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  • How to generate a key for a group entity?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'm trying to make a group entity. Something like: class User { } class UserColor { } ... Key key = new KeyFactory.Builder( User.class.getSimpleName(), username). .addChild(UserColor.class.getSimpleName(), ???).getKey(); I know the unique username up-front to use for the key of the User object. But I just want app engine to generate a random unique value for the key value of the UserColor instance. I think this is described here, but I don't understand their wording: http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/datastore/transactions.html To create an object with a system-generated numeric ID and an entity group parent, you must use an entity group parent key field (such as customerKey, above). Assign the key of the parent to the parent key field, then leave the object's key field set to null. When the object is saved, the datastore populates the key field with the complete key, including the entity group parent. and this is their example: @Persistent @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.parent-pk", value="true") private Key customerKey; but I don't understand - should UserColor look like this then?: class UserColor { @Persistent @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.parent-pk", value="true") private Key mKeyParent; @Primary private Key mKey; // leave null } ... Key keyParent = new KeyFactory.Builder( User.class.getSimpleName(), username); UserColor uc = new UserColor(); uc.setKeyParent(keyParent); pm.makePersistent(uc); // now generated for me automatically? is that correct? Using this method, I should be able to use a User and a UserColor object in a transaction together, right? Thanks

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  • How to record different authentication types (username / password vs token based) in audit log

    - by RM
    I have two types of users for my system, normal human users with a username / password, and delegation authorized accounts through OAuth (i.e. using a token identifier). The information that is stored for each is quite different, and are managed by different subsytems. They do however interact with the same tables / data within the system, so I need to maintain the audit trail regardless of whether human user, or token-based user modified the data. My solution at the moment is to have a table called something like AuditableIdentity, and then have the two types inheriting off that table (either in the single table, or as two seperate tables with 1 to 1 PK with AuditableIdentity. All operations would use the common AuditableIdentity PK for CreatedBy, ModifiedBy etc columns. There isn't any FK constraint on the audit columns, so any text can go in there, but I want an easy way to easily determine whether it was a human or system that made the change, and joining to the one AuditableIdentity table seems like a clean way to do that? Is there a best practice for this scenario? Is this an appropriate way of approaching the problem - or would you not bother with the common table and just rely on joins (to the two seperate un-related user / token tables) later to determine which user type matches which audit records?

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  • Data Modeling of Entity with Attributes

    - by StackOverflowNewbie
    I'm storing some very basic information "data sources" coming into my application. These data sources can be in the form of a document (e.g. PDF, etc.), audio (e.g. MP3, etc.) or video (e.g. AVI, etc.). Say, for example, I am only interested in the filename of the data source. Thus, I have the following table: DataSource Id (PK) Filename For each data source, I also need to store some of its attributes. Example for a PDF would be "numbe of pages." Example for audio would be "bit rate." Example for video would be "duration." Each DataSource will have different requirements for the attributes that need to be stored. So, I have modeled "data source attribute" this way: DataSourceAttribute Id (PK) DataSourceId (FK) Name Value Thus, I would have records like these: DataSource->Id = 1 DataSource->Filename = 'mydoc.pdf' DataSource->Id = 2 DataSource->Filename = 'mysong.mp3' DataSource->Id = 3 DataSource->Filename = 'myvideo.avi' DataSourceAttribute->Id = 1 DataSourceAttribute->DataSourceId = 1 DataSourceAttribute->Name = 'TotalPages' DataSourceAttribute->Value = '10' DataSourceAttribute->Id = 2 DataSourceAttribute->DataSourceId = 2 DataSourceAttribute->Name = 'BitRate' DataSourceAttribute->Value '16' DataSourceAttribute->Id = 3 DataSourceAttribute->DataSourceId = 3 DataSourceAttribute->Name = 'Duration' DataSourceAttribute->Value = '1:32' My problem is that this doesn't seem to scale. For example, say I need to query for all the PDF documents along with thier total number of pages: Filename, TotalPages 'mydoc.pdf', '10' 'myotherdoc.pdf', '23' ... The JOINs needed to produce the above result is just too costly. How should I address this problem?

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  • How to represent and insert into an ordered list in SQL?

