Search Results

Search found 10804 results on 433 pages for 'attribute keys'.

Page 376/433 | < Previous Page | 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383  | Next Page >

  • iPhone Simulator - Restores Plist - Weird Issue

    - by David Schiefer
    Hi All, today I've come across a rather weird issue. After adding code to validate a key (i added it below), the Simulator refuses to let go of the old plist file. I deleted the simulator folder in the Application Support folder, then deleted the *build directory and restarted xcode & build & run my app...still the same issue. the old plist is still there and 100% identical. I then changed the identifier and the snippet's validation keys, the plist however stayed the same. basically, no matter what i do it won't go. the same thing happens on the iphone itself. I have checked through the code, i don't create the key anywhere, but it still returns YES for it at every restart. Here's the code I added: + (void)initialize{ ////////////////////////////SPECIFING THE PREDATA/////////////////// NSUserDefaults *defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; NSDictionary *appDefaults = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:[NSNumber numberWithBool:NO] forKey:@"protect"]; [defaults registerDefaults:appDefaults]; } if ([[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] boolForKey:@"protect"] == NO) { [navigationController pushViewController:help animated:YES]; [help.navigationItem hidesBackButton]; } else { [window addSubview:passcode.view]; [self performSelector:@selector(responder) withObject:nil afterDelay:1]; } as a result, it will always go for the else option, which for some reason, doesn't get executed either. I assumed an error but the log is empty and there's no crash.

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to return result from business layer to presentation layer when using linq - I

    - by samsur
    I have a business layer that has DTOs that are used in the presentation layer. This application uses entity framework. Here is an example of a class called RoleDTO public class RoleDTO { public Guid RoleId { get; set; } public string RoleName { get; set; } public string RoleDescription { get; set; } public int? OrganizationId { get; set; } } In the BLL I want to have a method that returns a list of DTO.. I would like to know which is the better approach: returning IQueryable or list of DTOs. Although i feel that returning Iqueryable is not a good idea because the connection needs to be open. Here are the 2 different methods using the different approaches public class RoleBLL { private servicedeskEntities sde; public RoleBLL() { sde = new servicedeskEntities(); } public IQueryable<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { IQueryable<RoleDTO> role = from r in sde.Roles select new RoleDTO() { RoleId = r.RoleID, RoleName = r.RoleName, RoleDescription = r.RoleDescription, OrganizationId = r.OrganizationId }; return role; } Note: in the above method the datacontext is a private attribute and set in the constructor, so that the connection stays opened. Second approach public static List GetAllRoles() { List roleDTO = new List(); using (servicedeskEntities sde = new servicedeskEntities()) { var roles = from pri in sde.Roles select new { pri.RoleID, pri.RoleName, pri.RoleDescription }; //Add the role entites to the DTO list and return. This is necessary as anonymous types can be returned acrosss methods foreach (var item in roles) { RoleDTO roleItem = new RoleDTO(); roleItem.RoleId = item.RoleID; roleItem.RoleDescription = item.RoleDescription; roleItem.RoleName = item.RoleName; roleDTO.Add(roleItem); } return roleDTO; } Please let me know, if there is a better approach - Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Database schema for Product Properties

    - by Chemosh
    As so many people I'm looking for a Products /Product Properties database schema. I'm using Ruby on Rails and (Thinking) Sphinx for faceted searches. Requirements: Adding new product types and their options should not require a change to the database schema Support faceted searches using Sphinx. Solutions I've come across: (See Bill Karwin's answer) Option 1: Single Table Inheritance Not an option really. The table would contain way to many columns. Option 2: Class Table Inheritance Ruby on Rails caches the database schema on start-up which means a restart whenever a new type of product is introduced. If you have a size able product catalog this could mean hundreds of tables. Option 3: Serialized LOB Kills being able to do faceted searches without heavy application logic. Option 4: Entity-Attribute-Value For testing purposes, EAV worked fine. However it could quickly become a mess and a maintenance hell as you add more and more options (e.g. when an option increase the prices or delivery time). What option should I go with? What other solutions are out there? Is there a silver bullet (ha) I overlooked?

    Read the article

  • MySql "comments" parameter as descriptor?

