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  • Active Directory FRS problems. 13508 error and other problems

    - by user59232
    I have 3 Domain Controllers. We will call them DC1, DC2 and DC3. DC3 and DC2 show Event ID 13508 in their FRS logs with no follow-up event(13509 I think) to say the error had been fixed. DC1's FRS log no matter what you do never shows any events besides FRS service stopped and started. DC1 holds the SYSVOL that needs to be replicated to the other DC's. The other DC's sysvol folders are empty. I have tried the burflag method of fixing this but I haven't had any luck. My procedure for that was to stop all FRS services on all DC's. Then set the burflag on DC1 to D4 and the other two DCs burflag to D2. Started FRS on DC1 and the only event's I see in DC1's FRS event logs are service stopped and service started messages. This fact is leading me to believe that something is wrong on FRS for DC1. I believe there should be events 13553 and 13516 in the FRS event logs after an authoritative sysvol restore. The other two DC's do not have anything in their SYSVOL, otherwise I would have made one of them the authoritative sysvol. DC1 is MS Server 2003 Enterprise Edition SP2 DC2 is MS Server 2003 Standard Edition SP1 DC3 is MS Server 2003 R2 Standard Edition SP2 I did not setup this domain originally but I am now the administrator of it, so I don't have a lot of background on why certain things may have been done in the past. My main goal is to try and fix these issues to get myself better prepared to decommision DC1 and add a DC running Server 2008 to my domain. Thanks.

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  • .php file blank - .php5 files works

    - by Kleidi
    I have a problem with a server of mine. I've installed virtualmin/webin on it for administration and I have 1 domain on it. DNS management is external. On this domain I only have an html "Under Construction" index and 5 subdomains. In all those subdomains I have PHP systems running perfectly. I've tried to install Wordpress on the main domain and I'm having some issues: None .php files loads. I have made a phpinfo file on it to check it and it won't work either; only a blank page appears. When I check the source code of it in browser, appears the code. I have changed the extensions to .php5 and it worked perfectly. Something is going wrong with it but I can't figure out what. I have checked the apache error and nothing appears. 3 Days ago I upgraded from php 5.2.* to 5.4.21. Server is running CentOS 5.10.

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  • Serve web application error messages from Http server

    - by licorna
    I have nginx as a http server with tomcat as a backend (using proxy_pass). It works great but I want to define my own error pages (404, 500, etc.) and that they are served by nginx and not tomcat. For example I have the following resource: https://domain.com/resource which doesn't exist. If I [GET] that URL then I get a Not Found message from Tomcat and not from nginx. What I want is that every time Tomcat responds with a 404 (or any other error message) nginx sends itself a message to the user: some html file accessible by nginx. The way I have my nginx server configured is very easy, just: location / { proxy_pass http://localhost:8080/<webapp-name>/; } And I've configured port 8080, which is tomcat, as not accessible from outside this machine. I don't think that using different location directives in nginx configuration will work, because there are some resources that depend on the URL: https://domain.com/customer/<non-existent-customer-name>/[GET] Will always return 404 (or any other error message), while: https://domain.com/customer/<existent-customer>/[GET] Will return anything different from 404 (the customer exists). Is there any way of serving Tomcat (Application Server) error messages with Nginx (http Server)? To check the message sent by the proxy_pass directive and act upon it?

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  • Sending same email through two different accounts on different domains using Outlook 2010

    - by bot
    I am a programmer and don't have experience in Outlook configurations. Our company has two email domains namely xyz.com and xyz.biz. Each employee has an email id on one of these domains but not both depending on the project they are working on. The problem we are facing is that when a communication email is sent from the Accounts, HR, Admin, etc departments, they need to send the email twice. Once through the xyz.com account to all employees with an email address on xyz.com and once through xyz.biz to all employees with an email address on xyz.biz. I am not sure why they have to send two separate emails but the IT team has directed all departments to do so as there is no other solution according to them. Even though two different groups have been created, sending an email to employees in a group of xyz.biz from xyz.com does not seem to work. I want to know if Outlook provides a feature such that we can configure some kind of rules to send an email through an id on xyz.com to all users on xyz.com and the same email gets sent automatically to users on xyz.biz through an id on xyz.biz. The only technical details I know is that we are using Exchange 2003 and the IT team claims that this is a limitation causing the problem. Edit: Our company is split into two main divisions depending on the type of projects. I am pretty sure I use domain XYZ wheras the employees in the other division use the doman ABC to log in into the windows machine or outlook itself. Also, employees in domain XYZ can access the machines on the network in domain ABC but not the other way around

