreaHierarchy {ID, Code, Name, PrentID, AreaLevel, IsActive} DailySales {ID, ProductID, SalesPersonID, OutletID, Date, PriceID, SalesPrice, Discount, etc...} Now, apart from indexing, how can I normalize my DailySales table to have a fine grained design that I shall not need to change for years to come? Please show me a sample design of only the DailySales data-entry table (from which all types of reports would be queried) on the basis of above information. I don't need a detailed design advice. I just need an advice regarding only the DailySales table. Is there any way to break this particular table to achieve granularity?

  Read the article

• In facebook connect, how can I check if a user is a fan of my facebook page? Is it possible to track

  - by Tony

  I am trying to determine if a user is a facebook fan. I load the facebook JS library and initialize: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php/en_US"></script> FB_RequireFeatures(["XFBML","Connect","Api"], function() { FB.init("my_api_key","xd_receiver.htm") }); FB.ensureInit(function () { FB.ApiClient.pages_isFan(my_profile_id,"some_UID",callback); }); However when I call the API client with FB.ApiClient.pages_isFan, I get a JS error - FB.ApiClient is undefined I am also using the FBML fan tag to display the "become a fan" button: <fb:fan profile_id="my_profile_id" stream="0" connections="10" logobar="1" width="300"></fb:fan> And would like to be notified when either the "become a fan" button is clicked or a user has successfully become a fan. The business logic is pretty simple - If they become a fan, track it in my database. Then if they try to become a fan again, check with the library if they are a fan and say "You are already a fan" if they are a fan, show the widget if not.

  Read the article

• AJAX vs ActiveX/Flash for browser-based game

  - by iconiK

  I have been following the usage of JavaScript for the past few years, and with the release of extremely fast scripting engines (V8, SquirrelFish Extrene, TraceMonkey, etc.) the possibilities of JavaScript have increased dramatically. However, the usage share of Internet Explorer coupled with it's total lack of support for recent standards makes me want to drop a bomb on Microsoft's HQ, as it creates a huge amount of problems for any website. The game will need to be pretty dynamic client-side, with animations and other eye-candy things, but not a full-blown game like those that run directly in the OS using DirectX or OpenGL. However, this might be a little stretch for JavaScript and will certainly feel extremely slow in Internet Explorer (given that the current IE engine can be hundreds of times slower than SFX; gotta see what IE9 will bring), would it be better to just do the whole thing in Flash? I know this means requiring the plug-in AND I have no experience whatsoever with Flash (other than browsing YouTube :P). It also means I can't just output directly from PHP, I would have to use XML or some other format to pass data to it (JSON is directly integrated in JS and PHP can deal with it easily). Another idea would be to provide an alternative interface just for IE, though I don't know how (ActiveX maybe? or with Flash, then why not just provide it to all browsers) or totally not supporting it and requiring the use of other browsers, although this is plain stupid from a business perspective. So here am I, wondering what approach to take and thus asking for your advice. How should I build the client-side? AJAX in all browsers, Flash in all browsers or a mix (AJAX for "modern" browsers and something else for the "grandpa": IE).

  Read the article

• Format for storing contacts in a database

  - by Gart

  I'm thinking of the best way to store personal contacts in a database for a business application. The traditional and straightforward approach would be to create a table with columns for each element, i.e. Name, Telephone Number, Job title, Address, etc... However, there are known industry standards for this kind of data, like for example vCard, or hCard, or vCard-RDF/XML or even Windows Contacts XML Schema. Utilizing an standard format would offer some benefits, like inter-operablilty with other systems. But how can I decide which method to use? The requirements are mainly to store the data. Search and ordering queries are highly unlikely but possible. The volume of the data is 100,000 records at maximum. My database engine supports native XML columns. I have been thinking to use some XML-based format to store the personal contacts. Then it will be possible to utilize XML indexes on this data, if searching and ordering is needed. Is this a good approach? Which contacts format and schema would you recommend for this?