    - by Nick
    So, I'm trying to learn a lot at once, and this place is really helpful! I'm making a little running log website for myself and maybe a few other people, and I have it so that the user can add workouts for each day. With each workout, I have a variety of information the user can fill out for the workout, such as running distance, time, quality of run, course, etc... I store this in a MySql database as a table with fields titled "distance", "time", "runquality", etc... Now, these field titles don't match up with what I want displayed on the running log, so I was thinking of using the "Comments" attribute for a field to store its human-readable title--thus the field "runquality" would have "Quality of run" as its comment, and then I would pull the comment with a SQL query and display it instead of the field name. Is this a good theoretical/practical way of going about it? And what sort of SQL would I use to pull the comment for the field anyway? Secondly, suppose I want to add the ability for the user to create their own workout descriptors. So say a user wants to add a "temperature" descriptor for their workout. Should I create a script that adds fields to my workout table, or should I create a separate table listing only workout descriptors and somehow link the descriptor table with the "contents" table? I haven't learned any theory about database design or anything so any help is appreciated!

    Read the article

  • JavaScript - Efficiently find all elements containing one of a large set of strings

    - by noah
    I have a set of strings and I need to find all all of the occurrences in an HTML document. Where the string occurs is important because I need to handle each case differently: String is all or part of an attribute. e.g., the string is foo: <input value="foo"> - Add class ATTR to the element. String is the full text of an element. e.g., <button>foo</button> - Add class TEXT to the element. String is inline in the text of an element. e.g., <p>I love foo</p> - Wrap the text in a span tag with class TEXT. Also, I need to match the longest string first. e.g., if I have foo and foobar, then <p>I love foobar</p> should become <p>I love <span class="TEXT">foobar</span></p>, not <p>I love <span class="TEXT">foo</span>bar</p>. The inline text is easy enough: Sort the strings descending by length and find and replace each in document.body.innerHTML with <span class="TEXT">$1</span>, although I'm not sure if that is the most efficient way to go. For the attributes, I can do something like this: sortedStrings.each(function(it) { document.body.innerHTML.replace(new RegExp('(\S+?)="[^"]*'+escapeRegExChars(it)+'[^"]*"','g'),function(s,attr) { $('[+attr+'*='+it+']').addClass('ATTR'); }); }); Again, that seems inefficient. Lastly, for the full text elements, a depth first search of the document that compares the innerHTML to each string will work, but for a large number of strings, it seems very inefficient. Any answer that offers performance improvements gets an upvote :)

    Read the article

  • How do I toggle CSS with jQuery?

    - by marcamillion
    I have the following code: $('#bc' + $.trim($this) + ' span.dashed-circle').css({ 'border' : '5px solid #000'}); That is triggered by a click.function(). I would like that to be a toggle - so when I click the element, it changes the border to what I have above...but when it is clicked again it disappears or rather sets the border to ' '. Thoughts? Edit: I should have been explicit...but I don't want to create a CSS class. The reason being is because when I do that, it messes up the formatting of the element being styled. I am sure that it is some small quirk somewhere that would fix it, but I am not interested in wading through the entire code base to fix little positioning issues with a new class. I would much rather just edit the css attribute directly - because it doesn't interfere with the layout. Edit2: Here is the jsfiddle of the code I am trying to edit. If you notice, I have the CSS attributes last. But how do I let that be toggled ? Edit3: If anyone is interested...the UI that this will be used in is for my webapp - http://www.compversions.com

    Read the article

  • How to set image Tag URLs programmatically in ASP.NET C# inside of a ListView Control?

    - by loyalpenguin
    Hi, I know how you can set an tag's url attribute programmatically in c#, but it seems when I try to access the image element inside of a tag I cannot access it. The is residing in the . NOTE: I am only having this issue inside the Now the ListView tag is also databound.(this is probably why I cannot access, because it isn't guaranteed that it will even exist perhaps). How can I get around this so that I can display my images programmatically or is there a better solution? Here's the source: <asp:ListView ID="ListView_Comments" runat="server" DataKeyNames="ReviewID,ProductID,Rating" DataSourceID="EDS_CommentsList"> <ItemTemplate> <tr style="background-color:#EDECB3;color: #000000;"> <td><%# Eval("CustomerName") %></td> <td> <img src='Styles/Images/ReviewRating_d<%# Eval("Rating") %>.gif' alt=""> <br /> </td> <td> <%# Eval("Comments") %> </td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> <AlternatingItemTemplate> <tr style="background-color:#F8F8F8;"> <td><%# Eval("CustomerName") %></td> <td> <img id="rateImage" src="" alt="" runat="server" /> ......

