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• How to get user input before saving a file in Sublime Text

  - by EddieJessup

  I'm making a plugin in Sublime Text that prompts the user for a password to encrypt a file before it's saved. There's a hook in the API that's executed before a save is executed, so my naïve implementation is: class TranscryptEventListener(sublime_plugin.EventListener): def on_pre_save(self, view): # If document is set to encode on save if view.settings().get('ON_SAVE'): self.view = view # Prompt user for password message = "Create a Password:" view.window().show_input_panel(message, "", self.on_done, None, None) def on_done(self, password): self.view.run_command("encode", {password": password}) The problem with this is, by the time the input panel appears for the user to enter their password, the document has already been saved (despite the trigger being 'on_pre_save'). Then once the user hits enter, the document is encrypted fine, but the situation is that there's a saved plaintext file, and a modified buffer filled with the encrypted text. So I need to make Sublime Text wait until the user's input the password before carrying out the save. Is there a way to do this? At the moment I'm just manually re-saving once the encryption has been done: def on_pre_save(self, view, encode=False): if view.settings().get('ON_SAVE') and not view.settings().get('ENCODED'): self.view = view message = "Create a Password:" view.window().show_input_panel(message, "", self.on_done, None, None) def on_done(self, password): self.view.run_command("encode", {password": password}) self.view.settings().set('ENCODED', True) self.view.run_command('save') self.view.settings().set('ENCODED', False) but this is messy and if the user cancels the encryption then the plaintext file gets saved, which isn't ideal. Any thoughts? Edit: I think I could do it cleanly by overriding the default save command. I hoped to do this by using the on_text_command or on_window_command triggers, but it seems that the save command doesn't trigger either of these (maybe it's an application command? But there's no on_application_command). Is there just no way to override the save function?

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• iPad: Detecting External Keyboard

  - by StuartW

  My app uses a UIAccessoryView to provide additional keyboard functionality (such as forward/backward tabs and arrows keys) for the virtual keyboard, but that causes UIKeyboardDidShowNotification to fire even when a physical keyboard is present (the accessory appears at the bottom of the screen). I'd like to check if a physical keyboard is attached when handling UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, to prevent the accessory view from appearing and to prevent my custom view from scrolling up (to make room for the non-existent virtual keyboard). I've tried examining the UIKeyboardFrameEndUserInfoKey key, but it returns a real size for the virtual keyboard, in spite of nothing being displayed. Is there any way to detect the presence of a physical keyboard to prevent this unwanted behaviour? Hmm, the plot thickens. I tried disabling the input accessory by returning nil from the inputAccessoryView property of the Responder object which triggers the keyboard. That suppresses UIKeyboardWillShowNotification and UIKeyboardDidShowNotification when there is a physical keyboard present, but keeps these notifications when there is no such keyboard. All good so far. Then I tried re-enabling inputAccessoryView only after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification had been received. This only fires when a virtual keyboard is needed, so it should allow me to reintroduce the accessory view in those circumstances. Or so I thought. Unfortunately, it seems the OS doesn't check inputAccessoryView after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, so it fails to show the accessory view when it is needed :o( That leaves me with two options: Include the input accessory view, giving extra functionality for virtual keyboard users, but lose the ability to detect a physical keyboard and hence not supporting physical devices; or Exclude the input accessory altogether, preventing most users from accessing the extra keys, but allowing the app to work with a physical keyboard. Not a great choice, so I'm still keen to see if anyone else has addressed this problem!

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• How to detect the error raised on a particular codeline?