    - by Travis
    I want to represent the list "hi", "hello", "goodbye", "good day", "howdy" (with that order), in a SQL table: pk | i | val ------------ 1 | 0 | hi 0 | 2 | hello 2 | 3 | goodbye 3 | 4 | good day 5 | 6 | howdy 'pk' is the primary key column. Disregard its values. 'i' is the "index" that defines that order of the values in the 'val' column. It is only used to establish the order and the values are otherwise unimportant. The problem I'm having is with inserting values into the list while maintaining the order. For example, if I want to insert "hey" and I want it to appear between "hello" and "goodbye", then I have to shift the 'i' values of "goodbye" and "good day" (but preferably not "howdy") to make room for the new entry. So, is there a standard SQL pattern to do the shift operation, but only shift the elements that are necessary? (Note that a simple "UPDATE table SET i=i+1 WHERE i=3" doesn't work, because it violates the uniqueness constraint on 'i', and also it updates the "howdy" row unnecessarily.) Or, is there a better way to represent the ordered list? I suppose you could make 'i' a floating point value and choose values between, but then you have to have a separate rebalancing operation when no such value exists. Or, is there some standard algorithm for generating string values between arbitrary other strings, if I were to make 'i' a varchar? Or should I just represent it as a linked list? I was avoiding that because I'd like to also be able to do a SELECT .. ORDER BY to get all the elements in order.

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  • SQL Server search filter and order by performance issues

    - by John Leidegren
    We have a table value function that returns a list of people you may access, and we have a relation between a search and a person called search result. What we want to do is that wan't to select all people from the search and present them. The query looks like this SELECT qm.PersonID, p.FullName FROM QueryMembership qm INNER JOIN dbo.GetPersonAccess(1) ON GetPersonAccess.PersonID = qm.PersonID INNER JOIN Person p ON p.PersonID = qm.PersonID WHERE qm.QueryID = 1234 There are only 25 rows with QueryID=1234 but there are almost 5 million rows total in the QueryMembership table. The person table has about 40K people in it. QueryID is not a PK, but it is an index. The query plan tells me 97% of the total cost is spent doing "Key Lookup" witht the seek predicate. QueryMembershipID = Scalar Operator (QueryMembership.QueryMembershipID as QM.QueryMembershipID) Why is the PK in there when it's not used in the query at all? and why is it taking so long time? The number of people total 25, with the index, this should be a table scan for all the QueryMembership rows that have QueryID=1234 and then a JOIN on the 25 people that exists in the table value function. Which btw only have to be evaluated once and completes in less than 1 second.

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  • MVC 2 - Name Attributes on HTML Input Field when using Parent/Child Entities

    - by Click Ahead
    Hi All, I'm pretty new to MVC 2 using the Entity Framework. I have two tables Company {ID int identity PK,Name nvarchar} and User {ID int identity PK,UserName nvarchar,CompanyID int FK}. A Foreign Key exists between User and Company. I generated my ADO.NET Entity Data Model, a Controller and a view to insert a record. My HTML form has the fields Company and UserName and the idea is when I click save a Company and User is inserted into the database. Sounds straight forward right! My question is as follows: I created a strongly-typed view derived from my 'User' entity. I'm using the the html helper Html.TextBoxFor(model = model.Organisation.Name) but the html name attribute for this input field is 'Organisation.Name'. My problem with this is that the dot throws up all sorts of issues in JQuery, which sees this as a property. If I want to change the name I read that I can use DataAnnotations but because I used the Entity Designer this involves using Buddy Classes. Seems like a bit of overkill just to change the html name attribute on this input field. Am I approaching this the right way or am I missing something here? Thanks for the help !

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  • django: How to make one form from multiple models containing foreignkeys

    - by Tim
    I am trying to make a form on one page that uses multiple models. The models reference each other. I am having trouble getting the form to validate because I cant figure out how to get the id of two of the models used in the form into the form to validate it. I used a hidden key in the template but I cant figure out how to make it work in the views My code is below: views: def the_view(request, a_id,): if request.method == 'POST': b_form= BForm(request.POST) c_form =CForm(request.POST) print "post" if b_form.is_valid() and c_form.is_valid(): print "valid" b_form.save() c_form.save() return HttpResponseRedirect(reverse('myproj.pro.views.this_page')) else: b_form= BForm() c_form = CForm() b_ide = B.objects.get(pk=request.b_id) id_of_a = A.objects.get(pk=a_id) return render_to_response('myproj/a/c.html', {'b_form':b_form, 'c_form':c_form, 'id_of_a':id_of_a, 'b_id':b_ide }) models class A(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) classe = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) def __str__(self): return self.name class B(models.Model): aid = models.ForeignKey(A, null=True, blank=True) number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) other_number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) class C(models.Model): bid = models.ForeignKey(B, null=False, blank=False) field_name = models.CharField(max_length=15) field_value = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) forms from mappamundi.mappa.models import A, B, C class BForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = B exclude = ('aid',) class CForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = C exclude = ('bid',) B has a foreign key reference to A, C has a foreign key reference to B. Since the models are related, I want to have the forms for them on one page, 1 submit button. Since I need to fill out fields for the forms for B and C & I dont want to select the id of B from a drop down list, I need to somehow get the id of the B form into the form so it will validate. I have a hidden field in the template, I just need to figure how to do it in the views