    Read the article

  • django: results in in_bulk style without IDs

    - by valya
    in django 1.1.1, Place.objects.in_bulk() does not work and Place.objects.in_bulk(range(1, 100)) works and returns a dictionary of Ints to Places with indexes - primary keys. How to avoid using range in this situation (and avoid using a special query for ids, I just want to get all objects in this dictionary format) >>> Place.objects.in_bulk() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/Django-1.1.1-py2.5.egg/django/db/models/manager.py", line 144, in in_bulk return self.get_query_set().in_bulk(*args, **kwargs) TypeError: in_bulk() takes exactly 2 arguments (1 given) >>> Place.objects.in_bulk(range(1, 100)) {1L: <Place: "??? ????">, 3L: <Place: "???????????? ?????">, 4L: <Place: "????????? "??????"">, 5L: <Place: "????????? "??????"">, 8L: <Place: "????????? "??????????????"">, 9L: <Place: "??????? ????????">, 10L: <Place: "????????? ???????">, 11L: <Place: "??????????????? ???">, 14L: <Place: "????? ????? ??????">}

    Read the article

  • How to structure the tables of a very simple blog in MySQL?

    - by Programmer
    I want to add a very simple blog feature on one of my existing LAMP sites. It would be tied to a user's existing profile, and they would be able to simply input a title and a body for each post in their blog, and the date would be automatically set upon submission. They would be allowed to edit and delete any blog post and title at any time. The blog would be displayed from most recent to oldest, perhaps 20 posts to a page, with proper pagination above that. Other users would be able to leave comments on each post, which the blog owner would be allowed to delete, but not pre-moderate. That's basically it. Like I said, very simple. How should I structure the MySQL tables for this? I'm assuming that since there will be blog posts and comments, I would need a separate table for each, is that correct? But then what columns would I need in each table, what data structures should I use, and how should I link the two tables together (e.g. any foreign keys)? I could not find any tutorials for something like this, and what I'm looking to do is really offer my users the simplest version of a blog possible. No tags, no moderation, no images, no fancy formatting, etc. Just a simple diary-type, pure-text blog with commenting by other users.

    Read the article

  • JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

    - by rattaman
    Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

    Read the article

  • Altering ManagedObjects In NSArray

    - by Garry
    I have an entity called 'Job' with two boolean attributes named 'completed' and 'logged'. I am trying to retrieve all completed jobs that have not been logged at app start-up and change them to logged. I'm able to get all the completed but unlogged jobs with this fetchRequest: NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(completed == %@ && logged == %@)", [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], [NSNumber numberWithBool:NO]]; I'm then assigning this predicate to a fetchRequest and calling the [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest] method to get an array of all Job entities that meet this criteria. This seems to work fine and is returning the correct number of jobs. What I've been trying to do is loop through the NSArray returned, set the logged attribute to YES and then save. This seems to complete and doesn't return any errors but the changes are not persisted when the application quits. Where am I going wrong? [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError error; NSArray jobsToLog = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; if ([jobsToLog count] > 0) { for (int i = 0; i < [jobsToLog count] - 1; i++) { [[jobsToLog objectAtIndex:i] setLogged:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES]]; // Commit the changes made to disk error = nil; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { // An error occurred } } } Thanks in anticipation,

    Read the article

  • Mapping relationships from multiple databases in NHibernate

    - by mannish
    I have a multi-database application configured with NHibernate. The entities that correspond to tables from each database are in their own separate assemblies (an assembly per database if you will). I have a need/desire to relate an entity from one database to an entity of another database. Everything up to this point works as I want it to (the application handles multiple session factories, etc.). The relationship I want is many-to-one, but in reality my application only cares about one side of the relationship (for reasons that aren't relevant). The relevant entities are Project and PMProject, where a Project HAS A PMProject. When I map the many-to-one, I get the following error: NHibernate.MappingException: An association from the table PROJECTS refers to an unmapped class: SDMS.PPRM.PMProject The Project mapping itself reads (ignore the funky column naming; it's an Oracle db): <many-to-one name="PMProject" class="SDMS.PPRM.PMProject" column="PM_PROJECT_ID" cascade="none" /> In the class attribute, I'm referencing the appropriate assembly, but I get that error which seems to tell me it simply can't find the mapping file for PMProject. But that file exists (it's set as embedded resource), the session factory instantiation works without fail; so I'm at a loss on how to tell the Project mapping how/where to look for the appropriate mapping. Is there something I'm missing? A better way to go about this? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • PayPal sandbox anomalies