  - by infant programmer

  [Please edit the title if you find its not good enough] I have code which triggers XSL-transformation: objMemoryStream = new MemoryStream(); xslTransform = new XslCompiledTransform(); xpathXmlOrig = new XPathDocument("E:\\xslt error\\Simulation_of_error\\input.xml"); xslSettings = new XsltSettings(); xslSettings.EnableScript = true; xslTransform.Load(strXmlQueryTransformPath, xslSettings, new XmlUrlResolver()); xslTransform.Transform(xpathXmlOrig, null, objMemoryStream); objMemoryStream.Position = 0; StreamReader objStreamReader = new StreamReader(objMemoryStream); The method xslTransform.Load(strXmlQueryTransformPath, xslSettings, new XmlUrlResolver()); is a victim, which fails some times due to some time-out issue. I want to detect the failure of this codeline and execute again until it successfully executes! I tried using "TRY CATCH and WHILE methods": bool flag = true; do { try { xslTransform.Load(strXmlQueryTransformPath, xslSettings, new XmlUrlResolver()); flag = false; } catch { flag = true; } } while (flag); but the problem is "error is getting logged in the log file", Well. The whole code is under one more try statement, which I suspect is writing to log. Which is what I don't want... I don't want end user to know about the failure of this codeline. Is there anyway to get it done?

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• x86_64 assembler: only one call per subroutine?

  - by zneak

  Hello everyone, I decided yesterday to start doing assembler. Most of it is okay (well, as okay as assembler can be), but I'm getting some problems with gas. It seems that I can call functions only once. After that, any subsequent call opcode with the same function name will fail. I must be doing something terribly wrong, though I can't see what. Take this small C function for instance: void path_free(path_t path) { if (path == NULL) return; free(((point_list_t*)path)->points); free(path); } I "translated" it to assembler like that: .globl _path_free _path_free: push rbp mov rbp, rsp cmp rdi, 0 jz byebye push rdi mov rdi, qword ptr [rdi] call _free pop rdi sub rsp, 8 call _free byebye: leave ret This triggers the following error for the second call _free: suffix or operands invalid for ``call''. And if I change it to something else, like free2, everything works (until link time, that is). Assembler code gcc -S gave me looks very similar to what I've done (except it's in AT&T syntax), so I'm kind of lost. I'm doing this on Mac OS X under the x86_64 architecture.

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• Laggy interface with NSSearchField hooked up to an NSArrayController via bindings

  - by Simone Manganelli

  So I've got an NSSearchField hooked up directly to an NSArrayController via bindings, attached to the filterPredicate, so that without any code, the user can just type in the NSSearchField and filter the list of objects in the NSArrayController presented to him in the interface (an NSCollectionView, to be specific). The NSSearchField is hooked up to provide live searching, so that the NSCollectionView is filtered instantly as the user types, not after waiting for a short period for the user to stop typing. However, the problem is that this makes the interface really laggy. Typing is delayed significantly, by 0.5-1 seconds, and it seems like the NSCollectionView is trying to animate each and every rearrangement of items for each portion of the search string that the user enters. What I'd like is for the searching to be live, but the typing in the search field to be fluid, and the results to filter as fast as possible. Is there a way to do this via bindings, or will I need to put in some custom code that triggers the filterPredicate on a separate thread? (Note that I've got a custom sorting algorithm set up on the NSArrayController, and removing it seems to help a bit with the laggyness, but not completely.)

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• quartz.net - Can I not add a callback delegate method to JobExecutionContext?

  - by Greg

  Hi, BACKGROUND - I have a synchroisation function within my MainForm class. It gets called manually when the user pushes the SYNC button. I want to also call this synchroisation function when the scheduler triggers too, so effectively want SchedulerJob:IJob.Execute() method to be able to call it. QUESTION - How do I access the MainForm.Sychronization() method from within the SchedulerJob:IJob.Execute() method? I tried creating a delegate for this method in the MainForm class and getting it added via jobDetail.JobDataMap. However when I try I'm not sure that JobDataMap has a method to pull out a Delegate type??? private void Schedule(MainForm.SyncDelegate _syncNow) { var jobDetail = new JobDetail("MainJob", null, typeof(SchedulerJob)); jobDetail.JobDataMap["CallbackMethod"] = _syncNow; // Trigger Setup var trigger = new CronTrigger("MainTrigger"); string expression = GetCronExpression(); trigger.CronExpressionString = expression; trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.Now.ToUniversalTime(); // Schedule Job & Trigger _scheduler.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } public class SchedulerJob : IJob { public SchedulerJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { JobDataMap dataMap = context.JobDetail.JobDataMap; MainForm.SyncDelegate CallbackFunction = dataMap.getDelegate["CallbackMethod"]; **// THIS METHOD DOESN'T EXIST - getDelegate()** CallbackFunction(); } } thanks

