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  • Generics Java and Shadowing of type parameters

    - by rubixibuc
    This code seems to work fine class Rule<T> { public <T>Rule(T t) { } public <T> void Foo(T t) { } } Does the method type parameter shadow the class type parameter? Also when you create an object does it use the type parameter of the class? example Rule<String> r = new Rule<String>(); Does this normally apply to the type parameter of the class, in the situation where they do not conflict? I mean when only the class has a type parameter, not the constructor, or does this look for a type parameter in the constructor? If they do conflict how does this change? SEE DISCUSSION BELOW if I have a function call x = <Type Parameter>method(); // this is a syntax error even inside the function or class ; I must place a this before it, why is this, and does everything still hold true. Why don't I need to prefix anything for the constructor call. Shouldn't Oracle fix this.

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  • C++ unrestricted union workaround

    - by Chris
    #include <stdio.h> struct B { int x,y; }; struct A : public B { // This whines about "copy assignment operator not allowed in union" //A& operator =(const A& a) { printf("A=A should do the exact same thing as A=B\n"); } A& operator =(const B& b) { printf("A = B\n"); } }; union U { A a; B b; }; int main(int argc, const char* argv[]) { U u1, u2; u1.a = u2.b; // You can do this and it calls the operator = u1.a = (B)u2.a; // This works too u1.a = u2.a; // This calls the default assignment operator >:@ } Is there any workaround to be able to do that last line u1.a = u2.a with the exact same syntax, but have it call the operator = (don't care if it's =(B&) or =(A&)) instead of just copying data? Or are unrestricted unions (not supported even in Visual Studio 2010) the only option?

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  • Most effecient way to create a "slider" timeline in HTML, CSS, and JavaScript?

    - by ZapChance
    Alright, so here's my dilemma. I've got these two "slides" lined up, one ready to be passed into view. I have it working and all, but I can scroll over to the right to see the second slide! How could I have it you can only view the one slide? JavaScript used: function validate(form) { var user = form.username.value; var pass = form.password.value; if(user === "test") { if(pass === "pass") { var hideoptions = {"direction" : "left", "mode" : "hide"}; var showoptions = {"direction" : "left", "mode" : "show"}; /*$("#loginView").toggle("slide", hideoptions, 1000, function() { $("#loginView").css("margin-left", "100%"); }); $("#mainView").toggle("slide", showoptions, 1000, function() { $("#mainView").css("margin-left", 0); });*/ $("#loginView").animate({ marginLeft: "-100%" }, 1000); $("#mainView").animate({ marginLeft: "0" }, 1000); } else { alert("nope"); } } else { alert("nope 2"); } } As you can see here @ http://jsfiddle.net/D7Va3/1/ (JSFiddle), once you enter "test" and "pass", then click enter, the tiles slide. But. If you reload, you can see that you can scroll to the right of the screen and view the second slide prematurely, which is just not going to work for me. I still need to achieve the same seamless transition, but you must only be able to view one slide at a time. Also, I plan to expand with more slides, so if you're feeling lucky today, I'd really love to see an example of how I could support multiple frames. I'm very new to JavaScript (yet I know syntax rules, and general coding knowledge from other languages), so the better you explain, the more knowledgeable I can be, and I'd be very grateful for that. Thanks in advance!

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  • casting char[][] to char** causes segfault?

    - by Earlz
    Ok my C is a bit rusty but I figured I'd make my next(small) project in C so I could polish back up on it and less than 20 lines in I already have a seg fault. This is my complete code: #define ROWS 4 #define COLS 4 char main_map[ROWS][COLS+1]={ "a.bb", "a.c.", "adc.", ".dc."}; void print_map(char** map){ int i; for(i=0;i<ROWS;i++){ puts(map[i]); //segfault here } } int main(){ print_map(main_map); //if I comment out this line it will work. puts(main_map[3]); return 0; } I am completely confused as to how this is causing a segfault. What is happening when casting from [][] to **!? That is the only warning I get. rushhour.c:23:3: warning: passing argument 1 of ‘print_map’ from incompatible pointer type rushhour.c:13:7: note: expected ‘char **’ but argument is of type ‘char (*)[5]’ Are [][] and ** really not compatible pointer types? They seem like they are just syntax to me.

