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  • Apache mod_rewrite - forward domain root to subdirectory

    - by DuFace
    I have what I originally assumed to be a simple problem. I am using shared hosting for my website (so I don't have access to the Apache configuration) and have only been given a single folder to store all my content in. This is all well and good but it means that all my subdomains must have their virtual document root's inside public_html, meaning they effectively become a folder on my main domain. What I'd like to do is organise my public_html something like this: public_html/ www/ index.php ... sub1/ index.php ... some_library/ ... This way, all my web content is still in public_html but only a small fraction of it will be served to the client. I can easily achieve this for all the subdomains, but it's the primary domain that I'm having issues with. I created a .htaccess file in public_html with the following: Options +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch # I'm not allowed to use FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/www [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /www/$1 [L] This works fairly well, but for some strange reason www.example.com/stuff is translated into a request for www.example.com/www/stuff and hence a 404 error is given. It was my understanding that unless an 'R' flag was specified, mod_rewrite was purely internal so I can't understand why the request is generated as that implies (to me at least) redirection. I assumed this would be a trivial problem to solve as all I actually want to do is forward all requests for the root of www.example.com to a subdirectory, but I've spent hours searching for answers and none are quite correct. I find it difficult to believe I'm the only person to have this issue. I apologise if this question has been answered on here before, I did search and trawl but couldn't find an appropriate answer. Please could someone shed some light on this?

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  • How to use RewriteBase in .htaccess to rewrite img tags?

    - by Eileen
    I guess I don't understand RewriteBase. I have a (drupal) site built on my dev server and everything works perfectly. I created a fake URL for it in my own apache and hosts file, so I get to my local version with "local-examplesite.com". Eventually it will live at www.examplesite.com, but I want to put up a draft with a temp URL at my hosting company like so: 123.45.67.89/~examplesite . I set the RewriteBase in .htaccess to /~examplesite . All the pages work fine, and all the navigation links go to the right places. But none of my images work! They are of the format src="/sites/default/images/blah.png", and so the tags are getting rendered as src="http://123.45.67.89/sites/default/images/blah.png", instead of src="http://123.45.67.89/~examplesite/sites/default/images/blah.png". Is there any way I can get the site to point to right images? I thought that's what rewritebase was for, but after reading up a bit I guess it is for URLs only (the ones that get rewritten, natch).

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  • Sql Server Replication: Snapshot vs Merge

    - by Zyphrax
    Background information Let's say I have two database servers, both SQL Server 2008. One is in my LAN (ServerLocal), the other one is on a remote hosting environment (ServerRemote). I have created a database on ServerLocal and have an exact copy of that database on ServerRemote. The database on ServerRemote is part of a web application and I would like to keep it's data up-to-date with the data in the database ServerLocal. ServerLocal is able to communicate with ServerRemote, this is one-way traffic. Communication from ServerRemote to ServerLocal isn't available. Current solution I thought it would be a nice solution to use replication. So I've made ServerLocal a publisher and subscriptions are pushed to the ServerRemote. This works fine, when a snapshot is transfered to ServerRemote the existing data will be purged and the ServerRemote database is once again an exact replica of the database on ServerLocal. The problem Records that exist on ServerRemote that don't exist on ServerLocal are removed. This doesn't matter for most of my tables but in some of my tables I'd like to keep the existing data (aspnet_users for instance), and update the records if necessary. What kind of replication fits my problem?

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  • Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_STRING with index.php?

    - by janoChen
    It works perfectly in local host but when I upload it intothe server it has the following error: Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_STRING in D:\Hosting\4923367\html\beta\index.php on line 4 index.php: <?php include_once 'localization.php'; ?> <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head> <!--Start Kampyle Exit-Popup Code--> <script type="text/javascript"> var k_push_vars = { "view_percentage": 10, "popup_font_color": "#000000", "popup_background": "#D4E2F0", "header": "Your feedback is important to us!", "question": "Would you be willing to give us a short (1 minute) feedback?", "footer": "Thank you for helping us improve our website", "yes": "Yes", "no": "No", "text_direction": "ltr", "images_dir": "http://cf.kampyle.com/", "yes_background": "#76AC78", "no_background": "#8D9B86", "site_code": 9662374 } </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://cf.kampyle.com/k_push.js"></script> <!--End Kampyle Exit-Popup Code--> <!-- Start Kampyle Css --> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" media="screen" href="http://cf.kampyle.com/k_button.css" /> <!-- End Kampyle Css --> (continues)

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  • Problems with Threading in Python 2.5, KeyError: 51, Help debugging?