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• When using Clipboard, Toolkit and Transferable, I get an error objecting to image width and height

  - by Mike King

  When I run the following code it triggers an error message. The error message is shown below the code. What code changes, or changes to the image file, are needed to fix this error? Help will be appreciated. import java.awt.*; import java.awt.datatransfer.*; public class LoadToClipboard { public static void main( String [] args ) { Toolkit tolkit = Toolkit.getDefaultToolkit(); Clipboard clip = tolkit.getSystemClipboard(); clip.setContents( new ImageSelection( tolkit.getImage("StackOverflowLogo.png")) , null ); } } class ImageSelection implements Transferable { private Image image; public ImageSelection(Image image) { this.image = image; } // Returns supported flavors public DataFlavor[] getTransferDataFlavors() { return new DataFlavor[]{DataFlavor.imageFlavor}; } // Returns true if flavor is supported public boolean isDataFlavorSupported(DataFlavor flavor) { return DataFlavor.imageFlavor.equals(flavor); } // Returns image public Object getTransferData(DataFlavor flavor) throws UnsupportedFlavorException { if (!DataFlavor.imageFlavor.equals(flavor)) { throw new UnsupportedFlavorException(flavor); } return image; } } Exception in thread "main" java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Width (-1) and height (-1) cannot be <= 0 at java.awt.image.DirectColorModel.createCompatibleWritableRaster(DirectColorModel.java:999) at sun.awt.datatransfer.DataTransferer.imageToStandardBytes(DataTransferer.java:1994) at sun.awt.windows.WDataTransferer.imageToPlatformBytes(WDataTransferer.java:267) at sun.awt.datatransfer.DataTransferer.translateTransferable(DataTransferer.java:1123) at sun.awt.windows.WDataTransferer.translateTransferable(WDataTransferer.java:163) at sun.awt.windows.WClipboard.setContentsNative(WClipboard.java:73) at sun.awt.datatransfer.SunClipboard.setContents(SunClipboard.java:93) at automateSignature.LoadToClipboard.main(LoadToClipboard.java:8) I have tried to find a place in the code where width and height can be specified, but have not succeeded. I also examined the properties of the jpg file and the w and h are specified.enter code here

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• javascript: waiting for an iframe page to load before writing to it (but not from the page that's tr

  - by Bill Dawes

  Apologies if this has been answered elsewhere, but I haven't been able to find it referenced. (Probably because nobody else would want to do such a daft thing, I admit). So, I have a page with three iframes in it. An event on one triggers a javascript function which loads new pages into the other two iframes; ['topright'] and ['bottomright']. However, javascript in the page that is being loaded into iframe 'topright' then needs to send information to elements in the 'bottomright' iframe. window.frames['bottomright'].document.subform.ID_client = client; etc But this will only work if the page has fully loaded into the bottomright frame. So what would be the most efficient way for that code in the 'topright' iframe to check and ensure that that form element in the bottomright frame is actually available to write to, before it does write to it? Bearing in mind that the page load has NOT been triggered from the topright frame, so I can't simply use an onLoad function. (I know this probably sounds like a hideously tortuous route for getting data from one page to another, but that's another story. The client is always right, etc...:-))

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• activemessaging with stomp and activemq.prefetchSize=1

