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  • multithreading in c#

    - by Lalit Dhake
    Hi, I have console application. In that i have some process that fetch the data from database through different layers ( business and Data access). stores the fetched data in respective objects. Like if data is fetched for student then this data will store (assigned ) to Student object. same for school. and them a delegate call the certain method that generates outputs as per requirement. This process will execute many times say 10 times. Ok? I want to run simultaneously this process. not one will start, it will finish and then second will start. I want after starting 1'st process, just 2'nd , 3rd....10'th must be start. Means it should be multithreading. how can i achieve this ? is that will give me error while connection with data base open and close ? I have tried this concept . but when thread 1'st is starting then data will fetched for thread 1 will stored in its respective (student , school) objects. ok? when simultaneous 2'nd thread starts , but the data is changing of 1'st object ,while control flowing in program. What have to do?

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  • How can I access master page text box from jquery file?

    - by stackuser1
    In my master page i've a textbox. <asp:TextBox ID="SearchTextBox" runat="server" class="searchtxtbox" onfocus="HideSearchWaterMark();" Text="Search" onblur="ShowSearchWaterMark(this);" /> I added jquery references in code behind. TextBox SearchTextBox = this.FindControl("SearchTextBox") as TextBox; StringBuilder objStringBuilder = new StringBuilder(); objStringBuilder.Append("<script type=\"text/javascript\" language=\"javascript\">\n"); objStringBuilder.AppendFormat("var searchTextBox = '{0}';\n", SearchTextBox.ClientID); objStringBuilder.Append("</script>\n"); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(GetType(), "RegisterVariables", objStringBuilder.ToString()); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/Scripts/Search.js")); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/Scripts/jquery-1.4.2.js")); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/TagsScripts/jquery.autocomplete.js")); in Search.js i've the following methods to access the text box of master page: $(document).ready(function () { $("#" + searchTextBox).autocomplete("Handlers/GenericHandler.ashx?tgt=12", { multiple: true, multipleSeparator: ";", mustMatch: false, autoFill: true }); }); function HideSearchWaterMark() { var control = $("#" + searchTextBox); if (control[0].className == "searchtxtbox ac_input") control[0].value = ""; control[0].className = "searchtxtbox ac_input"; } function ShowSearchWaterMark(tagsTextBox) { if (searchTextBox.value.length == 0) { searchTextBox.value = "Search"; searchTextBox.className = "searchtxtbox ac_input"; } When i run my application i'm getting object reference not set error. Please tell me where i need to change my code.

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  • LogonUser -> CreateProcessAsUser from a system service

    - by Josh K
    I've read all the posts on Stack Overflow about CreateProcessAsUser and there are very few resolved questions, so I'm not holding my breath on this one. But it seems like I'm definitely missing something, so it might be easy. The target OS is Windows XP. I have a service running as "Local System" from which I want to create a process running as a different user. For that user, I have the username and password, so LogonUser goes fine and I get a token for the user (in this case, an Administrator account.) I then try to use that token to call CreateProcessAsUser, but it fails because that token does not come with SeAssignPrimaryTokenPrivilege - however, it does have SeIncreaseQuotaPrivilege. (I used GetTokenInformation to dump all the privileges associated with that token.) According to the MSDN page for CreateProcessAsUser, you need both privileges in order to call CreateProcessAsUser successfully. It also says you don't need the SeAssignPrimaryTokenPrivilege if the token you pass in to CreateProcessAsUser() is a "restricted version of the calling process' primary token", which I can create with CreateRestrictedToken(), but then it will be associated with the Local System user and not the target user I'm trying to run the process as. So how would I create a logon token that is both a restricted version of the calling process' primary token, AND is associated with a different user? Thanks! Note that there is no need for user interaction in here - it's all unattended - so there's no need to do stuff like grabbing WINSTA0, etc.

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  • Starting CLI application programmatically does not work depending on arguments

    - by Daniel Beck
    I try to start plink.exe (PuTTY Link, the command line utility/version of PuTTY) from a C# application to establish an SSH reverse tunnel, but it does no longer work as soon as I pass the correct parameters. What does that mean? The following works as expected: it opens a command line window, displays that I forgot to pass the password for the -pw argument quits, and shows the prompt. I know it got the arguments, since it specifically requests the one thing I did not provide. Uri uri = omitted; ProcessStartInfo info = new ProcessStartInfo(); info.FileName = "cmd"; info.Arguments = "/k \"C:\\Program Files (x86)\\PuTTY\\plink.exe\" -R 3389:" + uri.Host + ":" + uri.Port + " -N -l username -pw"; // TODO pwd Process p = Process.Start(info); I tried the same think with calling plink.exe directly instead of cmd.exe /k, but the window closes immediately, which is unfortunate for bug-hunting. BUT when I pass a password in the arguments, plink.exe displays the program help (showing available parameters) and quits: Uri uri = omitted; ProcessStartInfo info = new ProcessStartInfo(); info.FileName = "cmd"; info.Arguments = "/k \"C:\\Program Files (x86)\\PuTTY\\plink.exe\" -R 3389:" + uri.Host + ":" + uri.Port + " -N -l username -pw secretpassword"; Process p = Process.Start(info); No indication of missing parameters. Both the cmd /k and plink.exe variants do not work (the latter closes immediately, so no information regarding different behaviour). When I launch the application from the Windows 7 Start Menu launcher with the identical parameters, it opens a cmd.exe window and establishes the connection as requested. What's wrong? Is there a way plink.exe notices it's not running in a real shell? If yes, how can I circumvent it, like the Start Menu "prompt" does? I hope this question is right on SO, since it, though specifically for a single application, revolves around launching it successfully programmatically.