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  • "Server not found" errors all over after Wordpress installation

    - by picardo
    I uploaded my Wordpress blog from my local machine to Slicehost and then pointed the domain name to the IP address. Then I installed the blog as normal. Once I went to wp-login.php to login, though, I started getting "Server not found" errors. That was strange because the server process was still running, and I checked many times. I can't see anything wrong in the error log, or the access log either. This doesn't only affect Wordpress. I can't access phpmyadmin either now, which was mapped to a subdirectory of the same domain address. What is going on? Can anyone help? Edit: the blog is located on a subdomain. It's still accessible from IP address. The virtual host configs are ServerName and ServerAlias, both set to blog.mysite.com. When I changed those and restarted apache, phpmyadmin came back. Edit: also it's not a propagation issue because I installed the blog from the domain name. It's only when I tried to log into the admin section, I started getting these errors.

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  • XAMPP server giving 404 error when requested by ipv4 connection

    - by boyb
    This is in reference to a previous question that I asked and was answered by womble. http://serverfault.com/a/406280/127729 So, now we have the real DNS records, we can do some diagnosis. dig for both A and AAAA on akosiboybastos.broker.freenet6.net gives a valid response, with an appropriate address. Good. dig for both A and AAAA on bastosforum.strangled.net gives the same responses (with a CNAME response thrown in). Also good. This means that the problem is not DNS-related, as those records are in order. wget -6 bastosforum.strangled.net/ gives a 200 OK response. wget -4 bastosforum.strangled.net/ gives a 404 Not Found response. This means that your webserver is misconfigured so that it's not serving the response you desire on IPv4. Given that the initial DNS problem asked in this question has been solved, I would recommend posting a new question with relevant webserver-related configuration, if you can't determine the configuration error yourself. I am using XAMPP(latest version) running phpbb3.0.10 via ipv6 tunnel from freenet6 and my domain is akosiboybastos.broker.freenet6.com, nothing fancy with the installation just out of the box install(with a few cosmetic mod). Both ipv4 and ipv6 traffic can connect using that url, but when I try to put a CNAME record on my test domain which is bastosforum.strangled.net pointing it to akosiboybastos.broker.freenet6.com only ipv6 can connect. As suggested by womble, this is a misconfigured webserver. To be honest I don't know where to start checking on the server as it is fully working if you use the domain given by freenet6 (akosiboybastos.broker.freenet6.com), any info on how to go about this server issue is welcome as i'm really a noob when it comes to computers. regards boyb

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  • Revamping an old and unstable office IT-solution using Windows Server and OpenVPN

    - by cmbrnt
    I've been given the cumbersome task to totally redo the IT-infrastructure for a customer's office. They are currently running Windows XP all over, with one computer acting as a file server with no control over which users have access to which files, and so on. To top it off, this file server also functions as a workstation, which means it gets rebooted every time the user notices some sluggish behavior or experiences problems with flash games. To say the least, this isn't working for them. Now - I've got a very slim budget, but I need to set up a new server, and I wish to run Windows Server 2008 on it. I also need the ability to access the network remotely via VPN. Would it be a good idea to install VMware ESXi 4.1 onto the new server, and then run Windows Server 2008 as well as a separate Debian install for openvpn on it? I don't like the Domain Controller for the future AD to also run a VPN-server, because of stability issues when something goes to hell with either of them. There will be no redundancy though. However, I'm not sure if there is something to gain by installing a VPN solution on the Windows Server itself, when it comes to accessing file shares on the network via VPN. I don't know how to enable users logging in via the VPN to access the remote files, since they will be accessing the network from their own home computers (which is indeed a really bad idea, but this is what I've got to work with). They won't be logged in to the windows Domain, but rather their home workgroups. I need to be able to grant access to files in certain directories based on the logged in AD-user, but every computer won't necessarily be configured to log into the domain. I'm not sure how to explain this in a good way, but I'd be happy to clarify if somethings not clear. Any help would be great, because I've got a feeling that I can't do this without introducing a bunch of costly new rules when it comes to their IT-solution. I'd rather leave that untouched and go on my merry way to the next assignment.