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  • using dummy row with NOT NULL to solve DEFAULT NULL

    - by Tony38
    I know having DEFAULT NULLS is not a good practice but I have many optional lookup values which are FK in the system so to solve this issue here is what i am doing: I use NOT NULL for every FK / lookup colunms. I have the first row in every lookup table which is PK id = 1 as a dummy row with just "none" in all the columns. This way I can use NOT NULL in my schema and if needed reference to the none row values PK =1 for FKs which do not have any lookup value. Is this a good design or any other work arounds? EDIT: I have: Neighborhood table Postal table. Every neighborhood has a city, so the FK can be NOT NULL. But not every postal code belongs to a neighborhood. Some do, some don't depending on the country. So if i use NOT NULL for the FK between postal and neighborhood then I will be screwed as there has to be some value entered. So what i am doing in essence is: have a row in every table to be a dummy row just to link the FKs. This way row one in neighborhood table will be: n_id = 1 name =none etc... In postal table I can have: postal_code = 3456A3 FK (city) = Moscow FK (neighborhood_id)=1 as a NOT NULL. If I don't have a dummy row in the neighborhood lookup table then I have to declare FK (neighborhood_id) as a Default null column and store blanks in the table. This is an example but there is a huge number of values which will have blanks then in many tables.

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  • Change Visual studio 2010 color palette

    - by Vokinneberg
    I really like Visual studio. I think it is awesome IDE ever been made for developers. But color scheme in new VS2010 is really ugly, so the first thing i'd like to do after install is to change its color palette. I googled how to do this and found VS extension by Matthew Johnson [MSFT]. If you know another way to change color palette in VS2010, please let me know.

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  • Copying a subset of data to an empty database with the same schema

    - by user193655
    I would like to export part of a database full of data to an empty database. Both databases has the same schema. I want to maintain referential integrity. To simplify my cases it is like this: MainTable has the following fields: 1) MainID integer PK 2) Description varchar(50) 3) ForeignKey integer FK to MainID of SecondaryTable SecondaryTable has the following fields: 4) MainID integer PK (referenced by (3)) 5) AnotherDescription varchar(50) The goal I'm trying to accomplish is "export all records from MainTable using a WHERE condition", for example all records where MainID < 100. To do it manually I shuold first export all data from SecondaryTable contained in this select: select * from SecondaryTable ST outer join PrimaryTable PT on ST.MainID=PT.MainID then export the needed records from MainTable: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100. This is manual, ok. Of course my case is much much much omre complex, I have 200+ tables, so donig it manually is painful/impossible, I have many cascading FKs. Is there a way to force the copy of main table only "enforcing referntial integrity". so that my query is something like: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100 WITH "COPYING ALL FK sources" In this cases also the field (5) will be copied. ====================================================== Is there a syntax or a tool to do this? Table per table I'd like to insert conditions (like MainID <100 is only for MainTable, but I have also other tables).

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  • How to use NSPredicate with Key-Paths (and ALL)?

    - by Konstantin
    Taking example from Apple docs using predicates with Key-Paths NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"ANY employees.firstName like 'Matthew'"]; Now, assume the employees has a bool field "isGood". The question: how do I select just those entities, having ALL of employees isGood==TRUE? I tried but failed with following predicates: "!(ANY employees.isGood != TRUE)" "(ALL employees.isGood == TRUE)" // Would be perfect, but throws an exception..