    - by vignesh-k
    I have a python script which runs a particular script large number of times (for monte carlo purpose) and the way I have scripted it is that, I queue up the script the desired number of times it should be run then I spawn threads and each thread runs the script once and again when its done. Once the script in a particular thread is finished, the output is written to a file by accessing a lock (so my guess was that only one thread accesses the lock at a given time). Once the lock is released by one thread, the next thread accesses it and adds its output to the previously written file and rewrites it. I am not facing a problem when the number of iterations is small like 10 or 20 but when its large like 50 or 150, python returns a KeyError: 51 telling me element doesn't exist and the error it points out to is within the lock which puzzles me since only one thread should access the lock at once and I do not expect an error. This is the class I use: class errorclass(threading.Thread): def __init__(self, queue): self.__queue=queue threading.Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): while 1: item = self.__queue.get() if item is None: break result = myfunction() lock = threading.RLock() lock.acquire() ADD entries from current thread to entries in file and REWRITE FILE lock.release() queue = Queue.Queue() for i in range(threads): errorclass(queue).start() for i in range(desired iterations): queue.put(i) for i in range(threads): queue.put(None) Python returns with KeyError: 51 for large number of desired iterations during the adding/write file operation after lock access, I am wondering if this is the correct way to use the lock since every thread has a lock operation rather than every thread accessing a shared lock? What would be the way to rectify this?

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  • How to provide i18n service for developer and end user

    - by user247245
    Many android applications have quite poor i18n-support, and for an understandable reason, as it adds much work for the developer. From a both intuitive and cultural point of view it would be a good thing if end-users could translate the apps themself, and OTA share the translation, without reinstalling the app itself. In concept; as wikipedia, some add content easily, others only use what's there. It's of course important that the service is as easy as possible to use, both for app-developers, and people willing to transcribe. To keep it simple, this is the solution I'm concidering; Developer perspective: Developer uses a customized setContentView when open activities/layouts that will seach for thanslations of xml-entries. (below) The customized version is provided as a free downloadable library/class..., turning the i18n feature to more or less a one liner. User perspective: User downloads app without any translation As app launches, it checks locale running at phone, and will look for a translated xml-file at shared space in SD. If no or old transcribed xml (above), try to download new from internet-service (ansync). This is all done by library above, no need for intents. Translator perspective: Separate app to provide translations for any app using the i18n service above. (Could be just a webapp), with some form of QA on translators/input. QUESTION: Now, for this to work efficiently, it has to be AeasyAP for the developer to even bother, and the most fluent solution would be a customized version of setContentView, that simply loads the translated values from external xml, instead of the ones in the apk. Is this possible at all, and if not, what's your suggested solutions? (And of course, Happy New Year, feliz ano novo, blwyddyn newydd dda, Gott Nytt År, kontan ane nouvo, szczesliwego nowego roku ...) Regards, /T

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  • Tips for submitting a library to Boost?

    - by AraK
    Hi everyone, Summer is coming, and a group of friends and I are getting ready for it :) We decided to build a compile-time Arbitrary precision Unsigned Integers. We would like to provide a set of integers algorithms(functions) with the library. We have seen a number of requests for such a library(SoC2010, C++0x Standard Library wishlist). Also, a regular run-time bigint is requested usually with that, but we don't want to go into the hassle of memory management. The idea came to me from a library called TTMath, unfortunately this library works only on specific platforms because Assembly was used extensively in the library. We would like to write a standard library, depending on the C++ standard library and Boost. Also, we would like to use the available C++0x facilities in current compilers like user-defined literals and others. This would technically make the library non-standard for a while, but we think that it is a matter of time the new standards will be official. Your hints on the whole process including design, implementation, documentation, maintainable of the library are more than welcom. We are a group of students and fresh graduates who are looking for something interesting in the summer, but we see that Boost is full of gurus and we don't want to forget something too obvious. We are communicating on-line, so there is no shared white-boards :( Thanks,

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  • GWT Deserialisation of Persistent Entities (JPA)