  - by Clint Miller

  I have a situation where I have a single activemq broker with 2 queues, Q1 and Q2. I have two ruby-based consumers using activemessaging. Let's call them C1 and C2. Both consumers subscribe to each queue. I'm setting activemq.prefetchSize=1 when subscribing to each queue. I'm also setting ack=client. Consider the following sequence of events: 1) A message that triggers a long-running job is published to queue Q1. Call this M1. 2) M1 is dispatched to consumer C1, kicking off a long operation. 3) Two messages that trigger short jobs are published to queue Q2. Call these M2 and M3. 4) M2 is dispatched to C2 which quickly runs the short job. 5) M3 is dispatched to C1, even though C1 is still running M1. It's able to dispatch to C1 because prefetchSize=1 is set on the queue subscription, not on the connection. So the fact that a Q1 message has already been dispatched doesn't stop one Q2 message from being dispatched. Since activemessaging consumers are single-threaded, the net result is that M3 sits and waits on C1 for a long time until C1 finishes processing M1. So, M3 is not processed for a long time, despite the fact that consumer C2 is sitting idle (since it quickly finishes with message M2). Essentially, whenever a long Q1 job is run and then a whole bunch of short Q2 jobs are created, exactly one of the short Q2 jobs gets stuck on a consumer waiting for the long Q1 job to finish. Is there a way to set prefetchSize at the connection level rather than at the subscription level? I really don't want any messages dispatched to C1 while it is processing M1. The other alternative is that I could create a consumer dedicated to processing Q1 and then have other consumers dedicated to processing Q2. But, I'd rather not do that since Q1 messages are infrequent--Q1's dedicated consumers would sit idle most of the day tying up memory.

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• How can I convert seconds to minutes in jQuery while updating an element with the current time?

  - by pghtech

  So I see a number of ways to display allot of seconds in a (static) hr/min/sec. However, I am trying to produce a visual count down timer: $('#someelement').html(minCounter + ' minutes ' + ((secCounter == 0) ? '' : (secCounter + ' seconds'))); My counter is reduced inside a SetInterval that triggers ever 1 second: //....... var counter = redirectTimer; jQuery('#WarningDialogMsg').html(minCounter + ' minutes ' + ((secCounter == 0) ? '' : (secCounter + ' seconds'))); //........ SetInternval( function() { counter -= 1; secCounter = Math.floor(counter % 60); minCounter = Math.floor(counter / 60); //....... $('#someelement').html(minCounter + ' minutes ' + ((secCounter == 0) ? '' : (secCounter + ' seconds'))); }, 1000) It is a two minute counter but I don't want to display 120 seconds. I want to display 1 : 59 (and counting down). I have managed to get it to work using the above, but my main question is: is there a more elegant way to accomplish the above? (note: I am redirecting once "counter == 0").

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• Why is my .htaccess file redirecting to full server path instead of relative path?

  - by death.au

  I've never had a problem with cakePHP before, but something's odd about this server and is causing the redirects in the .htaccess files to behave oddly. CakePHP uses mod_rewrite in .htaccess files to redirect requests to its own webroot folder. The problem is that the redirects are listing the wrong path and causing a 404 error. My CakePHP application, which is stored in the listings directory, has a .htaccess file as follows: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^$ app/webroot/ [R=301,L] RewriteRule (.*) app/webroot/$1 [R=301,L] </IfModule> (*note that the R=301 causes an external redirect so we can see what is going on from our end. It should really omit this flag and do the redirect internally, transparent to end-users) This is supposed to redirect any request from http://hostname.com/~username/listings/ to http://hostname.com/~username/listings/app/webroot/ However, rather than simply adding “app/webroot/” to the end as it is supposed to, it is adding the full server path ( /home/username/public_html/listings/app/webroot/ ) resulting in the final URL http://hostname.com/home/username/public_html/listings/app/webroot/ which is obviously incorrect and triggers a 404 error. The hosting is on a shared hosting account, so that limits what I can do with the settings. I've never seen this happen before, and I'm thinking it's something wrong from the hosting side of things, but if anyone has some helpful suggestions then I can put them to the hosting company as well.