  Read the article

• Implementing Model-level caching

  - by Byron

  I was posting some comments in a related question about MVC caching and some questions about actual implementation came up. How does one implement a Model-level cache that works transparently without the developer needing to manually cache, yet still remains efficient? I would keep my caching responsibilities firmly within the model. It is none of the controller's or view's business where the model is getting data. All they care about is that when data is requested, data is provided - this is how the MVC paradigm is supposed to work. (Source: Post by Jarrod) The reason I am skeptical is because caching should usually not be done unless there is a real need, and shouldn't be done for things like search results. So somehow the Model itself has to know whether or not the SELECT statement being issued to it worthy of being cached. Wouldn't the Model have to be astronomically smart, and/or store statistics of what is being most often queried over a long period of time in order to accurately make a decision? And wouldn't the overhead of all this make the caching useless anyway? Also, how would you uniquely identify a query from another query (or more accurately, a resultset from another resultset)? What about if you're using prepared statements, with only the parameters changing according to user input? Another poster said this: I would suggest using the md5 hash of your query combined with a serialized version of your input arguments. This would require twice the number of serialization options. I was under the impression that serialization was quite expensive, and for large inputs this might be even worse than just re-querying. And is the minuscule chance of collision worth worrying about? Conceptually, caching in the Model seems like a good idea to me, but it seems in practicality the developer should have direct control over caching and write it into the controller. Thoughts/ideas? Edit: I'm using PHP and MySQL if that helps to narrow your focus.

  Read the article

• How to develop modular web UIs with Django?

  - by nh2

  When doing larger sites in "big business", you most probalbly work in a team with several developers. Let's say dev A makes a form to insert new user data, B creates a user list, C makes some privilege administration and D does crazy statistic graphs work with image generation and so on. Each dev begins to develop his own component, creates a view and a template and tests that independently, until each component works. Now, the client wants to have all those components on one bit HTML page. How to achieve this? How to assemble different views/templates in a form of composition so that they remain modular and can be developed and tested independently? It seems inheritance is not the way to go because all of those UI components are equal and there is no hierarchy. The idea of the assembling template is something like <html> <head> // include the css for the components and their assembly </head> <body> // include user data form here <some containers, images, and so on> // show user list // show privilege administration in this part // and finally, the nice statistic graphs // perhaps, we want to display some other components here in future </body> </html> I have not found an answer on the net yet. Most people come up with one big template which just implements all of the UI functionality, removing all modularity. Each component shall have its own template and view dealing only with that component developed by one person each, and they then shall be sticked together just like bricks. I would highly appreciate any hints!

  Read the article

• .Net Entity objectcontext thread error

  - by Chris Klepeis

  I have an n-layered asp.net application which returns an object from my DAL to the BAL like so: public IEnumerable<SourceKey> Get(SourceKey sk) { var query = from SourceKey in _dataContext.SourceKeys select SourceKey; if (sk.sourceKey1 != null) { query = from SourceKey in query where SourceKey.sourceKey1 == sk.sourceKey1 select SourceKey; } return query.AsEnumerable(); } This result passes through my business layer and hits the UI layer to display to the end users. I do not lazy load to prevent query execution in other layers of my application. I created another function in my DAL to delete objects: public void Delete(SourceKey sk) { try { _dataContext.DeleteObject(sk); _dataContext.SaveChanges(); } catch (Exception ex) { Debug.WriteLine(ex.Message + " " + ex.StackTrace + " " + ex.InnerException); } } When I try to call "Delete" after calling the "Get" function, I receive this error: New transaction is not allowed because there are other threads running in the session This is an ASP.Net app. My DAL contains an entity data model. The class in which I have the above functions share the same _dataContext, which is instantiated in my constructor. My guess is that the reader is still open from the "Get" function and was not closed. How can I close it?

  Read the article

• A moral dilemma - What job to go for?

  - by StefanE

  Here is the story: I have accepted an offer from a gaming company to work as an senior test engineer / developer. I have not yet received an signed copy of the contract. I will get a bit less salary then I asked for and it is as well less than I have today. The company have booked flight tickets for my move over there. Now comes the problem. I did an telephone interview with a company last week and they have asked me for an in person interview and are willing to pay for flights for the meeting. This company is my first choice(and have been for a few years) and would also benefit my career and I believe I will enjoy working there more. What should I do here.. I do feel uncomfortable giving a last minute rejection when I have over the phone accepted the offer, but on the other hand they have yet produced a signed contract and as well paying me a bit less than I think I'm worth. The business is small in many ways and I don't want to end up with a bad reputation. Would be great to hear your opinions!