    - by slartidan
    Hi everyone, I am currently developing Java/GWT-application which is hosted on a weblogic application server. I am using EJB3.0 with EclipseLink as persistence layer. Sadly my GWT has problems to deserialize persistent entities. It might be helpful for you to know, that I have the EclipseLink-Library in my classpath (including javax.persistence.Entity) am not recieving the persistence objects from a database or persistence-manager - I am creating the objects with standard java code use Eclipse IDE for Java EE Developers for development and deploying and I am compiling my GWT code with the GWT-Plugin (GWT 2.1.0) - my source code is split up in several projects am pretty sure, that the problems occures on client side, since the HTTP response of my server is the same in my working and in my not working example tried to patch javax.persistence.Entity and tried to include several libraries which included javax.persistence.Entity but nothing was helping In my server provides a list of instances of class SerialClass; the interface looks like this: public interface GreetingService extends RemoteService { List<SerialClass> greetServer(); } My onModuleLoad()-Method gets those instances and creates a browser-popup with the information: public void onModuleLoad() { GreetingServiceAsync server = (GreetingServiceAsync) GWT.create(GreetingService.class); server.greetServer(new AsyncCallback<List<SerialClass>>() { public void onFailure(Throwable caught) { } public void onSuccess(List<SerialClass> result) { String resultString = ""; try { for (SerialClass serial : result) { if (serial == null) { resultString += "null "; } else { resultString += ">" + serial.id + "< "; } } } catch (Throwable t) { Window.alert("failed to process"); } Window.alert("success:" + resultString); } }); } My server is looking like this: public class GreetingServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements GreetingService { public List<SerialClass> greetServer() throws IllegalArgumentException { List<SerialClass> list = new ArrayList<SerialClass>(); for (int i = 0; i < 100; i++) { list.add(new SerialClass()); } return list; } } Case 1 = everything works fine I am using this SerialClass (either without any annotation, or with any annotation other than Entity - for example javax.persistence.PersistenceContext works fine): //@Entity public class SerialClass implements Serializable, IsSerializable { public int id = 4711; } The popup contains (as expected): success:>4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< The data sent over HTTP looks like this: //OK[4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,100,1,["java.util.ArrayList/3821976829","serial.shared.SerialClass/10650133"],0,6] Case 2 = its not working at all I am using this SerialClass: @Entity public class SerialClass implements Serializable, IsSerializable { public int id = 4711; } My popup contains (THIS IS MY PROBLEM): success:>2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null The data sent over HTTP looks like this (exactly the same!): //OK[4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,100,1,["java.util.ArrayList/3821976829","serial.shared.SerialClass/10650133"],0,6] There is no suspicious logging output - neither on server, nor on client. All HTTP-responses have return code 200. My current workaround I am going to try to create transfer objects as a copy of my SerialClass - those transfer objects will look exactly the same, but will not have the @Entity annotation. Alternatively I could try to use the RequestFactory (thanks to @Hilbrand for the hint). I really don't know how to solve that problem and I'm really thankful about any suggestions, hints, tips, links, etc.

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  • Help with c# event listening and usercontrols

    - by Jen
    OK so I have a page which has a listview on it. Inside the item template of the listview is a usercontrol. This usercontrol is trying to trigger an event so that the hosting page can listen to it. My problem is that the event is not being triggered as the handler is null. (ie. EditDateRateSelected is my handler and its null when debugging) protected void lnkEditDate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (EditDateRateSelected != null) EditDateRateSelected(Convert.ToDateTime(((LinkButton)frmViewRatesDate.Row.FindControl("lnkEditDate")).Text)); } On the item data bound of my listvew is where I'm adding my event handlers protected void PropertyAccommodationRates1_ItemDataBound(object sender, ListViewItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListViewItemType.DataItem) { UserControls_RatesEditDate RatesViewDate1 = (UserControls_RatesEditDate)e.Item.FindControl("RatesViewDate1"); RatesViewDate1.EditDateRateSelected += new UserControls_RatesEditDate.EditDateRateEventHandler(RatesEditDate1_EditDateRateSelected); RatesViewDate1.PropertyID = (int)Master.PropertyId; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(Accommodations1.SelectedValue)) { RatesViewDate1.AccommodationTypeID = Convert.ToInt32(Accommodations1.SelectedValue); } else { RatesViewDate1.AccommodationTypeID = 0; } RatesViewDate1.Rate = (PropertyCMSRate)((ListViewDataItem)e.Item).DataItem; } } My event code all works fine if the control is inside the page and on page load I have the line: RatesEditDate1.EditDateRateSelected += new UserControls_RatesEditDate.EditDateRateEventHandler(RatesEditDate1_EditDateRateSelected); But obviously I need listen for events inside the listviewcontrols. Any advice would be greatly appreciated. I have tried setting EnableViewState to true for my listview but that hasn't made a difference. Is there somewhere else I'm supposed to be wiring up the control handler? Note - apologies if I've got my terminology wrong and I'm referring to delegates as handlers and such :)