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  • Using NHibernate's HQL to make a query with multiple inner joins

    - by Abu Dhabi
    The problem here consists of translating a statement written in LINQ to SQL syntax into the equivalent for NHibernate. The LINQ to SQL code looks like so: var whatevervar = from threads in context.THREADs join threadposts in context.THREADPOSTs on threads.thread_id equals threadposts.thread_id join posts1 in context.POSTs on threadposts.post_id equals posts1.post_id join users in context.USERs on posts1.user_id equals users.user_id orderby posts1.post_time where threads.thread_id == int.Parse(id) select new { threads.thread_topic, posts1.post_time, users.user_display_name, users.user_signature, users.user_avatar, posts1.post_body, posts1.post_topic }; It's essentially trying to grab a list of posts within a given forum thread. The best I've been able to come up with (with the help of the helpful users of this site) for NHibernate is: var whatevervar = session.CreateQuery("select t.Thread_topic, p.Post_time, " + "u.User_display_name, u.User_signature, " + "u.User_avatar, p.Post_body, p.Post_topic " + "from THREADPOST tp " + "inner join tp.Thread_ as t " + "inner join tp.Post_ as p " + "inner join p.User_ as u " + "where tp.Thread_ = :what") .SetParameter<THREAD>("what", threadid) .SetResultTransformer(Transformers.AliasToBean(typeof(MyDTO))) .List<MyDTO>(); But that doesn't parse well, complaining that the aliases for the joined tables are null references. MyDTO is a custom type for the output: public class MyDTO { public string thread_topic { get; set; } public DateTime post_time { get; set; } public string user_display_name { get; set; } public string user_signature { get; set; } public string user_avatar { get; set; } public string post_topic { get; set; } public string post_body { get; set; } } I'm out of ideas, and while doing this by direct SQL query is possible, I'd like to do it properly, without defeating the purpose of using an ORM. Thanks in advance! EDIT: The database looks like this: http://i41.tinypic.com/5agciu.jpg (Can't post images yet.)

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  • Potential Django Bug In QuerySet.query?

    - by Mike
    Disclaimer: I'm still learning Django, so I might be missing something here, but I can't see what it would be... I'm running Python 2.6.1 and Django 1.2.1. (InteractiveConsole) >>> from myproject.myapp.models import * >>> qs = Identifier.objects.filter(Q(key="a") | Q(key="b")) >>> print qs.query SELECT `app_identifier`.`id`, `app_identifier`.`user_id`, `app_identifier`.`key`, `app_identifier`.`value` FROM `app_identifier` WHERE (`app_identifier`.`key` = a OR `app_identifier`.`key` = b ) >>> Notice that it doesn't put quotes around "a" or "b"! Now, I've determined that the query executes fine. So, in reality, it must be doing so. But, it's pretty annoying that printing out the query prints it wrong. Especially if I did something like this... >>> qs = Identifier.objects.filter(Q(key=") AND") | Q(key="\"x\"); DROP TABLE `app_identifier`")) >>> print qs.query SELECT `app_identifier`.`id`, `app_identifier`.`user_id`, `app_identifier`.`key`, `app_identifier`.`value` FROM `app_identifier` WHERE (`app_identifier`.`key` = ) AND OR `app_identifier`.`key` = "x"); DROP TABLE `app_identifier` ) >>> Which, as you can see, not only creates completely malformed SQL code, but also has the seeds of a SQL injection attack. Now, obviously this wouldn't actually work, for quite a number of reasons (1. The syntax is all wrong, intentionally, to show the oddity of Django's behavior. 2. Django won't actually execute the query like this, it will actually put quotes and slashes and all that in there like it's supposed to). But, this really makes debugging confusing, and it makes me wonder if something's gone wrong with my Django installation. Does this happen for you? If so/not, what version of Python and Django do you have? Any thoughts?

