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  • problem with joomla, php and json

    - by sebastian
    hi, i have a problem with a joomla component. i'm, unsing php and json for some dynamic drop down boxes. here is the code:` jQuery( function () { //jQuery.ajaxSetup({error : function (a,b) {console.dir(a); console.dir(b);}}); jQuery("#util, #loc").change( function() { var locatie = jQuery("#loc").val(); var utilitate = jQuery("#util").val(); if ( (locatie!= '---') && (utilitate!='---') ) jQuery.getJSON( "index.php?option=com_calculator&opt=json_contor&format=raw", { locatie: locatie, utilitate: utilitate }, function (data) { var html = ""; if ( data.success == 'ok' ) for (var i in data.val) html += "<option name=den_contor value ='"+ i+"' >" + data.val[i]+ " </option>"; jQuery("#den_contor").html( html ) } ) }) }); the query works, but only on one PC. we have exactly the same xampp server, exactly the same files. on one pc it works, and on a online server and on my pc it doesn't. EDIT: i have three drop down boxes, the first is populated directly from the database, the second has 4 predefined values. and the third is populated depending on combination of the first two. i have a test site online. http://contor.redxart.com must be logged in to use Calculator in the menu. you can make an new account :) "Adaugare Index" is the part that isn't working any ideas? thanks, sebastian

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  • How to catch YouTube embed code and turn into URL

    - by Jonathan Vanasco
    I need to strip YouTube embed codes down to their URL only. This is the exact opposite of all but one question on StackOverflow. Most people want to turn the URL into an embed code. This question addresses the usage patttern I want, but is tied to a specific embed code's regex ( Strip YouTube Embed Code Down to URL Only ) I'm not familiar with how YouTube has offered embeds over the years - or how the sizes differ. According to their current site, there are 2 possible embed templates and a variety of options. If that's it, I can handle a regex myself -- but I was hoping someone had more knowledge they could share, so I could write a proper regex pattern that matches them all and not run into endless edge-cases. The full use case scenario : user enters content in web based wysiwig editor backend cleans out youtube & other embed codes; reformats approved embeds into an internal format as the text is all converted to markdown. on display, appropriate current template/code display for youtube or other 3rd party site is generated At a previous company, our tech-team devised a plan where YouTube videos were embedded by listing the URL only. That worked great , but it was in a CMS where everyone was trained. I'm trying to create a similar storage, but for user-generated-content.

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  • How to reference an embedded JCA resource adapater

    - by cg
    For our current J2EE project based on JBoss, we need to interface with a remote system using message driven beans and a JCA resource adapter provided as a RAR file by a third party. I would like to package and deploy the entire project as an EAR file to our JBoss server. Most notably, the RAR file should be embedded within the EAR file and not be deployed globally. All of this is working fine so far, but I'm not particularly happy with the way the RAR file is referenced. The jboss.xml packaged with the MDB for example, currently looks like this: <jboss> <enterprise-beans> <message-driven> <ejb-name>testBean1</ejb-name> <resource-adapter-name>test1.ear#thirdparty-1.0.rar</resource-adapter-name> </message-driven> </enterprise-beans> </jboss> While this is generally working fine, it will break when the EAR file is renamed to "test2.ear". Is there a way to reference the embedded RAR file without hard-coding the containing archive's name?

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  • Dynamic Collapsable Flow Chart Online

    - by Simon
    Been looking through a number of other related posts relating to flowchart software. I have been asked to put together a document outlining some of the typical problems our users encounter with our software product. What I would like to do, is create an interactive/online flowchart that lets users choose from 4-5 overall headings on whats wrong. Then for this to dynamically expand more choices on pinpointing the problem, and so on and so on, until they can get a resolution to their problem. The key thing that I have not been able to find in some of the flowchart software out there, is having the click + expand element. - I dont want all options to appear to the end-user in a huge flow chart as it will distract away from their specific issue. - I want them to be able to click away and go down a specific avenue that will end up giving them some good things to try, based on their decisions/clicks. I was originally thinking of perhaps putting something in Flex or Silverlight (ideally someone would have a template out there) but am now thinking of taking advantage of 3rd party (ideally free) software. This will need to be hosted in a browser. Any ideas?