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  • ASP .NET Added Event Handlers to buttons on Page_Load. Event handlers do not fire the first click, b

    - by John
    Background: I am customizing an existing ASP .NET / C# application. It has it's own little "framework" and conventions for developers to follow when extending/customizing its functionality. I am currently extending some of it's administrative functionality, to which the framework provides a contract to enforce implementation of the GetAdministrationInterface() method, which returns System.Web.UI.Control. This method is called during the Page_Load() method of the page hosting the GUI interface. Problem: I have three buttons in my GUI, each of which have been assigned an Event Handler. My administration GUI loads up perfectly fine, but clicking any of the buttons doesn't do what I expect them to do. However, when I click them a second time, the buttons work. I placed breakpoints at the the beginning of each event handler method and stepped through my code. On the first click, none of the event handlers are triggered. On the second click, they are triggered. Any ideas? Example of Button Definition Button btn = new Button(); btn.Text = "Click Me Locked Screen"; bth.Click += new EventHandler(Btn_Click); Example of Event Handler Method Definition void Btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Do Something }

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  • Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

    - by user555937
    Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

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  • What's the best Linux backup solution?

    - by Jon Bright
    We have a four Linux boxes (all running Debian or Ubuntu) on our office network. None of these boxes are especially critical and they're all using RAID. To date, I've therefore been doing backups of the boxes by having a cron job upload tarballs containing the contents of /etc, MySQL dumps and other such changing, non-packaged data to a box at our geographically separate hosting centre. I've realised, however that the tarballs are sufficient to rebuild from, but it's certainly not a painless process to do so (I recently tried this out as part of a hardware upgrade of one of the boxes) long-term, the process isn't sustainable. Each of the boxes is currently producing a tarball of a couple of hundred MB each day, 99% of which is the same as the previous day partly due to the size issue, the backup process requires more manual intervention than I want (to find whatever 5GB file is inflating the size of the tarball and kill it) again due to the size issue, I'm leaving stuff out which it would be nice to include - the contents of users' home directories, for example. There's almost nothing of value there that isn't in source control (and these aren't our main dev boxes), but it would be nice to keep them anyway. there must be a better way So, my question is, how should I be doing this properly? The requirements are: needs to be an offsite backup (one of the main things I'm doing here is protecting against fire/whatever) should require as little manual intervention as possible (I'm lazy, and box-herding isn't my main job) should continue to scale with a couple more boxes, slightly more data, etc. preferably free/open source (cost isn't the issue, but especially for backups, openness seems like a good thing) an option to produce some kind of DVD/Blu-Ray/whatever backup from time to time wouldn't be bad My first thought was that this kind of incremental backup was what tar was created for - create a tar file once each month, add incrementally to it. rsync results to remote box. But others probably have better suggestions.

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  • Recommendations for IPC between parent and child processes in .NET?

    - by Jeremy
    My .NET program needs to run an algorithm that makes heavy use of 3rd party libraries (32-bit), most of which are unmanaged code. I want to drive the CPU as hard as I can, so the code runs several threads in parallel to divide up the work. I find that running all these threads simultaneously results in temporary memory spikes, causing the process' virtual memory size to approach the 2 GB limit. This memory is released back pretty quickly, but occasionally if enough threads enter the wrong sections of code at once, the process crosses the "red line" and either the unmanaged code or the .NET code encounters an out of memory error. I can throttle back the number of threads but then my CPU usage is not as high as I would like. I am thinking of creating worker processes rather than worker threads to help avoid the out of memory errors, since doing so would give each thread of execution its own 2 GB of virtual address space (my box has lots of RAM). I am wondering what are the best/easiest methods to communicate the input and output between the processes in .NET? The file system is an obvious choice. I am used to shared memory, named pipes, and such from my UNIX background. Is there a Windows or .NET specific mechanism I should use?