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  • Error getting PAM / Linux integrated with Active Directory

    - by topper
    I'm trying to add a Linux server to a network which is controlled by AD. The aim is that users of the server will be able to authenticate against the AD domain. I have Kerberos working, but NSS / PAM are more problematic. I'm trying to debug with a simple command such as the following, please see the error. Can anyone assist me to debug? root@antonyg04:~# ldapsearch -H ldap://raadc04.corp.MUNGED.com/ -x -D "cn=MUNGED,ou=Users,dc=corp,dc=MUNGED,dc=com" -W uid=MUNGED Enter LDAP Password: ldap_bind: Invalid credentials (49) additional info: 80090308: LdapErr: DSID-0C090334, comment: AcceptSecurityContext error, data 525, vece I have had to munge some details, but I can tell you that cn=MUNGED is my username for logging into the AD domain, and the password that I typed was the password for said domain. I don't know why it says "Invalid credentials", and the rest of the error is so cryptic, I have no idea. Is my approach somehow flawed? Is my DN obviously wrong? How can I confirm the correct DN? There was a tool online but I can't find it. NB I have no access to the AD Server for administration or configuration.

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  • Exchange Full Access issue

    - by Benjamin Jones
    I was just hired as a System Admin for a small company. They use Exchange 2010 for their Mail Server. I've never had a permission issue like this with Exchange because I worked for a larger firm with less responsibility before. Their old system admin is LONG GONE, so I can't ask him what he did. The issue: Right now ANYONE can gain access to a mailbox and view the mail in the mailbox. This is disabled by default you say and you have to grant them full access ? You are right, but the old System Admin I guess didn't know what he was doing. SO right now user A can open up user B mailbox with out being granted permission. So here is what I found out. Every user in EMC Full Access Permission has Exchange Server group granted. Within the Exchange Server Group, Domain User's is a Member Of. Within Domain User's all user's are listed as Members. So my guess is because of this all users can access ANY mailbox? Well GOOD News. The company is small (35 people) and they are not computer savvy, so hopefully no one has figured out they can open anyone's mailbox.(From what I can tell no). Next thing I did was with my domain user in EMC, delete Exchange Servers Group in FUll Access Permissions and grant access to my user. I made sure that my memeber was apart of the Exchange Server Group. Went to our OWA site and now I don't have permission to my own mailbox. Re did everything to the way it was with my user and now I'm stuck. Any help? I would think granting a single user that is in the Exchange Server group, Full Access to that mailbox would enable them to open that mailbox???? I guess I am wrong.

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  • postfix email gateway

    - by k-h
    I am setting up a postfix email gateway. It will not hold any mail but will accept email for my domain and forward it to another internal mailserver and relay mail out from the internal server. One of the main problems is that I am working on a live running system and this will be an upgrade so I am using a test domain which I will change at some point to the real domain. I tried various methods but found the simplest way (that worked) was to use a script to create an aliases file (from ldap entries). There are various problems with this method. The main one being that the entries can't be of the simple form [email protected] because the gateway doesn't know where to send them. They have to be of the form: [email protected]. What I would like doesn't seem hard but I can't get my head around the postfix documentation. There seem to be various ways but none of them seem to work. Most of the examples I have found on the web assume the mail is going to end up on the server. I want a list of users somewhere, preferably of the form: user1, user2, etc rather than [email protected] (I can easily generate this list) and I would like postfix to forward all email to example.com to a particular server: ie realmailserver.example.com. Can anyone suggest clues as to how I might do this?

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  • Revamping an old and unstable IT-solution for a customer?

    - by cmbrnt
    I've been given the cumbersome task to totally redo the IT-infrastructure for a customer's office. They are currently running Windows XP all over, with one computer acting as a file server with no control over which users have access to which files, and so on. To top it off, this file server also functions as a workstation, which means it gets rebooted every time the user notices some sluggish behavior or experiences problems with flash games. To say the least, this isn't working for them. Now - I've got a very slim budget, but I need to set up a new server, and I wish to run Windows Server 2008 on it. I also need the ability to access the network remotely via VPN. Would it be a good idea to install VMware ESXi 4.1 onto the new server, and then run Windows Server 2008 as well as a separate Debian install for openvpn on it? I don't like the Domain Controller for the future AD to also run a VPN-server, because of stability issues when something goes to hell with either of them. There will be no redundancy though. However, I'm not sure if there is something to gain by installing a VPN solution on the Windows Server itself, when it comes to accessing file shares on the network via VPN. I don't know how to enable users logging in via the VPN to access the remote files, since they will be accessing the network from their own home computers (which is indeed a really bad idea, but this is what I've got to work with). They won't be logged in to the windows Domain, but rather their home workgroups. I need to be able to grant access to files in certain directories based on the logged in AD-user, but every computer won't necessarily be configured to log into the domain. I'm not sure how to explain this in a good way, but I'd be happy to clarify if somethings not clear. Any help would be great, because I've got a feeling that I can't do this without introducing a bunch of costly new rules when it comes to their IT-solution. I'd rather leave that untouched and go on my merry way to the next assignment.