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  • Javascript "Match" Function Not Returning Proper Results in Safari or IE (but yes in FF)

    - by Jascha
    Forgive me as this is a time sensitive issue and I will have to switch the site back in a few hours so the link will be bad... but: I am simply comparing two strings looking for a match with this function... I have an array of objects called linkArray and I need to match the .src of each object to a .src I send it (the src of the clicked image). if the the src of the image I clicked matches the src of an object in my array, I set a variable to the link string of that object and return true, letting my page know that the link is available. Now, this works great in FF. But not in any other browser and I can't figure out for the life of me why. I have set up a dialogue box to literally compare, by eye, the two strings that should at the very least throw the message "match". Can anyone see what I am missing here??? here is the link... http://7thart.com/Jewish-History-and-Culture/Jews-and-Baseball-An-American-Love-Story If you click any of the thumbnails on the left, you will activate the function. Again, I apologize as after a few hours I have to switch back to the original site and this link will be invalid. Thanks in advance for your help. (function below)... function matchLink(a){ for(var i=0;i<linkArray.length;i++){ var fixLink = '../' + linkArray[i]['src']; alert(fixLink + '\n = \n' + a); if(fixLink == a){ alert('match'); newLink = linkArray[i]['link']; return true; } } return false; } Note: The "match" will return on two of the images.. the initial image, and the first thumbnail on the left. The second thumbnail SHOULD match, and the third one SHOULD NOT match.

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  • C# generics when T could be an array

    - by bufferz
    I am writing a C# wrapper for a 3rd party library that reads both single values and arrays from a hardware device, but always returns an object[] array even for one value. This requires repeated calls to object[0] when I'd like the end user to be able to use generics to receive either an array or single value. I want to use generics so the callee can use the wrapper in the following ways: MyWrapper<float> mw = new MyWrapper<float>( ... ); float value = mw.Value; //should return float; MyWrapper<float[]> mw = new MyWrapper<float[]>( ... ); float[] values = mw.Value; //should return float[]; In MyWrapper I have the Value property currently as the following: public T Value { get { if(_wrappedObject.Values.Length > 1) return (T)_wrappedObject.Value; //T could be float[]. this doesn't compile. else return (T)_wrappedObject.Values[0]; //T could be float. this compiles. } } I get a compile error in the first case: Cannot convert type 'object[]' to 'T' If I change MyWrapper.Value to T[] I receive: Cannot convert type 'object[]' to 'T[]' Any ideas of how to achieve my goal? Thanks!

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  • YQL + PHP : how to make a facebook login

    - by Jonathan
    Hi! I was reading some stuff about the YQL api that Yahoo! has provided, I am not sure, but it appears to be a collection of lots of third party api into one common language, right? what I don't get is how to make the facebook login through it so I can get the user profile data... My project is to add a facebook(and other social networks) form login, because the website won't have his own login, people will have to use a social network to link in. Then I thought the YQL would help me out with this task so I wouldn't have to develop lots of functions to each one of the networks. Reading this http://developer.yahoo.com/yql/guide/yql-code-examples.html#sdk_yql, I understood how to make a Yahoo login so I can access some private data, but couldn't find how I could do it with facebook and others So my question... Can YQL help me with this? Can you give me a simple example of a facebook session using it within PHP? Are there alternatives to aid me in this task? thanks, Jonathan

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  • How to prevent ADO.NET from altering double values when it reads from Excel files