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  • MPI hypercube broadcast error

    - by luvieere
    I've got a one to all broadcast method for a hypercube, written using MPI: one2allbcast(int n, int rank, void *data, int count, MPI_Datatype dtype) { MPI_Status status; int mask, partner; int mask2 = ((1 << n) - 1) ^ (1 << n-1); for (mask = (1 << n-1); mask; mask >>= 1, mask2 >>= 1) { if (rank & mask2 == 0) { partner = rank ^ mask; if (rank & mask) MPI_Recv(data, count, dtype, partner, 99, MPI_COMM_WORLD, &status); else MPI_Send(data, count, dtype, partner, 99, MPI_COMM_WORLD); } } } Upon calling it from main: int main( int argc, char **argv ) { int n, rank; MPI_Init (&argc, &argv); MPI_Comm_size (MPI_COMM_WORLD, &n); MPI_Comm_rank (MPI_COMM_WORLD, &rank); one2allbcast(floor(log(n) / log (2)), rank, "message", sizeof(message), MPI_CHAR); MPI_Finalize(); return 0; } compiling and executing on 8 nodes, I receive a series of errors reporting that processes 1, 3, 5, 7 were stopped before the point of receiving any data: MPI_Recv: process in local group is dead (rank 1, MPI_COMM_WORLD) Rank (1, MPI_COMM_WORLD): Call stack within LAM: Rank (1, MPI_COMM_WORLD): - MPI_Recv() Rank (1, MPI_COMM_WORLD): - main() MPI_Recv: process in local group is dead (rank 3, MPI_COMM_WORLD) Rank (3, MPI_COMM_WORLD): Call stack within LAM: Rank (3, MPI_COMM_WORLD): - MPI_Recv() Rank (3, MPI_COMM_WORLD): - main() MPI_Recv: process in local group is dead (rank 5, MPI_COMM_WORLD) Rank (5, MPI_COMM_WORLD): Call stack within LAM: Rank (5, MPI_COMM_WORLD): - MPI_Recv() Rank (5, MPI_COMM_WORLD): - main() MPI_Recv: process in local group is dead (rank 7, MPI_COMM_WORLD) Rank (7, MPI_COMM_WORLD): Call stack within LAM: Rank (7, MPI_COMM_WORLD): - MPI_Recv() Rank (7, MPI_COMM_WORLD): - main() Where do I go wrong?

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  • Delphi: Alternative to using Assign/ReadLn for text file reading

    - by Ian Boyd
    i want to process a text file line by line. In the olden days i loaded the file into a StringList: slFile := TStringList.Create(); slFile.LoadFromFile(filename); for i := 0 to slFile.Count-1 do begin oneLine := slFile.Strings[i]; //process the line end; Problem with that is once the file gets to be a few hundred megabytes, i have to allocate a huge chunk of memory; when really i only need enough memory to hold one line at a time. (Plus, you can't really indicate progress when you the system is locked up loading the file in step 1). The i tried using the native, and recommended, file I/O routines provided by Delphi: var f: TextFile; begin Assign(filename, f); while ReadLn(f, oneLine) do begin //process the line end; Problem withAssign is that there is no option to read the file without locking (i.e. fmShareDenyNone). The former stringlist example doesn't support no-lock either, unless you change it to LoadFromStream: slFile := TStringList.Create; stream := TFileStream.Create(filename, fmOpenRead or fmShareDenyNone); slFile.LoadFromStream(stream); stream.Free; for i := 0 to slFile.Count-1 do begin oneLine := slFile.Strings[i]; //process the line end; So now even though i've gained no locks being held, i'm back to loading the entire file into memory. Is there some alternative to Assign/ReadLn, where i can read a file line-by-line, without taking a sharing lock? i'd rather not get directly into Win32 CreateFile/ReadFile, and having to deal with allocating buffers and detecting CR, LF, CRLF's. i thought about memory mapped files, but there's the difficulty if the entire file doesn't fit (map) into virtual memory, and having to maps views (pieces) of the file at a time. Starts to get ugly. i just want Assign with fmShareDenyNone!