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  • Processing data from an AJAX request

    - by Josh K
    I have a PHP API I'm working with that outputs everything as JSON. I need to call one of the API methods and parse it out using an AJAX request. I am using jQuery (though it shouldn't matter). When I make the request it errors out with a "parsererror" as the textStatus and a "Syntax Error: invalid label" when I make the request. Simplified code: $.ajax ({ type: "POST", url: "http://mydomain.com/api/get/userlist/"+mid, dataType: "json", dataFilter: function(data, type) { /* Here we assume and pray */ users = eval(data); alert(users[1].id); }, success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { alert(data.length); // Should be an array, yet is undefined. }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert(textStatus); alert(errorThrown); }, complete: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus) { alert("Done"); } }); If I leave off the eval(data) then everything works fine. Well, except for data still being undefined in success. Note that I'm taking an array of objects in PHP and then passing them out through json_encode. Would that make any difference? There has been no progress made on this. I'm willing to throw more code up if someone believes they can help. Here is the PHP side of things private function _get_user_colors($id) { $u = new User(); $u->get_where(array('id' => $id)); $bar = array(); $bar['user'] = $u->stored; foreach($user->colors as $color) { $bar['colors'][] = $color; } echo(json_encode($bar)); } I have had zero issues using this with other PHP based scripts. I don't know why Javascript would take issue with it.

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  • C# language questions

    - by Water Cooler v2
    1) What is int? Is it any different from the struct System.Int32? I understand that the former is a C# alias (typedef or #define equivalant) for the CLR type System.Int32. Is this understanding correct? 2) When we say: IComparable x = 10; Is that like saying: IComparable x = new System.Int32(); But we can't new a struct, right? or in C like syntax: struct System.In32 *x; x=>someThing = 10; 3) What is String with a capitalized S? I see in Reflector that it is the sealed String class, which, of course, is a reference type, unlike the System.Int32 above, which is a value type. What is string, with an uncapitalized s, though? Is that also the C# alias for this class? Why can I not see the alias definitions in Reflector? 4) Try to follow me down this subtle train of thought, if you please. We know that a storage location of a particular type can only access properties and members on its interface. That means: Person p = new Customer(); p.Name = "Water Cooler v2"; // legal because as Name is defined on Person. but // illegal without an explicit cast even though the backing // store is a Customer, the storage location is of type // Person, which doesn't support the member/method being // accessed/called. p.GetTotalValueOfOrdersMade(); Now, with that inference, consider this scenario: int i = 10; // obvious System.object defines no member to // store an integer value or any other value in. // So, my question really is, when the integer is // boxed, what is the *type* it is actually boxed to. // In other words, what is the type that forms the // backing store on the heap, for this operation? object x = i;

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  • PHP: Need a double check on an error in this small code

    - by Josh K
    I have this simple Select box that is suppose to store the selected value in a hidden input, which can then be used for POST (I am doing it this way to use data from disabled drop down menus) <body> <?php $Z = $_POST[hdn]; ?> <form id="form1" name="form1" method="post" action="test.php"> <select name="whatever" id="whatever" onchange="document.getElementById('hdn').value = this.value"> <option value="1">1Value</option> <option value="2">2Value</option> <option value="3">3Value</option> <option value="4">4Value</option> </select> <input type="hidden" name ='hdn' id="hdn" /> <input type="submit" id='submit' /> <?php echo "<p>".$Z."</p>"; ?> </form> </body> The echo call works for the last 3 options (2,3,4) but if I select the first one it doesnt output anything, and even if i change first one it still doesnt output anything. Can someone explain to me whats going on, I think it might be a syntax issue.

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  • How can I get distinct values using Linq to NHibernate?

    - by Chris
    I've been trying to get distinct values using Linq to NHibernate and I'm failing miserably. I've tried: var query = from requesters in _session.Linq<Requesters>() orderby requesters.Requestor ascending select requesters; return query.Distinct(); As well as var query = from requesters in _session.Linq<Requesters>() orderby requesters.Requestor ascending select requesters; return query.Distinct(new RequestorComparer()); Where RequestorComparer is public class RequestorComparer : IEqualityComparer<Requesters> { #region IEqualityComparer<Requesters> Members bool IEqualityComparer<Requesters>.Equals(Requesters x, Requesters y) { //return x.RequestorId.Value.Equals(y.RequestorId.Value); return ((x.RequestorId == y.RequestorId) && (x.Requestor == y.Requestor)); } int IEqualityComparer<Requesters>.GetHashCode(Requesters obj) { return obj.RequestorId.Value.GetHashCode(); } #endregion } No matter how I structure the syntax, it never seems to hit the .Distinct(). Without .Distinct() there are multiple duplicates by default in the table I'm querying, on order of 195 total records but there should only be 22 distinct values returned. I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong but would greatly appreciate any assistance that can be provided. Thanks