    - by Khnle
    I have the following rows in my Excel input file: Column1 Column2 0-5 3.040 6 2.957 7 2.876 and the following code which uses ADO.NET to read it: string fileName = "input.xls"; var connectionString = string.Format("Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; data source={0}; Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;", fileName); var dbConnection = new OleDbConnection(connectionString); dbConnection.Open(); try { var dbCommand = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM [Sheet1$]", dbConnection); var dbReader = dbCommand.ExecuteReader (); while (dbReader.Read()) { string col1 = dbReader.GetValue(0).ToString(); string col2 = dbReader.GetValue(1).ToString(); } } finally { dbConnection.Close(); } The results are very disturbing. Here's why: The values of each column in the first time through the loop: col1 is empty (blank) col2 is 3.04016411633586 Second time: col1 is 6 col2 is 2.95722928448829 Third time: col1 is 7 col2 is 2.8763272933077 The first problem happens with col1 in the first iteration. I expect 0-5. The second problem happens at every iteration with col2 where ADO.NET obviously alters the values as it reads them. How to stop this mal-behavior?

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  • Counting in R data.table

    - by Simon Z.
    I have the following data.table set.seed(1) DT <- data.table(VAL = sample(c(1, 2, 3), 10, replace = TRUE)) VAL 1: 1 2: 2 3: 2 4: 3 5: 1 6: 3 7: 3 8: 2 9: 2 10: 1 Now I want to to perform two tasks: Count the occurrences of numbers in VAL. Count within all rows with the same value VAL (first, second, third occurrence) At the end I want the result VAL COUNT IDX 1: 1 3 1 2: 2 4 1 3: 2 4 2 4: 3 3 1 5: 1 3 2 6: 3 3 2 7: 3 3 3 8: 2 4 3 9: 2 4 4 10: 1 3 3 where COUNT defines task 1. and IDX task 2. I tried to work with which and length using .I: dt[, list(COUNT = length(VAL == VAL[.I]), IDX = which(which(VAL == VAL[.I]) == .I))] but this does not work as .I refers to a vector with the index, so I guess one must use .I[]. Though inside .I[] I again face the problem, that I do not have the row index and I do know (from reading data.table FAQ and following the posts here) that looping through rows should be avoided if possible. So, what's the data.table way?

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  • Align 3 images in a div , left-centre-right, uneven margin

    - by Adrian
    I could find a work around for this if I wanted but it seems wrong and am trying to learn to code in a neater way. Basically I have a div with 3 images in it, the div is 700px, and each image is 220px, So thats 660px with two 20px gaps left and right of the centre image, and the outside images going all the way to their end of the div. Is there a quicker way of doing this without setting up seperate ids for each image? .contentpictureblock { float:left; } .contentpictureblock img { margin-right:20px; } <div class="contentpictureblock"> <img src="http://..."> <img src="http://..."> <img src="http://..."> </div> Doing the above^ pushes the third image to the next line, which is understandable. I know I could always make seperate divs for each image, and adjust the margins for each one but Im just wondering is there a quicker one off overflow type command that I could apply to the above? It would mean the right margin would be on all the images but would have no effect on its positioning in the last image. Thanks for the help.

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  • jQuery/JavaScript Date form validation

    - by Victor Jackson
    I am using the jQuery date picker calendar in a form. Once submitted the form passes params along via the url to a third party site. Everything works fine, except for one thing. If the value inserted into the date field by the datepicker calendar is subsequently deleted, or if the default date, that is in the form on page load, is deleted and the form is submitted I get the following error: "Conversion from string "" to type 'Date' is not valid." The solution to my problem is really simple, I want to validate the text field where the date is submitted and send out a default date (current date) if the field is empty for any reason. The problem is I am terrible at Javascript and cannot figure out how to do this. Here is the form code for my date field. [var('default_date' = date)] <input type="text" id="datepicker" name="txtdate" value="[$default_date]" onfocus="if (this.value == '[$default_date]') this.value = '';" onchange="form.BeginDate.value = this.value; form.EndDate.value = this.value;" /> <input type="hidden" name="BeginDate" value="[$default_date]"/> <input type="hidden" name="EndDate" value="[$default_date]"/>

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  • What is the procedure for debugging a production-only error?