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• MySQL default value based on view

  - by Jake

  Basically I have a bunch of views based on a simple discriminator column (eg. CREATE VIEW tablename AS SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE discrcolumn = "discriminator value"). Upon inserting a new row into this view, it should insert "discriminator value" into discrcolumn. I tried this, but apparently MySQL doesn't figure this out itself, as it throws an error "Field of view viewname underlying table does not have a default value". The discriminator column is set to NOT NULL of course. How do I mend this? Perhaps a pre-insert trigger? UPDATE: Triggers won't work on views, see below comment. Would it work to create a trigger on the table which uses a variable, and set that variable at establishing the connection? For each connection the value of that variable would be the same, but it could differ from other connections. EDIT: This appears to work... Setup: CREATE TRIGGER insert_[tablename] BEFORE INSERT ON [tablename] FOR EACH ROW SET NEW.[discrcolumn] = @variable Runtime: SET @variable = [descrvalue]; INSERT INTO [viewname] ([columnlist]) VALUES ([values]);

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• Inconsistent behavior working with "Flex on Rails" example.

  - by kmontgom

  I'm experimenting with Flex and Rails right now (Rails is cool). I'm following the examples in the book "Flex on Rails", and I'm getting some puzzling and inconsistent behavior. Heres the Flex MXML: <mx:HTTPService id="index" url="http://localhost:3000/people.xml" resultFormat="e4x" /> <mx:DataGrid dataProvider="{index.lastResult.person}" width="100%" height="100%"> <mx:columns> <mx:DataGridColumn headerText="First Name" dataField="first-name"/> <mx:DataGridColumn headerText="Last Name" dataField="last-name"/> </mx:columns> </mx:DataGrid> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.Alert; private function main():void { Alert.show( "In main()" ); } ]]> </mx:Script> When I run the app from my IDE (Amythyst beta, also cool), the DataGrid appears, but is not populated. The Alert.show() also triggers. When I go out to a web browser and manually enter the url (http://localhost:3000/people.xml), the Mongrel console shows the request coming through and the browser shows the web response. No exceptions or other error messages occur. Whats the difference? Do I need to alter some OS setting? I'm using Win7 on an x64 machine.

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• How to (unit-)test data intensive PL/SQL application

  - by doom2.wad

  Our team is willing to unit-test a new code written under a running project extending an existing huge Oracle system. The system is written solely in PL/SQL, consists of thousands of tables, hundreds of stored procedures packages, mostly getting data from tables and/or inserting/updating other data. Our extension is not an exception. Most functions return data from a quite complex SELECT statementa over many mutually bound tables (with a little added logic before returning them) or make transformation from one complicated data structure to another (complicated in another way). What is the best approach to unit-test such code? There are no unit tests for existing code base. To make things worse, only packages, triggers and views are source-controlled, table structures (including "alter table" stuff and necessary data transformations are deployed via channel other than version control). There is no way to change this within our project's scope. Maintaining testing data set seems to be impossible since there is new code deployed to the production environment on weekly basis, usually without prior notice, often changing data structure (add a column here, remove one there). I'd be glad for any suggestion or reference to help us. Some team members tend to be tired by figuring out how to even start for our experience with unit-testing does not cover PL/SQL data intensive legacy systems (only those "from-the-book" greenfield Java projects).

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• Some specific questions about object oriented and MVC design.

  - by Samn

  I have two objects, Users and Mail. Users create Mail objects and send them to other users. If I wanted to get all mail for a User, I could create a method like GetMail() that would return an array of Mail objects owned by that User. But if I wanted to get all mail across the system, what "type" of object would be responsible for that? To solve this problem, I usually create a Manager, which is an object responsible for dealing with a collection of a particular type of object. MailManager deals with collections of Mail objects. GetMailForUser() is one method, GetAllMail() is another method. The User objects invokes the MailManager and executes GetMailForUser(me). Is this stupid? When a user executes the controller CreateMail, a new instance of the Mail object is created. The Mail object, seeing it is creating a new Mail of type 'sent', decides to go ahead and create a second Mail object for the recipient, of type 'received'. Creating one Mail object triggers the creation of a second Mail object. Is this stupid? Should the controller have created both Mail objects, or just the first 'sent' one? When two Users are friends, the association is stored in a table of Relationships. I use a simple object for Relationships. A RelationshipManager has a method called GetFriendsForUser(). The User object has a method GetFriends(), which invokes the RelationshipManager. Is this stupid?