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  • Linux servers in a (primarily) Windows (AD) environment

    - by HannesFostie
    When I arrived at my current position, our environment existed almost exclusively of Windows servers. However, I am a big fan of using Linux for certain applications, like the webgallery I was asked to set up, a simple SFTP server, Nagios for monitoring etc. I do fine setting these up, but not being the Linux expert, I am not sure how to properly join these servers to the domain and was therefor wondering what procedures or guidelines other people follow. We often use ping -a to quickly figure out the hostname of a certain server, but this does not seem to work for the linux machines, most likely because of the whole WINS/NetBios thing I assume. I just joined one server to the domain, but probably missed something cause it's not working even after a dnsflush. Next to that, the couple procedures I've found so far are pretty extensive and most of the time don't seem worth the time. Best case scenario, I download some kind of client (smbclient?), enter the domain name and maybe the server to use, supply an administrator password and that's it. Is that possible at all? Thanks

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  • Apache Virtual Host with directory aliases

    - by brechtvhb
    Hi, I'm trying to set up a dynamic virtual host in apache with a directory alias pointing to a difirent path for every domain. Here's what I'm trying to achive. Say I have 2 domains: * www.domain1.com * www.domein2.com I want both to point to the same index.php file (C:/cms/index.php). Now the hard part ... I want directories or certain file types to point to a diffirent path for each domain. Example: * www.domain1.com/layout -> C:/store/www.domain1.com/layout * www.domain2.com/layout -> C:/store/www.domain2.com/layout * www.domain1.com/image.png -> C:/store/www.domain1.com/image.png * www.domain2.com/image.png -> C:/store/www.domain2.com/image.png However the admin directory should point to the same path again for all sites * www.domain1.com/admin -> C:/cms/admin * www.domain2.com/admin -> C:/cms/admin Is there a way to achieve this kind of behaviour in apache 2.2 without having to create a virtualhost entry for each new domain?

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  • sendmail appends server name to external domains when relaying

    - by Chris
    My server is set to send all email to a corporate relay server. For the company domain, it works perfectly. I've recently found emails being sent to an outside domain are getting the hostname of my server appended to the email prior to being sent. Here is the log entry for one such attempt. Nov 6 09:46:45 myservername sendmail[45023]: rA6EkjiI045023: [email protected], delay=00:00:00, xdelay=00:00:00, mailer=relay, pri=30590, relay=[127.0.0.1] [127.0.0.1], dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent (rA6Ekj2g045037 Message accepted for delivery) Nov 6 09:46:45 myservername sendmail[45061]: rA6Ekj2g045037: to=<[email protected]>, delay=00:00:00, xdelay=00:00:00, mailer=relay, pri=120885, relay=relay.company.com [x.x.x.x], dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent (ok: Message 342335947 accepted) Notice the email address difference between it being accepted by my server for delivery (correct email address), and being sent and accepted by the corporate relay (incorrect with server name appended). To make it more interesting, the application on my server uses email for user account verification/activation. In August, this particular user was able to register his account and activate it. I have made no configuration changes to mail since setting the server up over a year ago. DNS is also a corporate service. I've never touched my /etc/resolv.conf configuration. domain company.com nameserver <ip1> nameserver <ip2> search myservername Thanks!

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  • Create DFS replica from a NAS drive

    - by Mark
    We have two offices, at two different locations. In one we have a NAS, with some shares. We also have a Domain Controller using Windows 2003 R2. We have setup a second Domain Controller using Windows 2003 R2 to put that in the second office. What we would also like is to replicate the NAS drive onto the second Domain Controller so in the second office they have a local copy, and that their changes are replicated back to the NAS. Is there a way to setup DFS replication to do this? Or will it only work with local folders on each Server? Update 1 Sept Base on the answer below, I think I need to add some clarification. The real issue is that the NAS which hosts the shared folder that we want to replicate is external to both servers. And we have a particular share mapped to say S: . In the replication setup it doesnt seem to accept network shares external to the server to be candidates for replication. I can understand why, I just need confirmation that DFSR will only work with block devices that are local on at least one server. Is this the case?