    - by Lord Torgamus
    Let me say upfront that I'm so ignorant on this topic that I don't even know whether this question has objective answers or not. If it ends up being "not," I'll delete or vote to close the post. Here's the scenario: I just wrote a little web service. It works on my machine. It works on my team lead's machine. It works, as far as I can tell, on every machine except for the production server. The exception that the production server spits out upon failure originates from a third-party JAR file, and is skimpy on information. I search the web for hours, but don't come up with anything useful. So what's the procedure for tracking down an issue that occurs only on production machines? Is there a standard methodology, or perhaps category/family of tools, for this? The error that inspired this question has already been fixed, but that was due more to good fortune than a solid approach to debugging. I'm asking this question for future reference. Some related questions: Test accounts and products in a production system Running test on Production Code/Server

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  • static variable lose its value

    - by user542719
    I have helper class with this static variable that is used for passing data between two classes. public class Helper{ public static String paramDriveMod;//this is the static variable in first calss } this variable is used in following second class mathod public void USB_HandleMessage(char []USB_RXBuffer){ int type=USB_RXBuffer[2]; MESSAGES ms=MESSAGES.values()[type]; switch(ms) { case READ_PARAMETER_VALUE: // read parameter values switch(prm){ case PARAMETER_DRIVE_MODE: // paramet drive mode Helper.paramDriveMod =(Integer.toString(((USB_RXBuffer[4]<< 8)&0xff00))); System.out.println(Helper.paramDriveMod+"drive mode is selectd ");//here it shows the value that I need. ..........}}//let say end switch and method and the following is an third class method use the above class method public void buttonSwitch(int value) throws InterruptedException{ boolean bool=true; int c=0; int delay=(int) Math.random(); while(bool){ int param=3; PARAMETERS prm=PARAMETERS.values()[param]; switch(value){ case 0: value=1; while(c<5){ Thread.sleep(delay); protocol.onSending(3,prm.PARAMETER_DRIVE_MODE.ordinal(),dataToRead,dataToRead.length);//read drive mode System.out.println(Helper.paramDriveMod+" drive mode is ..........in wile loop");//here it shows null value }}//let say end switch and method what is the reason that this variable lose its value?

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  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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  • PHP, MySQL prepared statements - can you use results of execute more than once by calling data_seek(

    - by Carvell Fenton
    Hello, I have a case where I want to use the results of a prepared statement more than once in a nested loop. The outer loop processes the results of another query, and the inner loop is the results of the prepared statement query. So the code would be something like this (just "pseudoish" to demonstrate the concept): // not showing the outer query, it is just a basic SELECT, not prepared statement // we'll call it $outer_query $obj_array = array(); // going to save objects in this $ids = array(18,19,20); // just example id numbers $query = "SELECT field1, field2 FROM table1 WHERE id=?"; $stmt = $db->prepare($query); foreach ($ids as $id) { $stmt->bind_param("i", $id); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($var1, $var2); $stmt->store_result(); // I think I need this for data_seek while ($q1 = $outer_query->fetch_object()) { while ($stmt->fetch()) { if ($q1->field1 == $var1) { // looking for a match $obj = new stdClass(); $obj->var1 = $var1; $obj->var2 = $var2; $obj_array[] = $obj; $stmt->data_seek(0); // reset for outer loop break; // found match, so leave inner } } } } The problem I seem to be experiencing is that the values are not getting bound in the variables as I would expect after the first time I use fetch in the inner loop. Specifically, in one example I ran with 3 ids for the foreach, the first id was processed correctly, the second was processed incorrectly (matches were not found in the inner loop even though they existed), and then the third was processed correctly. Is there something wrong with the prepared statment function calls in the sequence I am doing above, or is this an invalid way to use the results of the prepared statement? Thanks.