    - by Christian
    When testing some donations on my local machine, I set various key=value pairs to do various things (return to specific thank you page, get POST data from PayPal and not GET data and others) I also built my code around the response from the PayPal sandbox. BUT, when my code goes to the production server and we switch on live payments and test with real accounts and money, a few strange things happen; We get a GET response from PayPal - the URL is filled with crap. We get no transaction details. This is the biggie, no name, no txn_id, no dates, nothing. We get a handful of keys etc, its not totally empty and the payment has gone through, but nowhere near the verbosity of the sandbox. Curious about why this might be? It doesn't really make sense to have a sandbox (or dev environment) that is substantially different from the production environment. Or, am I missing something? EDIT: Still no response to my question in the PayPal Developer Forums. I don't even get a donation amount back from PayPal. Is this a setting maybe? EDIT #2: Two of you have suggested to check PDT and Auto-Return. The data analytics guy for the project only 2 hrs ago suggested the same. I have asked the client to confirm this. I can't see a setting for it in the Sandbox so can assume that it is enabled by default?

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't keyboard input work for a ScrollViewer when the child control has input focus?

    - by Ashley Davis
    Why doesn't keyboard input work for a ScrollViewer when the child control has input focus? This is the scenario. A WPF window opens. It sets the focus to a control that is embedded in a ScrollViewer. I hit the up and down and left and right keys. The ScrollViewer doesn't seem to handle the key events, anyone know why? This is the simplest possible example: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300" FocusManager.FocusedElement="{Binding ElementName=control}" > <Grid> <ScrollViewer HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" > <ItemsControl x:Name="control" Width="1000" Height="1000" /> </ScrollViewer> </Grid> </Window> When you start the app that contains this window, "control" appears to have the focus as I intended. Pressing the key seems to result in bubbling key events reaching the ScrollViewer (I checked for this using WPF Snoop). I can't work out why it doesn't respond to the input.

    Read the article

  • Database cache that I'm not aware of?

    - by Martin
    I'm using asp.net mvc, linq2sql, iis7 and sqlserver express 2008. I get these intermittent server errors, primary key conflicts on insertion. I'm using a different setup on my development computer so I can't debug. After a while they go away. Restarting iis helps. I'm getting the feeling there is cache somewhere that I'm not aware of. Can somebody help me sort out these errors? Cannot insert duplicate key row in object 'dbo.EnquiryType' with unique index 'IX_EnquiryType'. Edits regarding Venemos answer Is it possible that another application is also accessing the same database simultaneously? Yes there is, but not this particular table and no inserts or updates. There is one other table with which I experience the same problem but it has to do with a different part of the model. How often an in what context do you create a new DataContext instance? Only once, using the singleton pattern. Are the primary keys generated by the database or by the application? Database. Which version of ASP.NET MVC and which version of .NET are you using? RC2 and 3.5.

    Read the article

  • Rails Model inheritance in forms

    - by Tiago
    I'm doing a reporting system for my app. I created a model ReportKind for example, but as I can report a lot of stuff, I wanted to make different groups of report kinds. Since they share a lot of behavior, I'm trying to use inheritance. So I have the main model: model ReportKind << ActiveRecord::Base end and created for example: model UserReportKind << ReportKind end In my table report_kinds I've the type column, and until here its all working. My problem is in the forms/controllers. When I do a ReportKind.new, my form is build with the '*report_kind*' prefix. If a get a UserReportKind, even through a ReportKind.find, the form will build the 'user_report_kind' prefix. This mess everything in the controllers, since sometimes I'll have params[:report_kind], sometimes params[:user_report_kind], and so on for every other inheritance I made. Is there anyway to force it to aways use the 'report_kind' prefix? Also I had to force the attribute 'type' in the controller, because it didn't get the value direct from the form, is there a pretty way to do this? Routing was another problem, since it was trying to build routes based in the inherited models names. I overcome that by adding the other models in routes pointing to the same controller.

    Read the article

  • How can I timeout Client-scoped variables in Coldfusion?

    - by Joshua Carmody
    I apologize if this is a "duh" question. It seems like the answer should be easily googleable, but I haven't found it yet. I am working on a large Coldfusion application that stores a large amount of session/user data in the Client scope (ie <cfset Client.UserName = "JoshuaC"> ). I did not write this application, and I don't have the luxury of significantly refactoring it. I've been given the task of setting the Client variables to time out after 72 hours. I'm not entirely sure how to do this. If I had written the application, I would have stored the variables in the Session scope, and then changed the sessiontimeout attribute of the CFAPPLICATION tag. As it is though, I'm not sure if that timeout affects the Client variables, or what their level of persistence is. The way the application works now, the Client variables never time out, and only clearing the user's cookies, or visiting a logout page which sets all the Client-scoped application variables to "", will clear the values. Of course, I could create some kind of timestamp variable like Client.LastAccessDateTime, and put something in the Application.cfm to clear the client variables if that datetime is more than 72 hours prior to Now(). But there's got to be a better way, right?