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  • Boost threading/mutexs, why does this work?

    - by Flamewires
    Code: #include <iostream> #include "stdafx.h" #include <boost/thread.hpp> #include <boost/thread/mutex.hpp> using namespace std; boost::mutex mut; double results[10]; void doubler(int x) { //boost::mutex::scoped_lock lck(mut); results[x] = x*2; } int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { boost::thread_group thds; for (int x = 10; x>0; x--) { boost::thread *Thread = new boost::thread(&doubler, x); thds.add_thread(Thread); } thds.join_all(); for (int x = 0; x<10; x++) { cout << results[x] << endl; } return 0; } Output: 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 Press any key to continue . . . So...my question is why does this work(as far as i can tell, i ran it about 20 times), producing the above output, even with the locking commented out? I thought the general idea was: in each thread: calculate 2*x copy results to CPU register(s) store calculation in correct part of array copy results back to main(shared) memory I would think that under all but perfect conditions this would result in some part of the results array having 0 values. Is it only copying the required double of the array to a cpu register? Or is it just too short of a calculation to get preempted before it writes the result back to ram? Thanks.

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  • TortoiseSVN Error: "OPTIONS of 'https://...' could not connect to server (...)"

    - by Zack Peterson
    I'm trying to setup a new computer to synchronize with my SVN repository that's hosted with cvsdude.com. I get this error: Here's what I did (these have worked in the past): Downloaded and installed TortoiseSVN Created a new folder C:\aspwebsite Right-clicked, chose SVN Checkout... Entered the following information, clicked OK: URL of repository: https://<reponame>-svn.cvsdude.com/aspwebsite Checkout directory: C:\aspwebsite Checkout depth: Fully recursive Omit externals: Unchecked Revision: HEAD revision Got TortoiseSVN error: OPTIONS of 'https://<reponame>-svn.cvsdude.com/aspwebsite': could not connect to server (https://<reponame>-svn.cvsdude.com) Rather than getting the error, TortoiseSVN should have asked for my username and password and then downloaded about 90MB. Why can't I checkout from my Subversion repository? Kent Fredric wrote: Either their security certificate has expired, or their hosting is broken/down. Contact CVSDude and ask them whats up. It could also be a timeout, because for me their site is exhaustively slow.. It errors after only a couple seconds. I don't think it's a timeout. Matt wrote: Try visiting https://[redacted]-svn.cvsdude.com/aspwebsite and see what happens. If you can visit it in your browser, you ought to be able to get the files in your SVN client and we can work from there. If it fails, then there's your answer. I can access the site in a web browser.

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  • What is the best way to do scoped finds based on access control rules in Rails?

    - by Rafael Szuminski
    Hi I need to find an elegant solution to scoped finds based on access control rules. Essentially I have the following setup: Users Customers AccessControl - Defines which user has access to another users data Users need to be able to access not just their own customers but also shared customers of other users. Obviously something like a simple association will not work: has_many :customers and neither will this: has_many :customers, :conditions => 'user_id in (1,2,3,4,5)' because the association uses with_scope and the added condition is an AND condition not an OR condition. I also tried overriding the find and method_missing methods with the association extension like this: has_many :customers do def find(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end def method_missing(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end end but the issue is that I don't have access to the user object / parent object inside the extension methods and it just does not work as planned. I also tried default_scope but as posted here before you can't pass a block to a default scope. Anyhow, I know that data segmentation and data access controls have been done before using rails and am wondering if somebody found an elegant way to do it. UPDATE: The AccessControl table has the following layout user_id shared_user_id The customer table has this structure: id account_id user_id first_name last_name Assuming the the following data would be in the AccessControl table: 1 1 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 13 and so on... And the account_id for user 1 is 13 I need to be able to retrieve customers that can be best described with the following sql statement: select * from customers where (account_id = 13 and user_id = null) or (user_id in (1,3,4))

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  • What are CDN Best Practices?