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  • Code promotion: Enforcing the rules

    - by jbarker7
    So here is our problem: We have a small team of developers with their own ways of doing things-- I am trying to formalize a process in which we are required to promote our code in the following order: Local sandbox Dev UAT Staging Live Developers develop/test as they go on their own sandbox, Dev is its own box that we would use for continuous integration, UAT is another site in IIS on the dev box, which uses our dev database. We then promote to staging, which is a site in IIS on the Live box and using live data (just like the live, hence staging). Then, finally, we promote to live. Here are a few of my questions: 1.) Does this seem to be best practice? If not, what needs to be done differently? 2.) How do I enforce the rules to the developers? Often developers skip steps in order to save time... this should not be tolerated and would be great if it could be physically enforced. 3.) How do I enforce these rules to the business group? The business group just wants to get features out FAST. Do we promote only on certain days? Thanks! Josh

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  • Truncating a string while storing it in an array in c

    - by Nick
    I am trying to create an array of 20 character strings with a maximum of 17 characters that are obtained from a file named "words.dat". After that the program should truncate the string only showing the first 17 characters and completely ignore the rest of that string. However My question is: I am not quite sure how to accomplish this, can anyone give me some insight on how to accomplish this task? Here is my current code as is: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #define WORDS 20 #define LENGTH 18 char function1(char[WORDS][LENGTH]); int main( void ) { char word_array [WORDS] [LENGTH]; function1(word_array); return ( 0 ) ; } char function1(char word_array[WORDS][LENGTH]) { FILE *wordsfile = fopen("words.dat", "r"); int i = 0; if (wordsfile == NULL) printf("\nwords.dat was not properly opened.\n"); else { for (i = 0; i < WORDS; i++) { fscanf(wordsfile, "%17s", word_array[i]); printf ("%s \n", word_array[i]); } fclose(wordsfile); } return (word_array[WORDS][LENGTH]); } words.dat file: Ninja DragonsFury failninja dragonsrage leagueoflegendssurfgthyjnu white black red green yellow green leagueoflegendssughjkuj dragonsfury Sword sodas tiger snakes Swords Snakes sage Sample output: blahblah@fang:~>a.out Ninja DragonsFury failninja dragonsrage leagueoflegendssu rfgthyjnu white black red green yellow green leagueoflegendssu ghjkuj dragonsfury Sword sodas tiger snakes Swords blahblah@fang:~> What will be accomplished afterwards with this program is: After function1 works properly I will then create a second function name "function2" that will look throughout the array for matching pairs of words that match "EXACTLY" including case . After I will create a third function that displays the 20 character strings from the words.dat file that I previously created and the matching words.

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  • How to call IronPython function from C#/F#?

    - by prosseek
    This is kind of follow up questions of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2969194/integration-of-c-f-ironpython-and-ironruby In order to use C/C++ function from Python, SWIG is the easiest solution. The reverse way is also possible with Python C API, for example, if we have a python function as follows def add(x,y): return (x + 10*y) We can come up with the wrapper in C to use this python as follows. double Add(double a, double b) { PyObject *X, *Y, *pValue, *pArgs; double res; pArgs = PyTuple_New(2); X = Py_BuildValue("d", a); Y = Py_BuildValue("d", b); PyTuple_SetItem(pArgs, 0, X); PyTuple_SetItem(pArgs, 1, Y); pValue = PyEval_CallObject(pFunc, pArgs); res = PyFloat_AsDouble(pValue); Py_DECREF(X); Py_DECREF(Y); Py_DECREF(pArgs); return res; } How about the IronPython/C# or even F#? How to call the C#/F# function from IronPython? Or, is there any SWIG equivalent tool in IronPython/C#? How to call the IronPython function from C#/F#? I guess I could use "engine.CreateScriptSourceFromString" or similar, but I need to find a way to call IronPython function look like a C#/F# function.

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  • what is a root directory in IIS 6 and How do I make one of my subfolder in ASP.NET website the root directory?