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  • Windows - Decrypt encrypted file when user account is destroyed

    - by dc2
    I have a Virtual Machine running on my Windows Server 2008 computer that originally was received by me encryped, as the builder of the VM did it on a MAC, which decrypts files by default. I never thought to decrypt these files, as they automatically 'decrypt' when you have permission over them, so the VM has been running for over a year despite the encryption. I just upgraded my computer to Domain Controller (dcpromo.exe). Now when I try to access/run the VM, I can't because I don't have permission to decrypt the files as that was on another logon (local administrator) and now I am the domain administrator. Apparently the local admin is totally nuked when you upgrade to domain controller. I have tried EVERYTHING - taking ownership of the files, which works. Doesn't do anything for me. Adding full control to everyone on the files. I go to File Properties Advanced Details (under encryption) Users who can access this file. The only user is administrator@localcomputername, and there is a cert number. I try adding a new cert, I don't have permission. I don't have permission to: Decrypt the file (access is denied). Copy the file (to another computer) - access denied. I am totally stumped and this VM is a production machine and needs to get up right now. Does anyone have any ideas?

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  • Changing farm account in Sharepoint 2010

    - by user55709
    After changing the the farm account to a domain user account I get the following error when trying to access the Central Administration page: "Cannot connect to configuration database" After I realized the headache may not be worth it, I decided to a reinstall using the following SP user account guidelines: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee662513.aspx After getting everything up, I am getting an error when using the designated farm account under the Central Admin Website Manage Service Accounts: "Access denied" If it is the farm administrator, why would I not be able to manage service accounts? I am able to access the other part of the admin site. Also, when logging in with the farm account it lists me as a "system account" not the domain account which I used for log in. Am I missing something or is this normal behavior? Am I not suppose to login with the farm account? When I log in with the Setup account (also a domain account) I can access everything with no errors on the site. The only difference between the two accounts is one has local admin privileges on the Sharepoint farm server which is the setup account. if you notice those privileges are not necessary for the farm account according to the article cited.

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  • I have to manually change the DNS suffix order every time I connect to VPN. Can I change this permanently or fix the problem somehow?

    - by CarlB
    Sorry in advance but I'm a programmer, not a network engineer, so I'm a noob at this stuff. Anyway, when I am not connected to VPN from my work PC at home, I have the following DNS suffixes listed (real domain names substituted): enterprise.org network.org company.com us.enterprise.org After connecting to VPN, one more DNS suffix is added to the very top of the list: problem-domain.com At this point, most network functions that I can normally perform when actually connected to the LAN in the office are unusable. I get error messages about the network paths not being found and what-not. Anyway, I played around with the suffixes and realized that if I just moved problem-domain.com down one spot to the second in the list, all the problems went away. Unfortunately, it returns to the top spot every time I reconnect, and I tend to get disconnected frequently. Is there something else I can do about this or should I just contact the IT department? I've had this problem before and they weren't able to resolve it but I suppose it would be worth trying again if I could get a different person on the job. What I don't understand is that I thought it didn't matter what order the suffixes were in? Isn't Windows supposed to go through each suffix until it finds a match (or has gone through all the suffixes)? Why is it quitting after the first one? Thanks in advance.

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  • Multiple SSL certificates on one server

    - by Kyle O'Brien
    We're hosting two websites on our fairly tiny but dedicated production server. Both website require SSL authentication. So, we have virtualhosts set up for both of them. They both reference their own domain.key, domain.crt and domain.intermediate.crt files. Each CSR and certificate file for each site was setup using its own unique information and nothing is shared between them (other than the server itself) However, which ever site's symbolic link (set up in /etc/apache2/sites-enabled) is reference first, is the site who's certificate is referenced even if we're visiting the second site. So for example, assume our companies are Cadbury and Nestle. We set up both sites with their own certificates but we create Cadbury's symbolic link in apache's site-enabled folder first and then Nestle's. You can visit Nestle perfectly fine but if you check the certificate installation, it reference's Cadbury's certificate. We're hosting these websites on a dedicated Ubuntu 12.04.3 LTS server. Both certificates are provided by Thawte.com. I came across a few potential solutions with no degree of success. I'm hoping someone else has a decent solution? Thanks Edit: The only other solution that seems to have provided success to some people is using SNI with Apache. However, the setups here didn't seem to coincide with our setup at all.