    - by Wild Thing
    Hi, I have recently started using the Rackspace Cloudfiles CDN (Limelight), about which I have some questions: I am using jQuery, jQuery UI and jQuery tools in addition to custom JS code. Also, my site is written in ASP.Net, which means there is some ASP.Net generated JS code. Right now what I have done is that I have combined all of the js (including the jquery code), except the ASP.Net generated JS into one file. I am hosting this on the Rackspace CDN. I am wondering if it would make more sense to just get the jQuery, jQuery UI files from the Google hosted CDN (which I suspect would work very well in serving these files, since they will be in many users' cache already)? This would mean one extra HTTP request, so I'm not sure if it'll help. Right now I have multiple containers for my assets. For example, in Rackspace I have 3 containers: JS, CSS and Images. The URL subdomain for all 3 is different. Will that lead to a performance penalty? Should I just use one container (and thus one domain for the CDN)? Is there a way of having the MS ASP.Net generated JS loaded from MS CDN? Would this have a performance hit as per the above question? Thanks in advance, WT

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  • iPhone Custom CA certificate for an application which uses NSURLConnection?

    - by jr
    I have an application which is communicating with many different sites and each site has its own SSL certificate signed by our own internal CA. Doing this prevents us the need from purchasing SSL certificates for each site (hundreds or thousands) and is more secure then using a wildcard certificate with a shared key on each of those sites. So, basically using a CA certificate is the only way. Right now, I have a mobileprovision file which will install the CA certificate as a profile on the phone. When our iPhone application launches if it gets an SSL Certificate error it redirects to a this mobile provision file via Safari and the user will be prompted to install the CA. The problem is that I am concerned that the Apple AppStore might deny my app for doing this (Just some feedback from other developers at this point), and I wanted to research other ways to accomplish this. Basically what I need to accomplish is allow an SSL connection which will verify against a custom CA certificate which will be embedded in my application. This will make the CA certificate active for only the calls I make. I am using the standard NSURLConnection methods in order to communicate with the service. Is this possible? Can someone show me how to load the CA (what form PEM?) and add it to the list of trusted CA certificates for my application? If that is not possible what other options do I have? Just trusting all certificates isn't really any option, we want to prevent man in the middle attacks and only trust our CA issued certificates. Thanks!

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  • There is a Default instance of form in VB.Net but not in C#, WHY?

    - by Shekhar_Pro
    I'm just curious to know that there is The (Name) property, which represents the name of the Form class.This property is used within the namespace to uniquely identify the class that the Form is an instance of and, in the case of Visual Basic, is used to access the default instance of the form. Now where this Default Instance come from, why can't C# have a equivalent method to this. Also for example to show a form in C# we do something like this: //Only method Form1 frm = new Form1(); frm.Show(); But in VB.Net we have both ways to do it: //'First common method (used slash because editor wouldn't format it properly) Form1.Show(); //'Second method Dim frm as New Form1(); frm.Show(); My question comes from this first method. What is this Form1, is it an instance of Form1 or the Form1 class itself. Now as i mentioned above the Form name is the Default instance in VB.Net. But we also know that Form1 is a class defined in Designer so how can the names be same for both the Instance and class name. If Form1 is Class then there is no (Static\Shared) method named Show(). So where does this method come from. And finally why C# can't have an equivalent of this. If there some mistake in my question Please let me know *I've checked this on stackoverflow, but couldn't find an answer to this.If you do find then please give a link to it.*

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult 'the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) 'do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • Debug website on host from virtual machine

    - by Luchaguate
    I have a Windows 7 machine hosting a Windows 7 virtual machine. I am developing a web application using visual studio 2010 on my host machine. I want to run the application in debug mode and access my localhost server from a browser on the virtual machine. (The purpose of this is to be able to debug an application that uses Windows Authentication using different users without having to log off and on for different users on my host machine...) I am using a bridged connection for the virtual machine. I googled how to solve this problem and most of the threads that I found said that if I was using a bridged connection, I could access the server on the host machine by just entering the IP address of my host machine into the url in the browser of the virtual machine. I have tried some different urls using the IP but none of them have worked. As an example, suppose I run my web application in visual studio on my host machine and its url is http://localhost:62789/MyPage.aspx Assume also that I ran ipconfig in CommandPrompt on my host machine and found out that the IP address for my host machine is xxx.xxx.xxx.x. What url should I enter on the virtual machine to access my web application? Thanks in advance.

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  • How do I prevent a branch from being pushed to another branch in BZR?