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• Using hashing to group similar records

  - by Neil Dobson

  I work for a fulfillment company and we have to pack and ship many orders from our warehouse to customers. To improve efficiency we would like to group identical orders and pack these in the most optimum way. By identical I mean having the same number of order lines containing the same SKUs and same order quantities. To achieve this I was thinking about hashing each order. We can then group by hash to quickly see which orders are the same. We are moving from an Access database to a PostgreSQL database and we have .NET based systems for data loading and general order processing systems, so we can either do the hashing during the data loading or hand this task over to the DB. My question firstly is should the hashing be managed by DB, possibly using triggers, or should the hash be created on-the-fly using a view or something? And secondly would it be best to calculate a hash for each order line and then to combine these to find an order-level hash for grouping, or should I just use a trigger for all CRUD operations on the order lines table which re-calculates a single hash for the entire order and store the value in the orders table? TIA

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• Set button content in a label (custom control)

  - by user1881207

  Instead of voting negative this question, answer to tell me what's wrong! I want to set the Button Content in a label in the custom control, because when I use it, the Content property is not visible and the button is empty (no text). <Button x:Class="WpfApplication1.UserControl1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="35" d:DesignWidth="273" Content="Button"> <Button.Template> <ControlTemplate> <Grid> <Rectangle Name="rGridBack" StrokeThickness="1"> <Rectangle.Fill> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF4D4D4D" Offset="1" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF404040" Offset="0" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Rectangle.Fill> <Rectangle.Stroke> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF4F4F4F" Offset="0" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF5B5B5B" Offset="1" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Rectangle.Stroke> </Rectangle> <Rectangle Fill="#FF1E1E1E" Margin="1,1,1,1" Name="rThickness" /> <Rectangle Margin="2,2,2,2" Name="rGridTop" StrokeThickness="1"> <Rectangle.Fill> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF68686C" Offset="0" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF474747" Offset="1" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Rectangle.Fill> <Rectangle.Stroke> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF7F7F7F" Offset="0" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF575757" Offset="1" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Rectangle.Stroke> </Rectangle> <!--This label is where I want to set the Button.Content property--> <Label FontWeight="Normal" Foreground="White" HorizontalContentAlignment="Center" Name="tblckStep1Desc" Padding="0" VerticalContentAlignment="Center"> <Label.Effect> <DropShadowEffect BlurRadius="2" Color="Black" Direction="330" Opacity="0.7" ShadowDepth="1.5" /> </Label.Effect> </Label> </Grid> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Button.Content" Value=""> <Setter Property="Content" TargetName="tblckStep1Desc"> </Setter> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="UIElement.IsMouseOver" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Shape.Fill" TargetName="rGridTop"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF838383" Offset="0" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF545454" Offset="1" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Setter Property="Shape.Stroke" TargetName="rGridTop"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF595959" Offset="1" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF929292" Offset="0" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Setter Property="Shape.Stroke" TargetName="rGridBack"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF414141" Offset="0" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF565656" Offset="1" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Setter Property="Shape.Fill" TargetName="rThickness"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF181818" Offset="1" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF181818" Offset="0" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="UIElement.IsEnabled" Value="False"> <Setter Property="Shape.Fill" TargetName="rGridTop"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF68686C" Offset="0" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF474747" Offset="1" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Setter Property="Shape.Stroke" TargetName="rGridTop"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF7F7F7F" Offset="0" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF575757" Offset="1" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Setter Property="Shape.Stroke" TargetName="rGridBack"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF4F4F4F" Offset="0" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF5B5B5B" Offset="1" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Setter Property="Shape.Fill" TargetName="rThickness"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF1E1E1E" Offset="1" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF1E1E1E" Offset="0" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Setter Property="Control.Foreground" TargetName="tblckStep1Desc"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF898989" Offset="1" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF898989" Offset="0" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="ButtonBase.IsPressed" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Shape.Fill" TargetName="rGridTop"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF313131" Offset="1" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF2E2E2E" Offset="0" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Setter Property="Shape.Stroke" TargetName="rGridTop"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF1F1F1F" Offset="1" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF1F1F1F" Offset="0" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Setter Property="Shape.Stroke" TargetName="rGridBack"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF414141" Offset="1" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF565656" Offset="0" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Setter Property="Shape.Fill" TargetName="rThickness"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF0C0C0C" Offset="1" /> <GradientStop Color="#FF0C0C0C" Offset="0" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> </ControlTemplate> </Button.Template> The button is based on Adobe CS5 suite on dialog forms, because a lot of code.