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  • SMTP Server setting on Windows 2008 R2

    - by user223298
    I am very very new to this and just trying to configure SMTP virtual server. I have followed a few threads to get it all running, but the mails are not being delivered. What I have done so far - 1) Install SMTP server. 2) SMTP server Properties General Tab - IP address is set to 'All Unassigned'. Access Tab - Authentication is anonymous access. Everything else is left to Default settings. Delivery Tab - Outbound security is anonymous access. In Advance section, entered the domain name in the FQDN field, and localhost in Smart host field. 3) Created an Inbound Rule for SMTP service to allow connections to Port 25. When I try to telnet, everything works up until the point the mail has to be send. Now, the sender's domain is different to the receiver's domain. Not sure if settings have to be changed to allow that? I had set the Relay restrictions on SMTP server, but because I couldn't send the mails, I thought I might as well make it work without the relay first. The error I see while sending the mail is 451 Timeout waiting for client input. I used to get some other error before when I had Relay restrictions on. Can anyone please point me in the right direction? Please let me know if you need more information. Thanks.

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  • Is it safe to format this partition?

    - by xanesis4
    On a ubuntu server I own, I am running out of space. When I ran sudo parted /dev/sda -l to find all available drives, I got this: Model: ATA ST31000528AS (scsi) Disk /dev/sda: 1000GB Sector size (logical/physical): 512B/512B Partition Table: msdos Number Start End Size Type File system Flags 1 1049kB 256MB 255MB primary ext2 boot 2 257MB 1000GB 1000GB extended 5 257MB 1000GB 1000GB logical lvm Model: Linux device-mapper (linear) (dm) Disk /dev/mapper/server--vg-swap_1: 2135MB Sector size (logical/physical): 512B/512B Partition Table: loop Number Start End Size File system Flags 1 0.00B 2135MB 2135MB linux-swap(v1) Model: Linux device-mapper (linear) (dm) Disk /dev/mapper/server--vg-root: 998GB Sector size (logical/physical): 512B/512B Partition Table: loop Number Start End Size File system Flags 1 0.00B 998GB 998GB ext4 I understand /dev/mapper/server--vg-root is the filesystem, and /dev/sda1 has some stuff related to GRUB. But, what about /dev/sda2 and /dev/sda5? When I tried to mount /dev/sda2, it said that I needed to specify the file system, which according to the table, is nonexistent. So, is it safe to format this with, say ext4 and mount it? Also, when I tried to mount /dev/sd5, it gave me this error: mount: unknown filesystem type 'LVM2_member' I assume it is NOT save to reformat this. If I'm wrong, then that would be great, because I could save some space. Please let me know either way. Thanks in advance! UPDATE: Here is the result of mount: /dev/mapper/server--vg-root on / type ext4 (rw,errors=remount-ro) proc on /proc type proc (rw,noexec,nosuid,nodev) sysfs on /sys type sysfs (rw,noexec,nosuid,nodev) none on /sys/fs/fuse/connections type fusectl (rw) none on /sys/kernel/debug type debugfs (rw) none on /sys/kernel/security type securityfs (rw) udev on /dev type devtmpfs (rw,mode=0755) devpts on /dev/pts type devpts (rw,noexec,nosuid,gid=5,mode=0620) tmpfs on /run type tmpfs (rw,noexec,nosuid,size=10%,mode=0755) none on /run/lock type tmpfs (rw,noexec,nosuid,nodev,size=5242880) none on /run/shm type tmpfs (rw,nosuid,nodev) /dev/sda1 on /boot type ext2 (rw,acl) /dev/sda1 on /media/hd2 type ext2 (rw)

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  • Set document root for external subdomain (A Record) via htaccess

    - by 1nsane
    I have a managed server (unable to control apache settings) with the default document root of: /var/www I have a web app running in: /var/www/subdomains/app/webroot I have a dedicated domain managed by the host that has the aforementioned webroot which works perfectly. I would like to allow externally provisioned domains to point to the server/web app via A Record config. If I access the site via IP, it takes me to the index located in /var/www. I would like to configure the .htaccess in my /var/www directory to rewrite requests from the external subdomain to the /var/www/subdomains/app/webroot directory. I've done so using the following rules: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} external\.domain\.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /var/www/subdomains/app/webroot/index.php?url=$1 [L,QSA] When accessing external.domain.com, the app loads properly, but the paths to things like CSS files, images, etc. are prefixed with "/subdomains/app/", causing broken links. I've tried changing the RewriteBase (both in /var/www and /var/www/subdomains/app/webroot), as I believe that's what it's designed for - but no luck. Any ideas? FYI the app is built on CakePHP. Thanks

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  • How to convert a DataSet object into an ObjectContext (Entity Framework) object on the fly?