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  • Google Chrome, IE problem with adjusting style before AJAX

    - by orokusaki
    When I'm using AJAX, I typically do something before each request to let the user know that they'll be waiting for a second. This is usually done by just adding an animated loading gif. When I do this, Firefox does what you'd expect and adds the gif before moving control to the next line (where the AJAX is called). In Chrome, it locks the browser and doesn't make any DOM changes at all (let alone load an image), including even changing the color of something, until the AJAX is done. This isn't just AJAX though. It's anything that holds control, and it never makes DOM changes until the control is given back to the window. Example (using jQuery): function submit_order() { $('#my_element').css('color', '#FF0000'); // Make text red before calling AJAX $.getJSON('/api/', my_callback) // Note, in IE and Chrome #my_element isn't turned red until the AJAX finishes and my_callback is run } Why does this happen, and how can I solve it? I can't use ASYNC because of the nature of the data (it would be a big mess). I experimented with using window.setTimeout(myajaxfunc, 150) after setting the style, to see if it would set the style, then do the timeout, but it appears it isn't an issue with just AJAX, but rather the control of the script in general (I think, hence the title making mention to AJAX because this is the only time I ever run into this problem). This doesn't have anything to do with it being in a function BTW.

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  • How to print PDF on default network printer using GhostScript (gswin32c.exe) shell command

    - by Maciej
    I'd like to print PDF file(s) on windows' network printer via GhostScript. (I dont want to use Adobe Reader) I've read gswin32c.exe which can do the job. I experimented with many commands and coudn't find the way how to force gs to print PDF on my (windows default) network drive. I don't need point exact network printer- default can be used. But if there is no such option I'm happy to pass printer name as well. (I've tried with param -SDevice="\server_IP\printer_name" but this didnt work as well...) Command working under Windows cmd: gswin32c -dPrinted -dBATCH -dNOPAUSE -dNOSAFER -q -dNumCopies=1 -sDEVICE=ljet4 -sOutputFile="\\spool\\\Server_Name\Printer_name" "C:\test.pdf" Method created base on above - doesnt work and thorws exception. (Error code = 1) /// <summary> /// Prints the PDF. /// </summary> /// <param name="ghostScriptPath">The ghost script path. Eg "C:\Program Files\gs\gs8.71\bin\gswin32c.exe"</param> /// <param name="numberOfCopies">The number of copies.</param> /// <param name="printerName">Name of the printer. Eg \\server_name\printer_name</param> /// <param name="pdfFileName">Name of the PDF file.</param> /// <returns></returns> public bool PrintPDF (string ghostScriptPath, int numberOfCopies, string printerName, string pdfFileName) { ProcessStartInfo startInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(); startInfo.Arguments = " -dPrinted -dBATCH -dNOPAUSE -dNOSAFER -q -dNumCopies=" + Convert.ToString(numberOfCopies) + " -sDEVICE=ljet4 -sOutputFile=\"\\\\spool\\" + printerName + "\" \"" + pdfFileName + "\""; startInfo.FileName = ghostScriptPath; startInfo.UseShellExecute = false; Process process = Process.Start(startInfo); return process.ExitCode == 0; } Any idea how to make it working under C#?

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  • Preventing Processes From Spawning Using .NET Code

    - by Matt
    I remember coming across an article on I think CodeProject quite some time ago regarding an antivirus or antimalware some guy was writing where he hooked into the Windows API to be able to catch whenever a new process was started and was prompting he user before allowing the process to start. I can no longer find the article, and would actually like to be able to implement something like this. Currently, we have a custom browser built on Gecko that we've integrated access restrictions to sites based on our internal employee security levels, etc. We prevent any other browser from running with a timer and a call to Process.GetProcessesByName() from a list of the browsers we don't allow. What we want to accomplish is, instead of just blocking these browsers, where there is a small delay between the other browser starting and it being killed by our service, we'd like to be able to display a dialog instead of the process launching at all, explaining that the program isn't in the allowed list. This way, we can generate a list of "allowed" processes and just block everything else (we haven't yet had a problem with outside apps being installed, but you can never be too careful). Unfortunately, we don't do much Windows API programming from C#, so I'm not sure where to begin looking for what calls we need to hook. Even just a starting point of what to read up on would be helpful.

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  • How to make Processes Run Parallel in Erlang?

    - by Ankit S
    Hello, startTrains() -> TotalDist = 100, Trains = [trainA,trainB ], PID = spawn(fun() -> train(1,length(Trains)) end), [ PID ! {self(),TrainData,TotalDist} || TrainData <- Trains], receive {_From, Mesg} -> error_logger:info_msg("~n Mesg ~p ~n",[Mesg]) after 10500 -> refresh end. so, I created Two Processes named trainA, trainB. I want to increment these process by 5 till it gets 100. I made different processes to make each of the train (process) increments its position parallely. But I was surprised to get the output sequentially i.e process trainA ends then process trainB starts. But I want to increment themselves at simultaneously. I want to run processes like this trainA 10 trainB 0 trainA 15 trainB 5 .... trainA 100 trainB 100 but I m getting trainA 0 .... trainA 90 trainA 95 trainA 100 trainA ends trainB 0 trainB 5 trainB 10 ..... trainB 100 How to make the processes run parallel/simultaneously? Hope you get my Q's. Please help me.