  Read the article

• StructureMap Issue in Initializing the Dependencies

  - by azamsharp

  I am performing some unit tests and want my MembershipProvider to initialize the dependencies. I run the following code before any test is executed [TestFixtureSetup]. public static void StructureMapConfiguration() { ObjectFactory.Initialize(InitializeUsingScanning); } private static void InitializeUsingScanning(IInitializationExpression obj) { obj.Scan( x => { x.Assembly("EStudyMongoDb.Business"); x.WithDefaultConventions(); } ); } Here is my EstablishContext method which is triggered before running any test: public override void EstablishContext() { _provider = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<MongoDbMembershipProvider>(); _config.Add("applicationName", "EStudyApplication"); _config.Add("name", "EStudyMembershipProvider"); _config.Add("requiresQuestionAndAnswer", "false"); _provider.Initialize(_config["name"], _config); } Here is my test: [TestFixture] public class when_creating_a_new_user : specification_for_membership_provider { public override void When() { _user = _provider.CreateUser("johndoe", "password", "[email protected]", String.Empty, String.Empty, true, null, out _status); } [Test] public void should_create_successfully() { var vUser = Membership.GetUser(_user.UserName); Assert.IsNotNull(vUser); } } Now, in the Membership.GetUser method I try to access the _userRepository but I get null.

  Read the article

• Excel VBA - export to UTF-8

  - by Tom

  The macro I created works fine, I just need to sort out the saving business. Now I get a popup asking me where to save it, but I would like it to save it under a default name and path AND encoded in UTF-8. This is my full code I use, the bottom part saves the document I presume. Public Sub ExportToTextFile(FName As String, Sep As String, SelectionOnly As Boolean, AppendData As Boolean) Dim WholeLine As String Dim fnum As Integer Dim RowNdx As Long Dim ColNdx As Integer Dim StartRow As Long Dim EndRow As Long Dim StartCol As Integer Dim EndCol As Integer Dim CellValue As String Dim teller As Integer 'Teller aangemaakt ter controle voor het aantal velden 'teller = 1 Application.ScreenUpdating = False On Error GoTo EndMacro: fnum = FreeFile If SelectionOnly = True Then With Selection StartRow = .Cells(1).Row StartCol = .Cells(26).Column EndRow = .Cells(.Cells.Count).Row EndCol = .Cells(.Cells.Count).Column End With Else With ActiveSheet.UsedRange StartRow = .Cells(1).Row StartCol = .Cells(26).Column EndRow = .Cells(.Cells.Count).Row EndCol = .Cells(26).Column End With End If If AppendData = True Then Open FName For Append Access Write As #fnum Else Open FName For Output Access Write As #fnum End If For RowNdx = StartRow To EndRow WholeLine = "" For ColNdx = StartCol To EndCol If Cells(RowNdx, ColNdx).Value = "" Then CellValue = "" Else CellValue = Cells(RowNdx, ColNdx).Value End If WholeLine = WholeLine & CellValue & Sep Next ColNdx WholeLine = Left(WholeLine, Len(WholeLine) - Len(Sep)) Print #fnum, WholeLine, "" 'Print #fnum, teller, WholeLine, "" 'teller = teller + 1 Next RowNdx EndMacro: On Error GoTo 0 Application.ScreenUpdating = True Close #fnum End Sub Sub Dump4Mini() Dim FileName As Variant Dim Sep As String FileName = Application.GetSaveAsFilename(InitialFileName:=Blank, filefilter:="Text (*.txt),*.txt") If FileName = False Then Exit Sub End If Sep = "|" If Sep = vbNullString Then Exit Sub End If Debug.Print "FileName: " & FileName, "Separator: " & Sep ExportToTextFile FName:=CStr(FileName), Sep:=CStr(Sep), SelectionOnly:=False, AppendData:=False End Sub

  Read the article

• blackberry maps do not show correct location on the device

  - by SWATI

  well frnds my code for maps works well and shows all pics and gradient paths very well on the simulator after simulating the gps ,but it does not works on the device.... The gps on device is working properly as google maps and other work related to gps are working perfectly fine my code if(GPS_Location.lati!=0.0 && GPS_Location.longi!=0.0) { User_latitude = ((GPS_Location.lati)*100000); User_longitude = ((GPS_Location.longi)*100000); User_La = String.valueOf(User_latitude).substring(0, String.valueOf(User_latitude).lastIndexOf('.')); User_Lo = String.valueOf(User_longitude).substring(0, String.valueOf(User_longitude).lastIndexOf('.')); if(param.equals("")) //for find business near me { document1 = "<location-document>" + "<location lon='"+User_Lo+"' lat='"+User_La+"' label='User' />"+ "<location lon='"+User_Lo+"' lat='"+User_La+"' label='"+"User"+"' />"+ "</location-document>"; } if(!param.equals("")) //for the directions { Business_latitude = Double.parseDouble(param.substring(0, param.lastIndexOf(','))); Business_longitude = Double.parseDouble(param.substring(param.lastIndexOf(',')+1,param.length())); Business_latitude = Business_latitude*100000; Business_longitude = Business_longitude*100000; Business_La = String.valueOf(Business_latitude).substring(0, String.valueOf(Business_latitude).lastIndexOf('.')); Business_Lo = String.valueOf(Business_longitude).substring(0, String.valueOf(Business_longitude).lastIndexOf('.')); document1 = "<location-document>" + "<GetRoute>"+ "<location lon='"+User_Lo+"' lat='"+User_La+"' label='User' />"+ "<location lon='"+Business_Lo+"' lat='"+Business_La+"' label='"+"User"+"' />"+ "</GetRoute>"+ "</location-document>"; } Invoke.invokeApplication(Invoke.APP_TYPE_MAPS,new MapsArguments(MapsArguments.ARG_LOCATION_DOCUMENT,document1)); } this code works on simulator but not fine on device. just points a pin indicating user and nothing else what to do????