    - by Marcel
    Hi all, I have an existing SQL Server database, where I store data from large specific log files (often 100 MB and more), one per database. After some analysis, the database is deleted again. From the database, I have created both a Entity Framework Model and a DataSet Model via the Visual Studio designers. The DataSet is only for bulk importing data with SqlBulkCopy, after a quite complicated parsing process. All queries are then done using the Entity Framework Model, whose CreateQuery Method is exposed via an interface like this public IQueryable<TTarget> GetResults<TTarget>() where TTarget : EntityObject, new() { return this.Context.CreateQuery<TTarget>(typeof(TTarget).Name); } Now, sometimes my files are very small and in such a case I would like to omit the import into the database, but just have a an in-memory representation of the data, accessible as Entities. The idea is to create the DataSet, but instead of bulk importing, to directly transfer it into an ObjectContext which is accessible via the interface. Does this make sense? Now here's what I have done for this conversion so far: I traverse all tables in the DataSet, convert the single rows into entities of the corresponding type and add them to instantiated object of my typed Entity context class, like so MyEntities context = new MyEntities(); //create new in-memory context ///.... //get the item in the navigations table MyDataSet.NavigationResultRow dataRow = ds.NavigationResult.First(); //here, a foreach would be necessary in a true-world scenario NavigationResult entity = new NavigationResult { Direction = dataRow.Direction, ///... NavigationResultID = dataRow.NavigationResultID }; //convert to entities context.AddToNavigationResult(entity); //add to entities ///.... A very tedious work, as I would need to create a converter for each of my entity type and iterate over each table in the DataSet I have. Beware, if I ever change my database model.... Also, I have found out, that I can only instantiate MyEntities, if I provide a valid connection string to a SQL Server database. Since I do not want to actually write to my fully fledged database each time, this hinders my intentions. I intend to have only some in-memory proxy database. Can I do simpler? Is there some automated way of doing such a conversion, like generating an ObjectContext out of a DataSet object? P.S: I have seen a few questions about unit testing that seem somewhat related, but not quite exact.

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  • Where is meta.local_fields set in django.db.models.base.py ?