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  • jQuery Ajax / .each callback, next 'each' firing before ajax completed

    - by StuR
    Hi the below Javascript is called when I submit a form. It first splits a bunch of url's from a text area, it then: 1) Adds lines to a table for each url, and in the last column (the 'status' column) it says "Not Started". 2) Again it loops through each url, first off it makes an ajax call to check on the status (status.php) which will return a percentage from 0 - 100. 3) In the same loop it kicks off the actual process via ajax (process.php), when the process has completed (bearing in the mind the continuous status updates), it will then say "Completed" in the status column and exit the auto_refresh. 4) It should then go to the next 'each' and do the same for the next url. function formSubmit(){ var lines = $('#urls').val().split('\n'); $.each(lines, function(key, value) { $('#dlTable tr:last').after('<tr><td>'+value+'</td><td>Not Started</td></tr>'); }); $.each(lines, function(key, value) { var auto_refresh = setInterval( function () { $.ajax({ url: 'status.php', success: function(data) { $('#dlTable').find("tr").eq(key+1).children().last().replaceWith("<td>"+data+"</td>"); } }); }, 1000); $.ajax({ url: 'process.php?id='+value, success: function(msg) { clearInterval(auto_refresh); $('#dlTable').find("tr").eq(key+1).children().last().replaceWith("<td>completed rip</td>"); } }); }); }

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  • ubuntu: sem_timedwait not waking (C)

    - by gillez
    I have 3 processes which need to be synchronized. Process one does something then wakes process two and sleeps, which does something then wakes process three and sleeps, which does something and wakes process one and sleeps. The whole loop is timed to run around 25hz (caused by an external sync into process one before it triggers process two in my "real" application). I use sem_post to trigger (wake) each process, and sem_timedwait() to wait for the trigger. This all works successfully for several hours. However at some random time (usually after somewhere between two and four hours), one of the processes starts timing out in sem_timedwait(), even though I am sure the semaphore is being triggered with sem_post(). To prove this I even use sem_getvalue() immediately after the timeout, and the value is 1, so the timedwait should have been triggered. Please see following code: #include <stdio.h> #include <time.h> #include <string.h> #include <errno.h> #include <semaphore.h> sem_t trigger_sem1, trigger_sem2, trigger_sem3; // The main thread process. Called three times with a different num arg - 1, 2 or 3. void *thread(void *arg) { int num = (int) arg; sem_t *wait, *trigger; int val, retval; struct timespec ts; struct timeval tv; switch (num) { case 1: wait = &trigger_sem1; trigger = &trigger_sem2; break; case 2: wait = &trigger_sem2; trigger = &trigger_sem3; break; case 3: wait = &trigger_sem3; trigger = &trigger_sem1; break; } while (1) { // The first thread delays by 40ms to time the whole loop. // This is an external sync in the real app. if (num == 1) usleep(40000); // print sem value before we wait. If this is 1, sem_timedwait() will // return immediately, otherwise it will block until sem_post() is called on this sem. sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("sem%d wait sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, num, val); // get current time and add half a second for timeout. gettimeofday(&tv, NULL); ts.tv_sec = tv.tv_sec; ts.tv_nsec = (tv.tv_usec + 500000); // add half a second if (ts.tv_nsec > 1000000) { ts.tv_sec++; ts.tv_nsec -= 1000000; } ts.tv_nsec *= 1000; /* convert to nanosecs */ retval = sem_timedwait(wait, &ts); if (retval == -1) { // timed out. Print value of sem now. This should be 0, otherwise sem_timedwait // would have woken before timeout (unless the sem_post happened between the // timeout and this call to sem_getvalue). sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("!!!!!! sem%d sem_timedwait failed: %s, val now %d\n", num, strerror(errno), val); } else printf("sem%d wakeup.\n", num); // get value of semaphore to trigger. If it's 1, don't post as it has already been // triggered and sem_timedwait on this sem *should* not block. sem_getvalue(trigger, &val); if (val <= 0) { printf("sem%d send sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, (num == 3 ? 1 : num+1), val); sem_post(trigger); } else printf("!! sem%d not sending sync, val %d\n", num, val); } } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { pthread_t t1, t2, t3; // create semaphores. val of sem1 is 1 to trigger straight away and start the whole ball rolling. if (sem_init(&trigger_sem1, 0, 1) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_listman semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem2, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_comms semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem3, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_vws semaphore"); pthread_create(&t1, NULL, thread, (void *) 1); pthread_create(&t2, NULL, thread, (void *) 2); pthread_create(&t3, NULL, thread, (void *) 3); pthread_join(t1, NULL); pthread_join(t2, NULL); pthread_join(t3, NULL); } The following output is printed when the program is running correctly (at the start and for a random but long time after). The value of sem1 is always 1 before thread1 waits as it sleeps for 40ms, by which time sem3 has triggered it, so it wakes straight away. The other two threads wait until the semaphore is received from the previous thread. [...] sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 sem2 wakeup. sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 sem3 wakeup. sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 [...] However, after a few hours, one of the threads begins to timeout. I can see from the output that the semaphore is being triggered, and when I print the value after the timeout is is 1. So sem_timedwait should have woken up well before the timeout. I would never expect the value of the semaphore to be 1 after the timeout, save for the very rare occasion (almost certainly never but it's possible) when the trigger happens after the timeout but before I call sem_getvalue. Also, once it begins to fail, every sem_timedwait() on that semaphore also fails in the same way. See the following output, which I've line-numbered: 01 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 02 sem1 wakeup. 03 sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 04 sem2 wakeup. 05 sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 06 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 07 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 0 08 !!!!!! sem3 sem_timedwait failed: Connection timed out, val now 1 09 sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 10 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 1 11 sem3 wakeup. 12 !! sem3 not sending sync, val 1 13 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 14 sem1 wakeup. [...] On line 1, thread 3 (which I have confusingly called sem1 in the printf) waits for sem3 to be triggered. On line 5, sem2 calls sem_post for sem3. However, line 8 shows sem3 timing out, but the value of the semaphore is 1. thread3 then triggers sem1 and waits again (10). However, because the value is already 1, it wakes straight away. It doesn't send sem1 again as this has all happened before control is given to thread1, however it then waits again (val is now 0) and sem1 wakes up. This now repeats for ever, sem3 always timing out and showing that the value is 1. So, my question is why does sem3 timeout, even though the semaphore has been triggered and the value is clearly 1? I would never expect to see line 08 in the output. If it times out (because, say thread 2 has crashed or is taking too long), the value should be 0. And why does it work fine for 3 or 4 hours first before getting into this state? This is using Ubuntu 9.4 with kernel 2.6.28. The same procedure has been working properly on Redhat and Fedora. But I'm now trying to port to ubuntu! Thanks for any advice, Giles