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• Which pdf elements could cause crashes?

  - by Felixyz

  This is a very general question but it's based on a specific problem. I've created a pdf reader app for the iPad and it works fine except for certain pdf pages which always crash the app. We now found out that the very same pages cause Safari to crash as well, so as I had started to suspect the problem is somewhere in Apple's pdf rendering code. From what I have been able to see, the crashing pages cause the rendering libraries to start allocating memory like mad until the app is killed. I have nothing else to help me pinpoint what triggers this process. It doesn't necessarily happen with the largest documents, or the ones with the most shapes. In fact, we haven't found any parameter that helps us predict which pages will crash and which not. Now we just discovered that running the pages through a consumer program that lets you merge docs gets rid of the problem, but I haven't been able to detect which attribute or element it is that is the key. Changing documents by hand is also not an option for us in the long run. We need to run an automated process on our server. I'm hoping someone with deeper knowledge about the pdf file format would be able to point me in a reasonable direction to look for document features that could cause this kind of behavior. All I've found so far is something about JBIG2 images, and I don't think we have any of those.

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• After Delete Trigger Fires Only After Delete?

  - by Brandi

  I thought "after delete" meant that the trigger is not fired until after the delete has already taken place, but here is my situation... I made 3, nearly identical SQL CLR after delete triggers in C#, which worked beautifully for about a month. Suddenly, one of the three stopped working while an automated delete tool was run on it. By stopped working, I mean, records could not be deleted from the table via client software. Disabling the trigger caused deletes to be allowed, but re-enabling it interfered with the ability to delete. So my question is 'how can this be the case?' Is it possible the tool used on it futzed up the memory? It seems like even if the trigger threw an exception, if it is AFTER delete, shouldn't the records be gone? All the trigger looks like is this: ALTER TRIGGER [sysdba].[AccountTrigger] ON [sysdba].[ACCOUNT] AFTER DELETE AS EXTERNAL NAME [SQL_IO].[SQL_IO.WriteFunctions].[AccountTrigger] GO The CLR trigger does one select and one insert into another database. I don't yet know if there are any errors from SQL Server Mgmt Studio, but will update the question after I find out.

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• When does the call() method get called in a Java Executor using Callable objects?

  - by MalcomTucker

  This is some sample code from an example. What I need to know is when call() gets called on the callable? What triggers it? public class CallableExample { public static class WordLengthCallable implements Callable { private String word; public WordLengthCallable(String word) { this.word = word; } public Integer call() { return Integer.valueOf(word.length()); } } public static void main(String args[]) throws Exception { ExecutorService pool = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(3); Set<Future<Integer>> set = new HashSet<Future<Integer>>(); for (String word: args) { Callable<Integer> callable = new WordLengthCallable(word); Future<Integer> future = pool.submit(callable); //**DOES THIS CALL call()?** set.add(future); } int sum = 0; for (Future<Integer> future : set) { sum += future.get();//**OR DOES THIS CALL call()?** } System.out.printf("The sum of lengths is %s%n", sum); System.exit(sum); } }

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• Stored Procedures In Source Control - Automate Build/Deployment Process

  - by Alex

  My company provides a large .NET service-oriented solution. The services layer interact with a T-SQL back-end consisting of hundreds of tables and stored procedures. Our C# code is in version-control (SVN) but our stored procedures and schema are not. After much lobbying of expedient upper-management, I was allowed to review our (non-existent) build/deployment process to accomplish the following goals: Place schema and stored procedures under source-control. Automate the build/deployment process. I would like to proceed per the accepted answer's strategy in this post but have additional questions: I would like to use Hudson as my build server. Is this a reasonable choice for a C#/SQL solution? What better alternatives should I explore? Assuming I have all triggers, stored-procedures, schema, etc... under source control, and that they are scripted to individual files, how do I generate a build script which will take into account dependencies/references between these items? (SQL Server does this automatically, but it generates one giant script) What does the workflow of performing an update at the client look like? i.e. I have to keep existing table data. How do I roll-back schema changes? I am the only programmer. Several other pseudo-technical staff like to make changes directly inside SQL Management Studio. Is it realistic to expect others to adhere to this solution -- how can I enforce this? Thank you in advance for your help.