    - by cabbey
    We use a dev-test-prod branching scheme with bzr 2. I'd like to setup a bzr hook on the prod branch that will reject a push from the test branch. Looking at the bzr docs, this looks doable, but I'm kinda surprised that my searches don't turn up any one having done it, at least not via any of the keywords I've thought to search by. I'm hoping someone has already gotten this working and can share their path to success. My current thought is to use the pre_change_branch_tip hook to check for the presence of a file on the test branch. If it's present, fail the commit. You may ask, why test for a file, why not just test the branch name? Because I actually need to handle the case where our developers have branched their devel branch, pulled in the shared test branch and are now (erroneously) pushing that test branch to production instead of pushing their feature branch to production. And it seems a billion times easier to look for a file in the new branch than to try to interrogate the sending branch's lineage. So has someone done this? seen it done? or do I get to venture out into the uncharted wasteland that is hook development with bzr? :)

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  • Where should global Application Settings be stored on Windows 7?

    - by Kerido
    Hi everybody, I'm working hard on making my product work seamlessly on Windows 7. The problem is that there is a small set of global (not user-specific) application settings that all users should be able to change. On previous versions I used HKLM\Software\__Company__\__Product__ for that purpose. This allowed Power Users and Administrators to modify the Registry Key and everything worked correctly. Now that Windows Vista and Windows 7 have this UAC feature, by default, even an Administrator cannot access the Key for writing without elevation. A stupid solution would, of course, mean adding requireAdministrator option into the application manifest. But this is really unprofessional since the product itself is extremely far from administration-related tasks. So I need to stay with asInvoker. Another solution could mean programmatic elevation during moments when write access to the Registry Key is required. Let alone the fact that I don't know how to implement that, it's pretty awkward also. It interferes with normal user experience so much that I would hardly consider it an option. What I know should be relatively easy to accomplish is adding write access to the specified Registry Key during installation. I created a separate question for that. This also very similar to accessing a shared file for storing the settings. My feeling is that there must be a way to accomplish what I need, in a way that is secure, straightforward and compatible with all OS'es. Any ideas?

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  • JavaScript Keycode 46 is DEL Function key or (.) period sign?

    - by Omar
    Im writing some logic in JavaScript using jquery, where i must check the input content against a REGEX pattern ex: "^[a-zA-Z0-9_]*$" //Alpha-numeric and _ The logic is almost done, i just have a little problem filtering the function key DEL, my logic goes like this: var FunctionsKey = new Array(8, 9, 13, 16, 35, 36, 37, 39, 46); function keypressValidation(key) { if (config.regexExp != null) { if ($.inArray(key, FunctionsKey) != -1) { return true; } else { var keyChar = String.fromCharCode(key); return RegexCheck(keyChar); } } return true; } If the KeyCode is one of those in the array, i let it pass, if not i get the char and compare it against the REGEX. The problem is: in some Browsers the DEL and '.' (period sign) have the same key Code 46. So is there a better logic to filter the function keys or must i write a condition for that case, maybe removing the 46 from the array and try to convert it to char and if is (.) let it go to the Regex function if not let it pass? The other question will be are there more shared Key Codes in some browsers? EDIT: My suggested solution wont work because it doesn't matter which key the user pressed (DEL or period) i always get (.) as CHAR at least on OPERA and FF =(.

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  • A generic C++ library that provides QtConcurrent functionality?

    - by Lucas
    QtConcurrent is awesome. I'll let the Qt docs speak for themselves: QtConcurrent includes functional programming style APIs for parallel list processing, including a MapReduce and FilterReduce implementation for shared-memory (non-distributed) systems, and classes for managing asynchronous computations in GUI applications. For instance, you give QtConcurrent::map() an iterable sequence and a function that accepts items of the type stored in the sequence, and that function is applied to all the items in the collection. This is done in a multi-threaded manner, with a thread pool equal to the number of logical CPU's on the system. There are plenty of other function in QtConcurrent, like filter(), filteredReduced() etc. The standard CompSci map/reduce functions and the like. I'm totally in love with this, but I'm starting work on an OSS project that will not be using the Qt framework. It's a library, and I don't want to force others to depend on such a large framework like Qt. I'm trying to keep external dependencies to a minimum (it's the decent thing to do). I'm looking for a generic C++ framework that provides me with the same/similar high-level primitives that QtConcurrent does. AFAIK boost has nothing like this (I may be wrong though). boost::thread is very low-level compared to what I'm looking for. I know C# has something very similar with their Parallel Extensions so I know this isn't a Qt-only idea. What do you suggest I use?

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