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  • C# Generic Generics (A Serious Question)

    - by tahirhassan
    In C# I am trying to write code where I would be creating a Func delegate which is in itself generic. For example the following (non-Generic) delegate is returning an arbitrary string: Func<string> getString = () => "Hello!"; I on the other hand want to create a generic which acts similarly to generic methods. For example if I want a generic Func to return default(T) for a type T. I would imagine that I write code as follows: Func<T><T> getDefaultObject = <T>() => default(T); Then I would use it as getDefaultObject<string>() which would return null and if I were to write getDefaultObject<int>() would return 0. This question is not merely an academic excercise. I have found numerous places where I could have used this but I cannot get the syntax right. Is this possible? Are there any libraries which provide this sort of functionality?

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  • jquery small error

    - by HeinekenBluess
    Hi, i am very new at jquery and code, here i am trying to get the setTimeout event to be inside the .mouseout event but i'm not sure how to do that as i keep getting syntax error in my editor. Here's what i have: jQuery(document).ready(function() { $('.slidedown').hide(); $('.trigger').hover( function(){ // enter animation $('.slidedown').stop(true,true).animate({ height: ['toggle', 'swing'], }, 600, function() { /* animation done */ }); }, function(){ // leave animation $('.slidedown').mouseout() setTimeout( function(){ $('.slidedown').stop(true,true).animate({ height: '0px', }, 600, function() { /* animation done */ }); }, 1000 ); }); }); A small nuance, in this code the user mouses over a div, then another div bellow it slides down. Moving the mouse to the .slidedown div should keep it open until the mouse is removed. But will this code collapse the .slidedown div if the user doesn't mouse over .slidedown after .trigger but instead moves the mouse directly from .trigger to another area of page? I.e i need some kind of 'setTimeout' that is trigged only if the user doesn't move mouse over .slidedown after hovering over .trigger. Hope i make sense. Thanks for your help!

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  • Generic delegate instances

    - by Luc C
    I wonder if C# (or the underlying .NET framework) supports some kind of "generic delegate instances": that is a delegate instance that still has an unresolved type parameter, to be resolved at the time the delegate is invoked (not at the time the delegate is created). I suspect this isn't possible, but I'm asking it anyway... Here is an example of what I'd like to do, with some "???" inserted in places where the C# syntax seems to be unavailable for what I want. (Obviously this code doesn't compile) class Foo { public T Factory<T>(string name) { // implementation omitted } } class Test { public void TestMethod() { Foo foo = new Foo(); ??? magic = foo.Factory; // No type argument given here yet to Factory! // What would the '???' be here (other than 'var' :) )? string aString = magic<string>("name 1"); // type provided on call int anInt = magic<int>("name 2"); // another type provided on another call // Note the underlying calls work perfectly fine, these work, but i'd like to expose // the generic method as a delegate. string aString2 = foo.Factory<string>("name 1"); int anInt2 = foo.Factory<int>("name 2"); } } Is there a way to actually do something like this in C#? If not, is that a limitation in the language, or is it in the .NET framework?

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  • Is there a selector or a work around to select any element with no children.

    - by rnaud
    Looking at the CSS3 specs, I can't find any way to select any element that has no children. Let me explain. <body> <h1>Main Page</h1> <div id="main"> <div class="post"> <h2>Article 1</h1> <p>some text</p> </div> <div class="post"> <h2>Article 2</h1> <p>some text</p> </div> </div> </body> I'm looking for a CSS syntax to select the h1, the two h2 and the two p. A way to select in any page, all elements with no children. Any suggestion ? Sorry, I forgot to add the "empty" part, I am actually already using the *:empty selector, but it's not working for any tag that has a nodeText as a child. So it's working for any input, image, object, but not for h2, h1, or any p.