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  • Python 2.6 + PIL + Google App Engine issue

    - by mswallace
    I am using OS X 1.6 snow leopard and I successfully got PIL installed. I am able to open terminal and type import Image without any errors. However, When using app engine I get Image error still saying that PIL is not installed. I am wondering if any of you have an thoughts as to how I can resolve this issue. -Matthew

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  • Oracle manually add an FK constraint

    - by Oxymoron
    Alright, since a client wants to automate a certain process, which includes creating a new key structure in a LIVE database, I need to create relations between tables.columns. Now I've found the tables ALL_CONS_COLS en USER_CONSTRAINTS to hold information about constraints. If I were to manually create constraints, by inserting into these tables, I should be able to recreate the original constraints. My question: are there any more tables I should look into? Do you have an alternate suggestions, as this sounds VERY dirty and error prone to begin with. Current modus operandi: Create a new column in each table for the PK; Generate a guid for this PK; Create a new column in each table for the FKs; Fetch the guid associated with the FK; ....... done sofar...... Add new constraint based on the old one; Remove old constraint; Rename new columns; This is kind of dodgy and I'd rather change my method, any ideas would be helpful. To put it different, client wants to change key structure from int to guid on a live database. What's the best way to approach this

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  • Linq generic Expression in query on "element" or on IQueryable (multiple use)

    - by Bogdan Maxim
    Hi, I have the following expression public static Expression<Func<T, bool>> JoinByDateCheck<T>(T entity, DateTime dateToCheck) where T : IDateInterval { return (entityToJoin) => entityToJoin.FromDate.Date <= dateToCheck.Date && (entityToJoin.ToDate == null || entityToJoin.ToDate.Value.Date >= dateToCheck.Date); } IDateInterval interface is defined like this: interface IDateInterval { DateTime FromDate {get;} DateTime? ToDate {get;} } and i need to apply it in a few ways: (1) Query on Linq2Sql Table: var q1 = from e in intervalTable where FunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e, constantDateTime) select e; or something like this: intervalTable.Where(FunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e, constantDateTime)) (2) I need to use it in some table joins (as linq2sql doesn't provide comparative join): var q2 = from e1 in t1 join e2 in t2 on e1.FK == e2.PK where OtherFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e2, e1.FromDate) or var q2 = from e1 in t1 from e2 in t2 where e1.FK == e2.PK && OtherFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e2, e1.FromDate) (3) I need to use it in some queries like this: var q3 = from e in intervalTable.FilterFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(constantDate); Dynamic linq is not something that I can use, so I have to stick to plain linq. Thank you Clarification: Initially I had just the last method (FilterFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(this IQueryable<IDateInterval> entities, DateTime dateConstant) ) that contained the code from the expression. The problem is that I get a SQL Translate exception if I write the code in a method and call it like that. All I want is to extend the use of this function to the where clause (see the second query in point 2)

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  • A typical mysql query( how to use subquery column into main query)

    - by I Like PHP
    I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, or if we use subquery value to main query? but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

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  • How to add a WHERE clause on the second table of a 1-to-1 join in Fluent NHibernate?

    - by daddywoodland
    I'm using a legacy database that was 'future proofed' to keep track of historical changes. It turns out this feature is never used so I want to map the tables into a single entity. My tables are: CodesHistory (CodesHistoryID (pk), CodeID (fk), Text) Codes (CodeID (pk), CodeName) To add an additional level of complexity, these tables hold the content for the drop down lists throughout the application. So, I'm trying to map a Title entity (Mr, Mrs etc.) as follows: Title ClassMap - Public Sub New() Table("CodesHistory") Id(Function(x) x.TitleID, "CodesHistoryID") Map(Function(x) x.Text) 'Call into the other half of the 1-2-1 join in order to merge them in 'this single domain object Join("Codes", AddressOf AddTitleDetailData) Where("CodeName like 'C.Title.%'") End Sub ' Method to merge two tables with a 1-2-1 join into a single entity in VB.Net Public Sub AddTitleDetailData(ByVal m As JoinPart(Of Title)) m.KeyColumn("CodeID") m.Map(Function(x) x.CodeName) End Sub From the above, you can see that my 'CodeName' field represents the select list in question (C.Title, C.Age etc). The problem is that the WHERE clause only applies to the 'CodesHistory' table but the 'CodeName' field is in the 'Codes' table. As I'm sure you can guess there's no scope to change the database. Is it possible to apply the WHERE clause to the Codes table?