  Read the article

• Handling learning curve for new developers

  - by pete the pagan-gerbil

  Our company likes to hire new developers, with no experience. We have a core set of skills that we try to get them up to speed with, like ASP.NET and WinForms - to teach basic programming, the .NET languages, and the things they'll need to maintain and write. We also try and mentor them through early projects, so they can learn from someone more experienced. Recently, we've been seeing the benefits of new frameworks like MVC and ideas like Unit Testing and TDD (by extension, dependancy injection and IoC), and we'd like to start using these in the team. However, this increases the time that a junior would have before they can get started on a new project - because doing something like unit tests wrong could cause major headaches months or years later in maintenance, especially if we believe unit tests to be comprehensive. How do you handle the huge amount of things that a junior will need to take on, acknowledging that the business wants them working independantly as soon as possible? Is it acceptable to tell them not to unit test till a while after they are independant (and give them small, simpler projects in the meantime) before taking them to 'level 2' of the core skills?

  Read the article

• protecting COM interfaces from exceptions

  - by rmeador

  I have several dozen objects exposed through COM interfaces, each of which with many methods, totaling a few hundred methods. These interfaces expose business objects from my app to a scripting engine. I have been given the task of protecting every single one of these methods from exceptions being thrown (to catch them and return an error using COM's Error() function, which incidentally I can find no documentation on because it's impossible to google). To my understanding, this requires that I add a try/catch around the guts of each one of these methods. The catch blocks are going to be similar or identical for each and every one of these hundreds of methods, which strongly smells of a problem (massively violates the DRY principle), but I can't think of any way to avoid changing every method. As far as I can tell, these methods are invoked directly by COM, with no intervening code that I can hook into to catch the exceptions. My current best idea is to make a macro for the catch block, but that has it's own sort of code-smell. Can anyone come up with a better approach? BTW, my app's exceptions do not derive from std::exception, so if there is some way of COM automatically handling standard exceptions, it won't help. And I sadly cannot change the existing exceptions to derive from std::exception.

  Read the article

• SSIS - Bulk Update at Database Field Level

  - by Adam

  Hello, Here's our mission: Receive files from clients. Each file contains anywhere from 1 to 1,000,000 records. Records are loaded to a staging area and business-rule validation is applied. Valid records are then pumped into an OLTP database in a batch fashion, with the following rules: If record does not exist (we have a key, so this isn't an issue), create it. If record exists, optionally update each database field. The decision is made based on one of 3 factors...I don't believe it's important what those factors are. Our main problem is finding an efficient method of optionally updating the data at a field level. This is applicable across ~12 different database tables, with anywhere from 10 to 150 fields in each table (original DB design leaves much to be desired, but it is what it is). Our first attempt has been to introduce a table that mirrors the staging environment (1 field in staging for each system field) and contains a masking flag. The value of the masking flag represents the 3 factors. We've then put an UPDATE similar to... UPDATE OLTPTable1 SET Field1 = CASE WHEN Mask.Field1 = 0 THEN Staging.Field1 WHEN Mask.Field1 = 1 THEN COALESCE( Staging.Field1 , OLTPTable1.Field1 ) WHEN Mask.Field1 = 2 THEN COALESCE( OLTPTable1.Field1 , Staging.Field1 ) ... As you can imagine, the performance is rather horrendous. Has anyone tackled a similar requirement? We're a MS shop using a Windows Service to launch SSIS packages that handle the data processing. Unfortunately, we're pretty much novices at this stuff.