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  • Lost in Nodester Installation

    - by jslamka
    I am trying to install my own version of Nodester. I have tried on Ubuntu 12.04 LTS and now with CentOS. I am not the most skilled Linux user (~2 months use) so I am at a loss at this point. The instructions are located at https://github.com/nodester/nodester/wiki/Install-nodester#wiki-a. They ask you to "export paths (to make npm work)" with the lines necessary to accomplish this. cd ~ echo -e "root = ~/.node_libraries\nmanroot = ~/local/share/man\nbinroot = ~/bin" > ~/.npmrc echo -e "export PATH=3d9c7cfd35d3628e0aa233dec9ce9a44d2231afcquot;\${PATH}:~/bin3d9c7cfd35d3628e0aa233dec9ce9a44d2231afcquot;;" >> ~/.bashrc source ~/.bashrc I can accomplish all of this until I get to the source ~/.bashrc line. When I run that, I get the following: [root@MYSERVER ~]# source ~/.bashrc -bash: /root/.bashrc: line 13: syntax error near unexpected token ';;' -bash: /root/.bashrc: line 13: 'export PATH=3d9c7cfd35d3628e0aa233dec9ce9a44d2231afcquot;${PATH}:~/bin3d9c7cfd35d3628e0aa233dec9ce9a44d2231afcquot;; I have tried changing the quot; to " and that didn't help. I tried changing quot; to colons and that didn't help. I also removed that and it didn't help (I am sure many of you at this point are probably wondering why I would even try those things). Does anyone have any insight as to what I need to do to get this to run properly?

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  • What is PHP like as a programming language?

    - by seanlinmt
    I am not really familiar with PHP, but I get the impression that it is like JavaScript (syntax-wise). What are the benefits of a dynamically typed language, when compared to a strongly typed language like C# or Java, and how would this help in the context of web development? What would make a dynamically typed language so attractive? Or, does the popularity of PHP have more to do with it being free? Okay, I think I better give a little more background to get more meaningful answers, because I am not wanting a flame war. I come from a C background, and when I moved into C# and Visual Studio. Having code completion, integration with an SQL database, huge existing class libraries and easy to access documentation, as well as new tools such as LINQ and ReSharper was like heaven. I didn't enjoy JavaScript before JQuery, but now I love it as well. Recently, I ported a PHP project over to C# and I used Zend to help me debug and understand more while porting - instead of maintaining two code streams. That also cut down on the cost of the server and maintenance. Getting into PHP would be nice. I think that Visual Studio has spoiled me - but again Eclipse is also equally spoiling. It would be nice to have an answer from someone who has experience developing both under PHP and .NET.

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  • Code producing System.NullReferenceException error for Membership.GetUser(). This is VB.Net (ASP.Net 4)

    - by Derrek
    I have a Default.aspx page that is not static. I have added functionality with datalist and sqldatasources. When a user logins he/she will see items like saved workouts, saved equipment, total replys, etc... This is based on getting the currently logged in user UserID. Quite simply this works great when the user is logged in. However, I do not want to force a user to login to view the Default page because it does have functionality on it that does not require login. When a user is not logged in of course I receive the [System.NullReferenceException] error. I understand the error well but I do not know how to code to fix it. That is where I need help. I will admit I am more designer than developer. However, I do know the exception error I am receivving is caused by me not setting a value in my code when a user is not logged in. I do not know how to do that and have for a week made unsuccessful attempts at writing the code. Both sets of code below compile for VB.Net/ASP.Net 4/Visual Studio 2010 without errors. However, I still get the System.NullReferenceException error if not logged in. I know it can be done but I do not know the right syntax. If you can help please insert you code in mine or write it out. JUST TELLING ME WHERE TO GO TO FIND AN ANSWER WON'T HELP. I HAVE DONE THAT FOR 7 STRAIGHT DAYS. I APPRECIATE OUR HELP. Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() If Not MemUser Is DBNull.Value Then UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End If End Sub -------------------------------------ORIGINAL CODE------------------------------- Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End Sub

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  • How can I pass an array resulting from a Perl method by reference?