    Read the article

  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

    Read the article

  • Can I delay the keyup event for jquery?

    - by Paul
    I'm using the rottentomatoes movie API in conjunction with twitter's typeahead plugin using bootstrap 2.0. I've been able to integerate the API but the issue I'm having is that after every keyup event the API gets called. This is all fine and dandy but I would rather make the call after a small pause allowing the user to type in several characters first. Here is my current code that calls the API after a keyup event: var autocomplete = $('#searchinput').typeahead() .on('keyup', function(ev){ ev.stopPropagation(); ev.preventDefault(); //filter out up/down, tab, enter, and escape keys if( $.inArray(ev.keyCode,[40,38,9,13,27]) === -1 ){ var self = $(this); //set typeahead source to empty self.data('typeahead').source = []; //active used so we aren't triggering duplicate keyup events if( !self.data('active') && self.val().length > 0){ self.data('active', true); //Do data request. Insert your own API logic here. $.getJSON("http://api.rottentomatoes.com/api/public/v1.0/movies.json?callback=?&apikey=MY_API_KEY&page_limit=5",{ q: encodeURI($(this).val()) }, function(data) { //set this to true when your callback executes self.data('active',true); //Filter out your own parameters. Populate them into an array, since this is what typeahead's source requires var arr = [], i=0; var movies = data.movies; $.each(movies, function(index, movie) { arr[i] = movie.title i++; }); //set your results into the typehead's source self.data('typeahead').source = arr; //trigger keyup on the typeahead to make it search self.trigger('keyup'); //All done, set to false to prepare for the next remote query. self.data('active', false); }); } } }); Is it possible to set a small delay and avoid calling the API after every keyup?

    Read the article

  • Jquery toggle event is messing with checkbox value

    - by John McCollum
    Hi all, I'm using Jquery's toggle event to do some stuff when a user clicks a checkbox, like this: $('input#myId').toggle( function(){ //do stuff }, function(){ //do other stuff } ); The problem is that the checkbox isn't being ticked when I click on the checkbox. (All the stuff I've put into the toggle event is working properly.) I've tried the following: $('input#myId').attr('checked', 'checked'); and $(this).attr('checked', 'checked'); and even simply return true; But nothing is working. Can anyone tell me where I'm going wrong? Edit - thanks to all who replied. Dreas' answer very nearly worked for me, except for the part that checked the attribute. This works perfectly (although it's a bit hacky) $('input#myInput').change(function () { if(!$(this).hasClass("checked")) { //do stuff if the checkbox isn't checked $(this).addClass("checked"); return; } //do stuff if the checkbox isn't checked $(this).removeClass('checked'); }); Thanks again to all who replied.

    Read the article

  • figuring out which field to look for a value in with SQL and perl

    - by Micah
    I'm not too good with SQL and I know there's probably a much more efficient way to accomplish what I'm doing here, so any help would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance for your input! I'm writing a short program for the local school high school. At this school, juniors and seniors who have driver's licenses and cars can opt to drive to school rather than ride the bus. Each driver is assigned exactly one space, and their DLN is used as the primary key of the driver's table. Makes, models, and colors of cars are stored in a separate cars table, related to the drivers table by the License plate number field. My idea is to have a single search box on the main GUI of the program where the school secretary can type in who/what she's looking for and pull up a list of results. Thing is, she could be typing a license plate number, a car color, make, and model, someone driver's name, some student driver's DLN, or a space number. As the programmer, I don't know what exactly she's looking for, so a couple of options come to mind for me to build to be certain I check everywhere for a match: 1) preform a couple of SELECT * FROM [tablename] SQL statements, one per table and cram the results into arrays in my program, then search across the arrays one element at a time with regex, looking for a matched pattern similar to the search term, and if I find one, add the entire record that had a match in it to a results array to display on screen at the end of the search. 2) take whatever she's looking for into the program as a scaler and prepare multiple select statements around it, such as SELECT * FROM DRIVERS WHERE DLN = $Search_Variable SELECT * FROM DRIVERS WHERE First_Name = $Search_Variable SELECT * FROM CARS WHERE LICENSE = $Search_Variable and so on for each attribute of each table, sticking the results into a results array to show on screen when the search is done. Is there a cleaner way to go about this lookup without having to make her specify exactly what she's looking for? Possibly some kind of SQL statement I've never seen before?