  Read the article

• C# Windows Service doesn't seem to like privatePath

  - by SauerC

  I wrote a C# Windows Service to handle task scheduling for our application. I'm trying to move the "business rules" assemblies into a bin subdirectory of the scheduling application to make it easier for us to do updates (stop service, delete all files in bin folder, replace with new ones, start service). I added <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="bin;"/> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> to the service's app config and it works fine if the service is run as a console application. Problem is when the service is run as a windows service it doesn't work. It appears that when windows runs the service the app config file gets read properly but then the service is executed as if it was in c:\windows\system32 and not the actually EXE location and that gums up the works. We've got a lot of assemblies so I really don't want to use the GAC or <codeBase>. Is it possible to have the EXE change it's base directory back to where it should be when it's run as a service?

  Read the article

• Testing Finite State Machines

  - by Pondidum

  I have inherited a large and firaly complex state machine at work. It has 31 possbile states to be in. It has the following inputs: Enum: Current State (so 0 - 30) Enum: source (currently only 2 entries) Boolean: Request Boolean: type Enum: Status (3 states) Enum: Handling (3 states) Boolean: Completed The 31 States are really needed (big business process). Breaking into seperate state machines doesnt seem feasable - each state is distinct. I have written tests for one set of inputs (the most common set), with one test per input (all inputs constant, except for the State input): [Subject("Application Process States")] public class When_state_is_meeting2Requested : AppProcessBase { Establish context = () => { //Setup.... }; Because of = () => process.Load(jas, vac); It Current_node_should_be_meeting2Requested = () => process.CurrentNode.ShouldBeOfType<meetingRequestedNode>(); It Can_move_to_clientDeclined = () => Check(process, process.clientDeclined); It Can_move_to_meeting1Arranged = () => Check(process, process.meeting1Arranged); It Can_move_to_meeting2Arranged = () => Check(process, process.meeting2Arranged); It Can_move_to_Reject = () => Check(process, process.Reject); It Cannot_move_to_any_other_state = () => AllOthersFalse(process); } As no one is entirely sure on what the output should be for each state and set of inputs i have been starting to write tests for it, however on calculation i will need to write 4320 ( 30*2*2*2*3*3*2 ) tests for it. Does anyone have any suggestions on how i should go about testing this?

  Read the article

• Mapping composite foreign keys in a many-many relationship, with overlapping components.

  - by Kirk Broadhurst

  I have a Page table and a View table. There is a many-many relationship between these two via a PageView table. Unfortunately all of these tables need to have composite keys (for business reasons). Page has a primary key of (PageCode, Version), View has a primary key of (ViewCode, Version). PageView obviously enough has PageCode, ViewCode, and Version. The FK to Page is (PageCode, Version) and the FK to View is (ViewCode, Version) Makes sense and works, but when I try to map this in Entity framework I get Error 3021: Problem in mapping fragments...: Each of the following columns in table PageView is mapped to multiple conceptual side properties: PageView.Version is mapped to (PageView_Association.View.Version, PageView_Association.Page.Version) So clearly enough, EF is having a complain about the Version column being a common component of the two foreign keys. Obviously I could create a PageVersion and ViewVersion column in the join table, but that kind of defeats the point of the constraint, i.e. the Page and View must have the same Version value. Has anyone encountered this, and is there anything I can do get around it? Thanks!

  Read the article

• pthread condition variables on Linux, odd behaviour.

  - by janesconference

  Hi. I'm synchronizing reader and writer processes on Linux. I have 0 or more process (the readers) that need to sleep until they are woken up, read a resource, go back to sleep and so on. Please note I don't know how many reader processes are up at any moment. I have one process (the writer) that writes on a resource, wakes up the readers and does its business until another resource is ready (in detail, I developed a no starve reader-writers solution, but that's not important). To implement the sleep / wake up mechanism I use a Posix condition value, pthread_cond_t. The clients call a pthread_cond_wait() on the variable to sleep, while the server does a pthread_cond_broadcast() to wake them all up. As the manual says, I surround these two calls with a lock/unlock of the associated pthread mutex. The condition variable and the mutex are initialized in the server and shared between processes through a shared memory area (because I'm not working with threads, but with separate processes) an I'm sure my kernel / syscall support it (because I checked _POSIX_THREAD_PROCESS_SHARED). What happens is that the first client process sleeps and wakes up perfectly. When I start the second process, it blocks on its pthread_cond_wait() and never wakes up, even if I'm sure (by the logs) that pthread_cond_broadcast() is called. If I kill the first process, and launch another one, it works perfectly. In other words, the condition variable pthread_cond_broadcast() seems to wake up only one process a time. If more than one process wait on the very same shared condition variable, only the first one manages to wake up correctly, while the others just seem to ignore the broadcast. Why this behaviour? If I send a pthread_cond_broadcast(), every waiting process should wake up, not just one (and, however, not always the same one).

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382  | Next Page >