    - by arareko
    Some XML::LibXML methods return arrays instead of references to arrays. Instead of doing this: $self->process_items($xml->findnodes('items/item')); I want to do something like: $self->process_items(\$xml->findnodes('items/item')); So that in process_items() I can dereference the original array instead of creating a copy: sub process_items { my ($self, $items) = @_; foreach my $item (@$items) { # do something... } } I can always store the results of findnodes() into an array and then pass the array reference to my own method, but let's say I want to try a reduced version of my code. Is that the correct syntax for passing the method results or should I use something different? Thanks! EDIT: Now suppose I want to change process_items() to process_item() so I can do stuff on a single element of the referenced array inside a loop. Something like: $self->process_item($_) for ([ $xml->findnodes('items/item') ]); This doesn't work as process_item() is executed only once because a single value is passed to the for loop (the reference to the array from findnodes()). What's the proper way of using $_ in this case?

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  • problem using fprintf

    - by shiran bar
    I'm trying to print to a text file numerous variables yet it doesn't work. I checked and verified that i write it in the correct syntax. I also checked the return value and it's positive therefore i know it did write to the file, however when i open the file it's empty. I would be happy for some help. This is the code: I initiate DynsaleDayPtr in the main: FILE* DynsaleDayPtr = CreateTextFiles("sale_day.txt"); Create function: FILE* CreateTextFiles (char* fileName) { FILE* saleFilePtr=NULL; if((saleFilePtr=fopen(fileName,"a+"))==NULL) printf("File couldn't be opened\n"); return saleFilePtr; } The call to the function TextAddSale is done from a function that is called in the main: TextAddSale(DynSaleDayPtr,dynNumOfRecords); Bool TextAddSale (FILE* DynsaleDayPtr, int* dynNumOfRecords) { char id[6]; char name [50]; char priceChar[20]; char* tmp = NULL; int price=-1; DynamicRecord * newRec=NULL; scanf("%s%s%s",id,name,priceChar); newRec = (DynamicRecord *)malloc(sizeof(DynamicRecord)); if (newRec == NULL) return False; tmp = (char*)malloc(strlen(name)+1); if (tmp == NULL) { free (newRec); return False; } strcpy(tmp,name); newRec->productName = tmp; strcpy(newRec->productId, id); newRec->productPrice=atoi (priceChar); if (fprintf(DynsaleDayPtr,"%d %s %s %d", strlen(newRec->productName), newRec->productId, newRec->productName, newRec->productPrice)>0) { *dynNumOfRecords=(*dynNumOfRecords)+1; return True; } } thanks!

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  • Grouping by property value and writing group members

    - by Will S
    I need to group the following list by the department value but am having trouble with the LINQ syntax. Here's my list of objects: var people = new List<Person> { new Person { name = "John", department = new List<fields> {new fields { name = "department", value = "IT"}}}, new Person { name = "Sally", department = new List<fields> {new fields { name = "department", value = "IT"}}}, new Person { name = "Bob", department = new List<fields> {new fields { name = "department", value = "Finance"}}}, new Person { name = "Wanda", department = new List<fields> {new fields { name = "department", value = "Finance"}}}, }; I've toyed around with grouping. This is as far as I've got: var query = from p in people from field in p.department where field.name == "department" group p by field.value into departments select new { Department = departments.Key, Name = departments }; So can iterate over the groups, but not sure how to list the Person names - foreach (var department in query) { Console.WriteLine("Department: {0}", department.Department); foreach (var foo in department.Department) { // ?? } } Any ideas on what to do better or how to list the names of the relevant departments?

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  • Custom stream wrappers, what could they be useful for in web applications?

    - by michael
    I suppose the concept is language agnostic, but I don't know what it's called in other languages. In PHP they're Stream Wrappers. In short, a wrapper class that allows manipulation of a streamable resource (resource that can be read to/written to/seek into, such as a file, a db, an url). For example, in a template engine (a view), upon including a template file such as: include "view.wrapper://path/to/my/template/file.phtml"; my custom wrapper, declared elsewhere and associated with "view.wrapper", would first intercepts the file to replace such things as short tags (<?=) with a more verbose counterpart (<?php echo). This allows developers to use short tags in views, even if the server isn't set to allow it. It can also be applied to the preprocessing of views pseudo syntax such as {@myVar} (e.g. replacing it with $this->myVar). This is only one application of custom stream wrappers, but the feature seems powerful enough to make me think that there are others that could make life a lot simpler for developers. What have you built, or thought about building, custom stream wrappers for? where have you seen some interesting implementations? I'm particularly interested in their applications in web development.