    Read the article

  • How do I access Dictionary items?

    - by salvationishere
    I am developing a C# VS2008 / SQL Server website app and am new to the Dictionary class. Can you please advise on best method of accomplishing this? Here is a code snippet: SqlConnection conn2 = new SqlConnection(connString); SqlCommand cmd = conn2.CreateCommand(); cmd.CommandText = "dbo.AppendDataCT"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Connection = conn2; SqlParameter p1, p2, p3; foreach (string s in dt.Rows[1].ItemArray) { DataRow dr = dt.Rows[1]; // second row p1 = cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue((string)dic[0], (string)dr[0]); p1.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; p2 = cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue((string)dic[1], (string)dr[1]); p2.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; p3 = cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue((string)dic[2], (string)dr[2]); p3.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; } but this is giving me compiler error: The best overloaded method match for 'System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary<string,string>.this[string]' has some invalid arguments I just want to access each value from "dic" and load into these SQL parameters. How do I do this? Do I have to enter the key? The keys are named "col1", "col2", etc., so not the most user-friendly. Any other tips? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • mysql: storing arbitrary data

    - by Hailwood
    Background: I was asking a question on stack overflow regarding creating tables on the fly where this conversation ensued: This smells like a terrible idea! In fact, it smells just like this one. What in the world do you want to use this for? – deceze @deceze: very true, However, How else would you store the contents of these CSV files. They must be stored in mysql for indexing. The only solid fact about them is that they all have a mobile column with a standard format. The CSV can have an arbitrary amount of columns with an arbitrary amount of rows. They can (with no exaggeration) range from a single row, 35 column csv to an 80k row single column CSV. I am open to other ideas. – Hailwood There are many solutions for this, from attribute-value schemas to JSON storage and NoSQL storage. Open a new question about it. Whatever you do though, don't dynamically create tables! – deceze Question: So my question is, What would you say is the best way to store this data? Are you in agreement with deceze about not creating dynamic tables?

    Read the article

  • Jquery Apache - IE problem

    - by Soldierflup
    I'm having a button tag on my page with a value. <button class='btn' value='value'>show value</button> I have this jquery code : $('.btn').click(function() { var w = 'value = '+$(this).val()+' / text = '+$(this).html(); alert(w); }); In FF, no problem the result is ok (display: value = value / text = show value). The problem comes with IE8 which displays a different results from my testing server and the production server. The testing server is my local machine with a standard XAMPP installation. The productionserver is a server based on linux with apache, php and mysql. Result from the testing server is ok (display like FF), the result from the production server is not good (displaying : value = show value / text : show value). Anyone an idea if it is apache that causes the error ? I know there are some issues with the use of val() because IE is considering it as an attribute and not a value. The problem is that changing the jQuery from val() to attr('value') is quit a lot of work (this implementation is already on a lot of pages) and I think it could be much easier to change something on the webserver.

    Read the article

  • How to detect column conflicts with Hibernate?

    - by Slim
    So let's say I have an ArrayList full of Products that need to be committed to the database via Hibernate. There are already a large number of Products in the database. Each product has an ID. Note this is NOT the PK that is autogenerated by Hibernate. My questions is: what is the best way to detect conflicts with this ID? I am looking for a relatively efficient method of obtaining, from the the database, a List of Products that share an ID with any of the Products in my ArrayList. This is all in a single table called Products and the ID attribute is in column ProductID. The way I've done it is grabbing a list of all Products in the database, and compared each one with each entry in my ArrayList - but that is seriously inefficient and I don't think it would work well with a larger database. How should it be done? Thanks. I say "relatively" efficient because efficiency is not the primary concern, but it shouldn't take noticeably long to test against a table of ~1000-5000 rows. Help? EDIT* I'm very new to hibernate and below is the best I've come up with. How does this look? for(long id : idList){ //idList just holds the IDs of each Product in my ArrayList Query query = session.createQuery("select product from Product product where product.id = :id"); query.setLong("id", id); for(int i = 0; i < query.list().size(); i++){ listOfConflictingProducts.add((Product) query.list().get(i)); } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383  | Next Page >