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  • Silverlight: how to use a scroll viewer to wrap a list view without specifying height?

    - by John Nicholas
    I have a control that has a list that varies in length greatly. This control appears in various places meaning that i cannot calculate its position and desired height easily. Moreover all I want is for the scrollviewer to simply size itself according to its parent. currently it insists on sizing itself according to the content. currently when i have a list that exceeds the height of the screen the whole control extends off the bottom and the scrollviewer shows no bar (because it has stretched to the heigth of the contents and so thinks it is not required). I've not included code as the object graph is fairly deep. What i am looking for is a set of conditions that would cause the scrollviewer to resize itself according to its content rather than its parent. I have it working in a similar situation involving grids and datagrids, the unique part of this control is that there is a list containing controls. Any ideas? I would prefer solutions that don't require use of code behind - but im really not in a position to be choosey.

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  • wcf callback exception after updating to .net 4.0

    - by James
    I have a wcf service that uses callbacks with DualHttpBindings. The service pushes back a datatable of search results the client (for a long running search) as it finds them. This worked fine in .Net 3.5. Since I updated to .Net 4.0, it bombs out with a System.Runtime.FatalException that actually kills the IIS worker process. I have no idea how to even go about starting to fix this. Any recommendations appreciated. The info from the resulting event log is pasted below. An unhandled exception occurred and the process was terminated. Application ID: /LM/W3SVC/2/ROOT/CP Process ID: 5284 Exception: System.Runtime.FatalException Message: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. StackTrace: at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc& rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage31(MessageRpc& rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ChannelHandler.DispatchAndReleasePump(RequestContext request, Boolean cleanThread, OperationContext currentOperationContext) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ChannelHandler.HandleRequest(RequestContext request, OperationContext currentOperationContext) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ChannelHandler.AsyncMessagePump(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.Fx.AsyncThunk.UnhandledExceptionFrame(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.AsyncResult.Complete(Boolean completedSynchronously) at System.Runtime.InputQueue1.AsyncQueueReader.Set(Item item) at System.Runtime.InputQueue1.Dispatch() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableDuplexSessionChannel.ProcessDuplexMessage(WsrmMessageInfo info) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableDuplexSessionChannel.HandleReceiveComplete(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableDuplexSessionChannel.OnReceiveCompletedStatic(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.Fx.AsyncThunk.UnhandledExceptionFrame(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.AsyncResult.Complete(Boolean completedSynchronously) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableChannelBinder1.InputAsyncResult1.OnInputComplete(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.Fx.AsyncThunk.UnhandledExceptionFrame(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.AsyncResult.Complete(Boolean completedSynchronously) at System.Runtime.InputQueue1.AsyncQueueReader.Set(Item item) at System.Runtime.InputQueue1.Dispatch() at System.Runtime.IOThreadScheduler.ScheduledOverlapped.IOCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Runtime.Fx.IOCompletionThunk.UnhandledExceptionFrame(UInt32 error, UInt32 bytesRead, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Threading._IOCompletionCallback.PerformIOCompletionCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* pOVERLAP) InnerException: * System.NullReferenceException* Message: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. StackTrace: at System.Web.HttpApplication.ThreadContext.Enter(Boolean setImpersonationContext) at System.Web.HttpApplication.OnThreadEnterPrivate(Boolean setImpersonationContext) at System.Web.AspNetSynchronizationContext.CallCallbackPossiblyUnderLock(SendOrPostCallback callback, Object state) at System.Web.AspNetSynchronizationContext.CallCallback(SendOrPostCallback callback, Object state) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc& rpc)

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  • DataContext, DataBinding and Element Binding in Silverlight