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  • Sliding div in jquery

    - by Sean
    I am trying to make a toolbar type section on the top of my site. I just need one div that will be hidden by default, and a button that will be hanging off the bottom of that div. When it is clicked, the div should slide down (with the button still on bottom). And upon clicking, it should slide back up. Here is what I currently have: <div id="account_toolbar" style="background-color:#fff;"> <div id="toolbar_contents" style="display:none;"> This is the account toolbar so far </div> <div id="button" style="background-color: #ff0000;"><%= image_tag "templates/_global/my_account.png", :id => "my_account_btn", :style => "float: right; margin-right: 100px;" %></div> </div> The image tag is using ruby/rails syntax, so pay no attention to that. It will render like any other image tag. Here is the jquery i'm using: $('#my_account_btn').click(function () { $('#toolbar_contents').slideToggle(); }); So, this is actually working for the most part. My problem however is that the spacing where the toolbar content div goes, pushes the account button down. When it slides up or down it temporarily attaches itself to the bottom of the div, then jumps back down once it is finished sliding (leaving a gap between the bottom of the hidden div and the top of the account button). I hope that makes sense. thanks

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  • Passing Javascript value to PHP Variable using ajax

    - by shels
    I am trying to use a Flash detection script to assess whether Flash Plugin is enabled in the user browser so that a different page loads. The Flash detection script is as follows, using jquery 1.8.2 and jquery.jqplugin 1.0.2 <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.8.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.jqplugin.1.0.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#withflash").hide(); $("#noflash").hide(); if ($.browser.flash == true) $("#withflash").show (); else $("#noflash").show (); }); </script> <div id="withflash">Flash Supported</div> <div id="noflash">Flash Not Supported</div> I get the display that "Flash Supported" if Flash Plugin is present.. I need to capture the value whether flash plugin value is true in a php variable $hasFlashSupport as below: <?php echo " $hasFlashSupport"; exit; ?> I am aware that PHP is server based and Javascript is client based.. Hence Ajax would be a nice option to capture the javascript variable to my php variable. I am totally ignorant about Ajax syntax and how to achieve it. Request the experts here to help me out with the code on how this can be achieved... Thanking all of you in advance..

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  • Performing a MYSQL query based off of $_GET results

    - by Michael N
    When a user clicks an item on my items page, it takes them to blank page template using $_GET to pass the item brand and model through. I'd like to perform another MYSQL query when that user clicks through to populate the blank page with the product details from my database. I'd like to retrieve the single row using the model number (unique ID) to populate the page with the information. I've tried a couple of things but am having a little difficulty. On my blank item page, I have $brand = $_GET['Brand']; $modelnumber = $_GET['ModelNumber']; $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM items WHERE `Model Number` = '$modelnumber'"); $results = mysql_fetch_row($query); echo $results; I think having ''s around Model Number is causing troubles, but without them, I get a Warning: mysql_fetch_row() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given error. My database columns looks like Brand | Model Number | Price | Description | Image A few other things I have tried include $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM item WHERE Model Number = $_GET['ModelNumber']"); Which gave me a syntax error. I've also tried concatenating the $_GET which gives me a mysql_fetch_row() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given error Which leads me to believe that I'm also going about displaying the results incorrectly. I'm not sure if I need to put it in a where loop like I have with my previous page which displays all items in the database because this is just displaying one.

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  • Pass Element value to $ajax->link in cakephp

    - by TwoThumbs
    I need to pass the value of an element to an $ajax-link without using a form/submit structure. (because I have a dynamically set number of clickable links through which I am triggering the action) I used to do this in Ruby using the Prototype javascript function $F like this: <%= link_to_remote "#{item.to_s}", :url => { :action => :add_mpc }, :with => "'category=' + $F('mpc_category')" -%> But this does not seem to work in Cakephp: <?php echo $ajax->link(substr($vehicle['vehicles']['year'], -2), array('action' => 'add_mpc', 'category' => '$F("mpc_category")'), array('update' => 'results', 'position' => 'top')); ?> PHP sees $F as a variable instead of a call to javascript. I'm not too familiar with Javascript, but is there another way to pass the value of the 'mpc_category' input element to the controller through this link? I have been looking for a couple days and can't find anyone dealing with this specific issue. Thanks for any assistance. Edit: fixed syntax in php statement.

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