    - by R_Coder
    I need to integrate a third party plugin in my asp.net website. To install the plugin, they have mentioned this sentence, "Create an application through your IIS control panel with root directory at -(some path from my website folder)?". I am not much aware with IIS and rarely worked with it. Though I tried every possible way i could do in IIS, I am not able to work it out. After installation, there is a test page provided by plugin which i have to run to check but when I run it, it shows this error. "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS." I searched this error too and found that it is because the two Web.Config file, one from the main project and another from plugin folder. The only way to work with this is to make the plugin folder they specified as root directory in IIS. Someone kindly tell me some easy steps to do this. What I was doing is, in IIS6, I added New website with the main folder of my asp.net website, then I right clickadd application and choosed the gievn path, thought it would become root directory but it ain't. Help would be appreciated. ALso note that, i have to put the plugin folder in my main website folder only. So, there are two web.config. I tried to rename one of them too, it solved the above error but gave another errors but I think main problem is of root directory. P.S they show me above error on web.config file of plugin folder on this sentence- "Line 51: < authentication mode="Windows" />"

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  • How can I handle unread push notifications in iOS?

    - by Bartserk
    I have a iOS 5.1 application that registers to the APNS service to receive notifications. The register is successful and I receive the notifications correctly. The problem comes when I try to handle the notifications. Once the application is running, the method didReceiveRemoteNotification in the AppDelegate is called correctly and so the notification is handled as intended. This, however, only happens when the application is running on the foreground. However, when the application is running on the background or is simply stopped, that method is not called. I've read that you should add some lines to the method didFinishLaunchingWithOptions method to obtain the notification from the userInfo dictionary, and handle it. This works just fine, but ONLY when the application is opened by clicking on the notification at the Notification Center. This means that if you open the application by clicking on its badge, or simply by changing context if you were running it on the background, the app never realises that a notification came in. Additionally, if more than one notification was received, we can only handle one of them at once by clicking on the Notification Center, which is a pain :-) Is there any way to read the pending notifications in the Notification Center? I know there is a way to flush them using the method cancelAllLocalNotifications but I haven't found a way to just read them. And I really need to handle all of them. I thought of implementing a communication protocol with the third-party notification server to retrieve the information again when the application comes to the foreground, but since the information is already in the operating system I would find it strange if it's impossible to access it somehow. So, does anybody know a way to do it? Thanks in advance.

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  • IOS : BAD ACCESS when trying to add a new Entity object

    - by Maverick447
    So i'm using coredata to model my relationships . This is the model in brief Type A can have one or more types of type B Type B has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type A Type B can have one or more types of type C Type C has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type B From a UI standpoint , I have a Navigation controller with controllers that successively sets up the first A object (VC-1) , then another viewcontroller (VC-2) creates a B object ( I pass in the A object to this controller) and the B object is added to the A object . Similarly the same thing happens with B and C . The third Viewcontroller (VC3) first creates a C object and assigns it to the passed B Object . Also between these viewcontrollers the managedObjectCOntext is also passed . SO my use case is such that while viewcontroller (VC-3) is the top controller a button action will keep creating multiple objects of type C and add them to the same type B object that was passed . Also as part of this function I save the managedObject context after saving each type C . e.g. code in viewcontroller 3 - (void) SaveNewTypeC { TypeC *newtypeC = (Question*)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"TypeC" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newtypeC setProp1:] ; [newtypeC setProp2:] .. .. **[typeBObject addTypeCInTypeBObject:newtypeC];** [section setTotalCObjectCount:[ NSNumber numberWithInt:typeCIndex++]]; NSError *error = nil; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { // Handle error NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@, %@", error, [error userInfo],[error localizedDescription]); exit(-1); // Fail } [newtypeC release]; } - (IBAction)selectedNewButton:(id)sender { [self SaveNewTypeC]; [self startRepeatingTimer]; } The BAD ACCESS seems to appear when the bold line above executes Relating to some HashValue . Any clues on resolving this would be helpful .