    - by Matt
    I'm having one hell of a time trying to get my databinding to work correctly. I have reason to believe that what I'm trying to accomplish can't be done, but we'll see what answers I get. I've got a UserControl. This UserControl contains nothing more than a button. Now within the code behind, I've got a property name IsBookmarked. When IsBookmarked is set, code is run that animates the look of the button. The idea is that you click the button and it visually changes. We'll call this UserControl a Bookmark control. Now I have another control, which we'll call the FormControl. My FormControl contains a child Bookmark control. I've tried to do databinding on my Bookmark control, but it's not working. Here's some code to help you out. <UserControl ......> <q:Bookmark x:Name="BookMarkControl1" IsBookmarked="{Binding IsSiteBookmarked}" /> </UserControl> public void Control_Loaded(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataContext = new Employee { IsSiteBookmarked = True }; } public partial class Bookmark : UserControl { bool _IsSiteBookmarked= false; public bool IsSiteBookmarked { get {return _IsSiteBookmarked;} set { _IsSiteBookmarked= value; SwitchMode(value); } } }

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  • Adding custom valiadtion to ASP.NET controls

    - by Brian
    We're trying to build a simple asp control for some clients where they can just drop in a single block - i.e. <captcha:CaptchaControl ID="CaptchaControl1" runat="server" Server="http://localhost:51947/" /> and have it render the control. The catch is that I can't get this to include custom validation. Right now I'm using the RenderContents function to display the layout of the control itself as well as hook it up the to Javascript. The problem is that I don't know how to get custom validation to fire when used as part of a control. protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter output) { output.Write(@" <script type=""text/javascript"" src=""http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3/jquery.min.js""></script> <link rel=""stylesheet"" type=""text/css"" href=""/Layout/CaptchaLayout.css"" /> //etc <asp:Textbox id=""text1"" runat=""server"" text=""""></asp:Textbox> <asp:CustomValidator id=""CustomValidator2"" runat=""server"" ControlToValidate = ""text1"" ErrorMessage = ""You must enter at least 8 characters!"" ClientValidationFunction=""validateLength"" > </asp:CustomValidator>" ); } Any suggestions for a better way to do this?

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  • Problem with Binding Multiple Objects on WPF

    - by Diego Modolo Ribeiro
    Hi, I'm developing a user control called SearchBox, that will act as a replacer for ComboBox for multiple records, as the performance in ComboBox is low for this scenario, but I'm having a big binding problem. I have a base control with a DependencyProperty called SelectedItem, and my SearchControl shows that control so that the user can select the record. The SearchControl also has a DependencyProperty called SelectedItem on it, and it is being updated when the user selects something on the base control, but the UI, wich has the SearchControl, is not being updated. I used a null converter so that I could see if the property was updating, but it's not. Below is some of the code: This is the UI: <NectarControles:MaskedSearchControl x:Name="teste" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="1" Height="21" ItemsSource="{Binding C001_Lista}" DisplayMember="C001_Codigo" Custom:CustomizadorTextBox.CodigoCampo="C001_Codigo" ViewType="{x:Type C001:C001_Search}" ViewModelType="{x:Type C001_ViewModel:C001_ViewModel}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=Instancia.C001_Holding, Mode=TwoWay, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged, Converter={StaticResource DebuggingConverter}}"> </NectarControles:MaskedSearchControl> This is the relevante part of the SearchControl: Binding selectedItemBinding = new Binding("SelectedItem"); selectedItemBinding.Source = this.SearchControlBase; selectedItemBinding.Mode = BindingMode.TwoWay; selectedItemBinding.UpdateSourceTrigger = UpdateSourceTrigger.PropertyChanged; this.SetBinding(SelectedItemProperty, selectedItemBinding); ... public System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.IEntityWithKey SelectedItem { get { return (System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.IEntityWithKey)GetValue(SelectedItemProperty); } set { SetValue(SelectedItemProperty, value); if (PropertyChanged != null) PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("SelectedItem")); } } Please someone help me... Tks...

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  • How do I avoid repetition in Java ResourceBundle strings?

    - by Trejkaz
    We had a lot of strings which contained the same sub-string, from sentences about checking the log or how to contact support, to branding-like strings containing the company or product name. The repetition was causing a few issues for ourselves (primarily typos or copy/paste errors) but it also causes issues in that it increases the amount of text our translator has to translate. The solution I came up with went something like this: public class ExpandingResourceBundleControl extends ResourceBundle.Control { public static final ResourceBundle.Control EXPANDING = new ExpandingResourceBundleControl(); private ExpandingResourceBundleControl() { } @Override public ResourceBundle newBundle(String baseName, Locale locale, String format, ClassLoader loader, boolean reload) throws IllegalAccessException, InstantiationException, IOException { ResourceBundle inner = super.newBundle(baseName, locale, format, loader, reload); return inner == null ? null : new ExpandingResourceBundle(inner, loader); } } ExpandingResourceBundle delegates to the real resource bundle but performs conversion of {{this.kind.of.thing}} to look up the key in the resources. Every time you want to get one of these, you have to go: ResourceBundle.getBundle("com/acme/app/Bundle", EXPANDING); And this works fine -- for a while. What eventually happens is that some new code (in our case autogenerated code which was spat out of Matisse) looks up the same resource bundle without specifying the custom control. This appears to be non-reproducible if you write a simple unit test which calls it with and then without, but it occurs when the application is run for real. Somehow the cache inside ResourceBundle ejects the good value and replaces it with the broken one. I am yet to figure out why and Sun's jar files were compiled without debug info so debugging it is a chore. My questions: Is there some way of globally setting the default ResourceBundle.Control that I might not be aware of? That would solve everything rather elegantly. Is there some other way of handling this kind of thing elegantly, perhaps without tampering with the ResourceBundle classes at all?