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• Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

  - by wahrhaft

  I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

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• Checking if a console application is still running using the Process class

  - by Ced

  I'm making an application that will monitor the state of another process and restart it when it stops responding, exits, or throws an error. However, I'm having trouble to make it reliably check if the process (Being a C++ Console window) has stopped responding. My code looks like this: public void monitorserver() { while (true) { server.StartInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(textbox_srcdsexe.Text, startstring); server.Start(); log("server started"); log("Monitor started."); while (server.Responding) { if (server.HasExited) { log("server exitted, Restarting."); break; } log("server is running: " + server.Responding.ToString()); Thread.Sleep(1000); } log("Server stopped responding, terminating.."); try { server.Kill(); } catch (Exception) { } } } The application I'm monitoring is Valve's Source Dedicated Server, running Garry's Mod, and I'm over stressing the physics engine to simulate it stopping responding. However, this never triggers the process class recognizing it as 'stopped responding'. I know there are ways to directly query the source server using their own protocol, but i'd like to keep it simple and universal (So that i can maybe use it for different applications in the future). Any help appreciated

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• Does className exist in Mootools ?

  - by anna mae

  Hi, I want to update this very simple JS to Mootools 1.2 and it's not easy. This function : function changeclass(x){ document.getElementById("content").className = "ziclass0"; document.getElementById("content").className = "ziclass" + x; } is triggered in the DOM by : <div id="someclass"> a href="javascript: changeclass(0)">Unstyled</a a href="javascript: changeclass(1)">link one</a a href="javascript: changeclass(2)">link two</a a href="javascript: changeclass(3)">link three</a </div> to call the according CSS classes like : .ziclass1 h1{ color: rgb(142,11,0); font-family: Verdana; font-size: 2.5em; letter-spacing: 0.1em; } and changes the layout accordingly in : <div id="content" class="ziclass3"> ... </div> I know I can add an event to the triggers like : $(#someclass.each(function(element,index) { element.addEvent('click', function(){ //some code }); But, how do I get #content class classname ? Through an array ? I am a bit confused here. I'd be really grateful for any help to set me on the right track

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• Class initialization and synchronized class method

  - by nybon

  Hi there, In my application, there is a class like below: public class Client { public synchronized static print() { System.out.println("hello"); } static { doSomething(); // which will take some time to complete } } This class will be used in a multi thread environment, many threads may call the Client.print() method simultaneously. I wonder if there is any chance that thread-1 triggers the class initialization, and before the class initialization complete, thread-2 enters into print method and print out the "hello" string? I see this behavior in a production system (64 bit JVM + Windows 2008R2), however, I cannot reproduce this behavior with a simple program in any environments. In Java language spec, section 12.4.1 (http://java.sun.com/docs/books/jls/second_edition/html/execution.doc.html), it says: A class or interface type T will be initialized immediately before the first occurrence of any one of the following: T is a class and an instance of T is created. T is a class and a static method declared by T is invoked. A static field declared by T is assigned. A static field declared by T is used and the reference to the field is not a compile-time constant (§15.28). References to compile-time constants must be resolved at compile time to a copy of the compile-time constant value, so uses of such a field never cause initialization. According to this paragraph, the class initialization will take place before the invocation of the static method, however, it is not clear if the class initialization need to be completed before the invocation of the static method. JVM should mandate the completion of class initialization before entering its static method according to my intuition, and some of my experiment supports my guess. However, I did see the opposite behavior in another environment. Can someone shed me some light on this? Any help is appreciated, thanks.

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