    - by BryanWheelock
    I'm getting the error: Exception Value: (1110, "Column 'about' specified twice") As I was reviewing the Django error page, I noticed that the customizations the model User, seem to be appended to the List twice. This seems to be happening here in django/db/model/base.py in base_save(): values = [(f, f.get_db_prep_save(raw and getattr(self, f.attname) or f.pre_save(self, True))) for f in meta.local_fields] this is what Django error page shows values to be: values = [(<django.db.models.fields.CharField object at 0xa78996c>, u'kallie'), (<django.db.models.fields.CharField object at 0xa7899cc>, ''), (<django.db.models.fields.CharField object at 0xa789a2c>, ''), (<django.db.models.fields.EmailField object at 0xa789a8c>, u'[email protected]'), (<django.db.models.fields.CharField object at 0xa789b2c>, 'sha1$d4a80$0e5xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxddadfb07'), (<django.db.models.fields.BooleanField object at 0xa789bcc>, False), (<django.db.models.fields.BooleanField object at 0xa789c6c>, True), (<django.db.models.fields.BooleanField object at 0xa789d2c>, False), (<django.db.models.fields.DateTimeField object at 0xa789dcc>, u'2010-02-03 14:54:35'), (<django.db.models.fields.DateTimeField object at 0xa789e2c>, u'2010-02-03 14:54:35'), # this is where the values from the User model customizations show up (<django.db.models.fields.BooleanField object at 0xa8c69ac>, False), (<django.db.models.fields.CharField object at 0xa8c688c>, None), (<django.db.models.fields.PositiveIntegerField object at 0xa8c69cc>, 1), (<django.db.models.fields.CharField object at 0xa8c69ec>, 'b5ab1603b2308xxxxxxxxxxx75bca1'), (<django.db.models.fields.SmallIntegerField object at 0xa8c6dac>, 0), (<django.db.models.fields.SmallIntegerField object at 0xa8c6e4c>, 0), (<django.db.models.fields.SmallIntegerField object at 0xa8c6e8c>, 0), (<django.db.models.fields.SmallIntegerField object at 0xa8c6ecc>, 10), (<django.db.models.fields.DateTimeField object at 0xa8c6eec>, u'2010-02-03 14:54:35'), (<django.db.models.fields.CharField object at 0xa8c6f2c>, ''), (<django.db.models.fields.URLField object at 0xa8c6f6c>, ''), (<django.db.models.fields.CharField object at 0xa8c6fac>, ''), (<django.db.models.fields.DateField object at 0xa8c6fec>, None), (<django.db.models.fields.TextField object at 0xa8cb04c>, ''), # at this point User model customizations repeats itself (<django.db.models.fields.BooleanField object at 0xa663b0c>, False), (<django.db.models.fields.CharField object at 0xaa1e94c>, None), (<django.db.models.fields.PositiveIntegerField object at 0xaa1e34c>, 1), (<django.db.models.fields.CharField object at 0xaa1e40c>, 'b5ab1603b2308050ebd62f49ca75bca1'), (<django.db.models.fields.SmallIntegerField object at 0xa8c6d8c>, 0), (<django.db.models.fields.SmallIntegerField object at 0xaa2378c>, 0), (<django.db.models.fields.SmallIntegerField object at 0xaa237ac>, 0), (<django.db.models.fields.SmallIntegerField object at 0xaa237ec>, 10), (<django.db.models.fields.DateTimeField object at 0xaa2380c>, u'2010-02-03 14:54:35'), (<django.db.models.fields.CharField object at 0xaa2384c>, ''), (<django.db.models.fields.URLField object at 0xaa2388c>, ''), (<django.db.models.fields.CharField object at 0xaa238cc>, ''), (<django.db.models.fields.DateField object at 0xaa2390c>, None), (<django.db.models.fields.TextField object at 0xaa2394c>, '')] Since this app is in Production, I can't figure out how to use pdb.set_trace() to see what's going on inside of save_base. The customizations to User are: User.add_to_class('email_isvalid', models.BooleanField(default=False)) User.add_to_class('email_key', models.CharField(max_length=16, null=True)) User.add_to_class('reputation', models.PositiveIntegerField(default=1)) User.add_to_class('gravatar', models.CharField(max_length=32)) User.add_to_class('email_feeds', generic.GenericRelation(EmailFeed)) User.add_to_class('favorite_questions', models.ManyToManyField(Question, through=FavoriteQuestion, related_name='favorited_by')) User.add_to_class('badges', models.ManyToManyField(Badge, through=Award, related_name='awarded_to')) User.add_to_class('gold', models.SmallIntegerField(default=0)) User.add_to_class('silver', models.SmallIntegerField(default=0)) User.add_to_class('bronze', models.SmallIntegerField(default=0)) User.add_to_class('questions_per_page', models.SmallIntegerField(choices=QUESTIONS_PER_PAGE_CHOICES, default=10)) User.add_to_class('last_seen', models.DateTimeField(default=datetime.datetime.now)) User.add_to_class('real_name', models.CharField(max_length=100, blank=True)) User.add_to_class('website', models.URLField(max_length=200, blank=True)) User.add_to_class('location', models.CharField(max_length=100, blank=True)) User.add_to_class('date_of_birth', models.DateField(null=True, blank=True)) User.add_to_class('about', models.TextField(blank=True)) Django1.1.1 Python 2.5

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  • How to Export data to Excel using LINQ to Entity?

    - by Rita
    Hi I have the data coming from Entity Data model table on my ASP.NET page. Now I have to export this data into Excel on button click. If it is using OLEDB, it is straight forward as it is here: http://csharp.net-informations.com/excel/csharp-excel-oledb-insert.htm Here is my function to read data from inquiries table: var model = from i in myEntity.Inquiries where i.User_Id == 5 orderby i.TX_Id descending select new { RequestID = i.TX_Id, CustomerName = i.CustomerMaster.FirstName, RequestDate = i.RequestDate, Email = i.CustomerMaster.MS_Id, DocDescription = i.Document.Description, ProductName = i.Product.Name

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