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  • VB.NET - Object reference not set to an instance of an object

    - by Daniel
    I need some help with my program. I get this error when I run my VB.NET program with a custom DayView control. ***** Exception Text ******* System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at SeaCow.Main.DayView1_ResolveAppointments(Object sender, ResolveAppointmentsEventArgs args) in C:\Users\Daniel\My Programs\Visual Basic\SeaCow\SeaCow\SeaCow\Main.vb:line 120 at Calendar.DayView.OnResolveAppointments(ResolveAppointmentsEventArgs args) at Calendar.DayView.OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PaintWithErrorHandling(PaintEventArgs e, Int16 layer) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmPaint(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) According to the error code, the 'for each' loop below is causing the NullReferenceException error. At default, the 'appointments' list is assigned to nothing and I can't find where the ResolveAppointments function is being called at. Private Sub DayView1_ResolveAppointments(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal args As Calendar.ResolveAppointmentsEventArgs) Handles DayView1.ResolveAppointments Dim m_Apps As New List(Of Calendar.Appointment) For Each m_App As Calendar.Appointment In appointments If (m_App.StartDate >= args.StartDate) AndAlso (m_App.StartDate <= args.EndDate) Then m_Apps.Add(m_App) End If Next args.Appointments = m_Apps End Sub Anyone have any suggestions?

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  • Jmap can't connect to to make a dump

    - by Jasper Floor
    We have an open beta of an app which occasionally causes the heapspace to overflow. The JVM reacts by going on a permanent vacation. To analyze this I would like to peek into the memory at the point where it failed. Java does not want me to do this. The process is still in memory but it doesn't seem to be recognized as a java process. The server in question is a debian Lenny server, Java 6u14 /opt/jdk/bin# ./jmap -F -dump:format=b,file=/tmp/apidump.hprof 11175 Attaching to process ID 11175, please wait... sun.jvm.hotspot.debugger.NoSuchSymbolException: Could not find symbol "gHotSpotVMTypeEntryTypeNameOffset" in any of the known library names (libjvm.so, libjvm_g.so, gamma_g) at sun.jvm.hotspot.HotSpotTypeDataBase.lookupInProcess(HotSpotTypeDataBase.java:390) at sun.jvm.hotspot.HotSpotTypeDataBase.getLongValueFromProcess(HotSpotTypeDataBase.java:371) at sun.jvm.hotspot.HotSpotTypeDataBase.readVMTypes(HotSpotTypeDataBase.java:102) at sun.jvm.hotspot.HotSpotTypeDataBase.<init>(HotSpotTypeDataBase.java:85) at sun.jvm.hotspot.bugspot.BugSpotAgent.setupVM(BugSpotAgent.java:568) at sun.jvm.hotspot.bugspot.BugSpotAgent.go(BugSpotAgent.java:494) at sun.jvm.hotspot.bugspot.BugSpotAgent.attach(BugSpotAgent.java:332) at sun.jvm.hotspot.tools.Tool.start(Tool.java:163) at sun.jvm.hotspot.tools.HeapDumper.main(HeapDumper.java:77) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at sun.tools.jmap.JMap.runTool(JMap.java:179) at sun.tools.jmap.JMap.main(JMap.java:110) Debugger attached successfully. sun.jvm.hotspot.tools.HeapDumper requires a java VM process/core!

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  • CssClass and default images in ServerContol

    - by Jeff Dege
    I'm writing a ServerControl in ASP.NET 3.5, and I'm exposing CssClass, so the user can manipulate the visual appearance of the control. My problem is that I want to establish reasonable defaults, so that the user doesn't have to configure CSS unless he wants to change the defaults. My specific problem is that my control is emitting html divs, that need to display background images. I want the user to be able to specify a different image in CSS, but I want to display a default background image, and I can't make that work. The entire server control is emitted as a div, with a class name set to the value the user provided in CssClass. The div that needs the background image is enclosed within this outer div, with a class name of its own. I am currently setting the background image in CSS on the page that contains the control: <style type="text/css"> .cssClass .innerDiv { background-image: url("http://...."); } </style> With this the proper image is drawn. But if it's not there, no image is drawn. What I want is for the ServerControl to emit some CSS that will define these image urls, that would be over-ridden by any css that was added by the user, and for that default CSS to include URLs to images embedded in the ServerControl's assembly. And I'm not sure of how to do either. Nor, for that matter, am I sure this is the best approach. Any ideas?