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  • What is the purpose of unit testing an interface repository

    - by ahsteele
    I am unit testing an ICustomerRepository interface used for retrieving objects of type Customer. As a unit test what value am I gaining by testing the ICustomerRepository in this manner? Under what conditions would the below test fail? For tests of this nature is it advisable to do tests that I know should fail? i.e. look for id 4 when I know I've only placed 5 in the repository I am probably missing something obvious but it seems the integration tests of the class that implements ICustomerRepository will be of more value. [TestClass] public class CustomerTests : TestClassBase { private Customer SetUpCustomerForRepository() { return new Customer() { CustId = 5, DifId = "55", CustLookupName = "The Dude", LoginList = new[] { new Login { LoginCustId = 5, LoginName = "tdude" }, new Login { LoginCustId = 5, LoginName = "tdude2" } } }; } [TestMethod] public void CanGetCustomerById() { // arrange var customer = SetUpCustomerForRepository(); var repository = Stub<ICustomerRepository>(); // act repository.Stub(rep => rep.GetById(5)).Return(customer); // assert Assert.AreEqual(customer, repository.GetById(5)); } } Test Base Class public class TestClassBase { protected T Stub<T>() where T : class { return MockRepository.GenerateStub<T>(); } } ICustomerRepository and IRepository public interface ICustomerRepository : IRepository<Customer> { IList<Customer> FindCustomers(string q); Customer GetCustomerByDifID(string difId); Customer GetCustomerByLogin(string loginName); } public interface IRepository<T> { void Save(T entity); void Save(List<T> entity); bool Save(T entity, out string message); void Delete(T entity); T GetById(int id); ICollection<T> FindAll(); }

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  • How to get a unique WindowRef in a dockable Qt application on Mac

    - by Robin
    How do I get a unique WindowRef from a Qt application that includes docked windows on the Mac? My code boils down to: int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { QApplication* qtApp = new QApplication(argc, argv); MyQMainWindow mainwin; mainwin.show(); } class MyQMainWindow : public QMainWindow { //... QDockWidget* mDock; MyQWidget* mDrawArea; QStackedWidget* mCentralStack; }; MyQMainWindow::MyQMainWindow() { mDock = new QDockWidget(tr("Docked Widget"), this); mDock->setMaximumWidth(180); //... addDockWidget(Qt::RightDockWidgetArea, mDock); mDrawArea = new MyQWidget(this); mCentralStack = new QStackedWidget(); mCentralStack->addWidget(mDrawArea); // Other widgets added to stack in production code. setCentralWidget(mCentralStack); //... } (Apologies if the above isn't syntactically correct, it's just easier to illustrate than to describe.) I added the following temporary code at the end of the above constructor: HIViewRef view1 = (HIViewRef) mDrawArea->winId(); HIViewRef view2 = (HIViewRef) mDock->winId(); WindowRef win1 = HIViewGetWindow(view1); WindowRef win2 = HIViewGetWindow(view2); My problem is that view1 and view2 are different, but win1 and win2 are the same! I tried the following equivalent on Windows: HWND win1 = (HWND)(mCentralDrawArea->winId()); HWND win2 = (HWND)(mDock1->winId()); This time win1 and win2 are different. I need the window handle to pass on to a 3rd party SDK so that it can draw into the central area only. BTW, I appreciate that the winId() method comes with lots of portability warnings, but a substantial refactor is out of the question for me. The same goes for using Carbon instead of Cocoa. Thanks.

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  • can I acces a struct inside of a struct without using the dot operator?

    - by yan bellavance
    I have 2 structures that have 90% of their fields the same. I want to group those fields in a structure but I do not want to use the dot operator to access them. The reason is I already coded with the first structure and have just created the second one. before: struct{ int a; int b; int c; object1 name; }str1; struct{ int a; int b; int c; object2 name; }str2; now I would create a third struct: struct{ int a; int b; int c; }str3; and would change the str1 and atr2 to this: struct{ str3 str; object1 name; }str1; struct { str3 str; object2 name; }str2; Finally I would like to be able to access a,b and c by doing: str1 myStruct; myStruct.a; myStruct.b; myStruct.c; and not: myStruct.str.a; myStruct.str.b; myStruct.str.c; Is there a way to do such a thing. The reason for doing this is I want keep the integrety of the data if chnges to the struct were to occur and to not repeat myself and not have to change my existing code and not have fields nested too deeply.

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  • Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

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