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  • ASP.NET Event delegation between user controls

    - by Ishan
    Give the following control hierarchy on a ASP.NET page: Page HeaderControl       (User Control) TitleControl       (Server Control) TabsControl       (User Control) other controls I'm trying to raise an event (or some notification) in the TitleControl that bubbles to the Page level. Then, I'd like to (optionally) register an event handler at the Page codebehind that will take the EventArgs and modify the TabsControl in the example above. The important thing to note is that this design will allow me to drop these controls into any Page and make the entire system work seamlessly if the event handler is wired up. The solution should not involve a call to FindControl() since that becomes a strong association. If no handler is defined in the containing Page, the event is still raised by TitleControl but is not handled. My basic goal is to use event-based programming so that I can decouple the user controls from each other. The event from TitleControl is only raised in some instances, and this seemed to be (in my head) the preferred approach. However, I can't seem to find a way to cleanly achieve this. Here are my (poor) attempts: Using HttpContext.Current.Items Add the EventArgs to the Items collection on TitleControl and pick it up on the TabsControl. This works but it's fundamentally hard to decipher since the connection between the two controls is not obvious. Using Reflection Instead of passing events, look for a function on the container Page directly within TitleControl as in: Page.GetType().GetMethod("TabControlHandler").Invoke(Page, EventArgs); This will work, but the method name will have to be a constant that all Page instances will have to defined verbatim. I'm sure that I'm over-thinking this and there must be a prettier solution using delegation, but I can't seem to think of it. Any thoughts?

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  • How to terminate all [grand]child processes using C# on WXP (and newer MSWindows)

    - by NVRAM
    Question: How can I determine all processes in the child's Process Tree to kill them? I have an application, written in C# that will: Get a set of data from the server, Spawn a 3rd party utility to process the data, then Return the results to the server. This is working fine. But since a run consumes a lot of CPU and may take as long as an hour, I want to add the ability to have my app terminate its child processes. Some issues that make the simple solutions I've found elsewhere are: My app's child process "A" (InstallAnywhere EXE I think) spawns the real processing app "B" (a java.exe), which in turns spawns more children "C1".."Cn" (most of which are also written in Java). There will likely be multiple copies of my application (and hence, multiple sets of its children) running on the same machine. The child process is not in my control so there might be some "D" processes in the future. My application must run on 32-bit and 64-bit versions of MSWindows. On the plus side there is no issue of data loss, a "clean" shutdown doesn't matter as long as the processes end fairly quickly.

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  • Does anyone know how to detect whether a Windows Service is running through Java

    - by GKelly
    There's plenty of information on running Java apps as services, but I need to know how to detect whether a windows service is running or not. Does anyone know how??? At the DOS prompt, I can run: tasklist /svc|findstr "NonRunningService" echo Return code for N onRunningService is %ERRORLEVEL% tasklist /svc|findstr "RunningService" echo Return code for RunningService is %ERRORLEVEL% I get the following: Return code for NonRunningService is 1 Return code for RunningService is 0 In code, I have: int retCode = Runtime.getRuntime.exec("tasklist /svc|findstr \"NonRunningService\"").waitFor(); System.out.println("Return code for NonRunningService is " + retCode); retCode = Runtime.getRuntime.exec("tasklist /svc|findstr \"RunningService\"").waitFor(); System.out.println("Return code for RunningService is " + retCode); I get the following output Return code for NonRunningService is 1 Return code for RunningService is 1 According to the JavaDocs, the waitFor() should block until the process finishes, and give me the exit value of the process. I've also tried using the Process/ProcessBuilder command line calls: //'tasklist /nh /fi "SERVICES eq RunningService"' will return a line for // each running service of the requested type. Process p1 = new ProcessBuilder("tasklist", "/nh", "/fi" "SERVICES eq RunningService").start(); p1.waitFor(); BufferedReader is = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p1.getInputStream())); String line = is.readLine(); System.out.println("Service - " + line); System.out.println("Running? ", (line==null?"No":"Yes"); gives: Service - Running? No even when I get lines in the output at the command line!

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  • MS Surface Tag Visualizer steals contact events

    - by Isak Savo
    I'm struggling with the TagVisualizer control on an MS Surface project. In theory the control seems great, allowing you to respond to input from real world physical objects The problem is that the control will cover the entire screen (since I want to capture tags on the entire screen) and as such, no other controls in my app will receive the touch events. (Unless, they are direct ascendants in the visual tree). In my app, I want to have a "layer" type of a approach, where each layer can respond to (contact) input: Window `- Grid `- LayersPanel `- TagVisualizer `- Layer 1 `- Layer 2 `- Layer 3 `- Layer 4 Now it doesn't matter where I put the tag visualizer, it's always going to steal contact events from all or some of the other layers. (due to the nature of RoutedEvents) To me, it seems like the control is completely useless in practice as it will always interfere with your application's other controls. What am I missing here? So my questions are: Any suggestions on how to work around this? Has anyone used TagVisualizers in a similar scenario? If so, how did you solve this? By the way, the layers all work fine, since they will only steal events that are directly on top of their sub elements (the rest of the layer is invisible to hit testing)

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