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  • Handling duplicate insertion

    - by Francis
    So I've got this piece of code which, logically should work but Entity Framework is behaving unexpectedly. Here: foreach (SomeClass someobject in allObjects) { Supplier supplier = new Supplier(); supplier.primary_key = someobject.id; supplier.name = someobject.displayname; try { sm.Add(supplier); ro.Created++; } catch (Exception ex) { ro.Error++; } } Here's what I have in sm.Add() public Supplier Add(Supplier supplier) { try { _ctx.AddToSupplier(supplier); _ctx.SaveChanges(); return supplier; } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } I can have records in allObjects that have the same id. My piece of code needs to support this and just move on to the next and try to insert it, which I think should work. If this happens, an exception is throw, saying that records with dupe PKs cannot be inserted (of course). The exception mentions the value of the PK, for example 1000. All is well, a new supplier is passed to sm.Add() containing a PK that's never been used before. (1001) Weirdly though, when doing SaveChanges(), EF will whine about not being able to insert records with dupe PKs. The exception still mentions 1000 even though supplier contains 10001 in primary_key. I feel this is me not using _ctx properly. Do I need to call something else to sync it ?

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  • Table index design

    - by Swoosh
    I would like to add index(s) to my table. I am looking for general ideas how to add more indexes to a table. Other than the PK clustered. I would like to know what to look for when I am doing this. So, my example: This table (let's call it TASK table) is going to be the biggest table of the whole application. Expecting millions records. IMPORTANT: massive bulk-insert is adding data in this table table has 27 columns: (so far, and counting :D ) int x 9 columns = id-s varchar x 10 columns bit x 2 columns datetime x 5 columns INT COLUMNS all of these are INT ID-s but from tables that are usually smaller than Task table (10-50 records max), example: Status table (with values like "open", "closed") or Priority table (with values like "important", "not so important", "normal") there is also a column like "parent-ID" (self - ID) join: all the "small" tables have PK, the usual way ... clustered STRING COLUMNS there is a (Company) column (string!) that is something like "5 characters long all the time" and every user will be restricted using this one. If in Task there are 15 different "Companies" the logged in user would only see one. So there's always a filter on this one. Might be a good idea to add an index to this column? DATE COLUMNS I think they don't index these ... right? Or can / should be?

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  • Loading child entities with JPA on Google App Engine

    - by Phil H
    I am not able to get child entities to load once they are persisted on Google App Engine. I am certain that they are saving because I can see them in the datastore. For example if I have the following two entities. public class Parent implements Serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.encoded-pk", value="true") private String key; @OneToMany(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) private List<Child> children = new ArrayList<Child>(); //getters and setters } public class Child implements Serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.encoded-pk", value="true") private String key; private String name; @ManyToOne private Parent parent; //getters and setters } I can save the parent and a child just fine using the following: Parent parent = new Parent(); Child child = new Child(); child.setName("Child Object"); parent.getChildren().add(child); em.persist(parent); However when I try to load the parent and then try to access the children (I know GAE lazy loads) I do not get the child records. //parent already successfully loaded parent.getChildren.size(); // this returns 0 I've looked at tutorial after tutorial and nothing has worked so far. I'm using version 1.3.3.1 of the SDK. I've seen the problem mentioned on various blogs and even the App Engine forums but the answer is always JDO related. Am I doing something wrong or has anyone else had this problem and solved it for JPA?

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  • Load PEM encoded private RSA key in Crypto++

    - by 01100110
    Often times, user will have PEM encoded RSA private keys. Crypto++ requires that these keys be in DER format to load. I've been asking people to manually convert their PEM files to DER beforehand using openssl like this: openssl pkcs8 -in in_file.pem -out out_file.der -topk8 -nocrypt -outform der That works fine, but some people don't understand how to do that nor do they want to. So I would like to convert PEM files to DER files automatically within the program. Is it as simple as striping the "-----BEGIN CERTIFICATE-----" and "-----END CERTIFICATE-----" from the PEM or is some other transformation required as well? I've been told that between those markers that it's just b64 encoded DER. Here's some code that demonstrates the issue: // load the private key CryptoPP::RSA::PrivateKey PK; CryptoPP::ByteQueue bytes; try { CryptoPP::FileSource File( rsa.c_str(), true, new CryptoPP::Base64Decoder() ); File.TransferTo( bytes ); bytes.MessageEnd(); // This line Causes BERDecodeError when a PEM encoded file is used PK.Load( bytes ); } catch ( CryptoPP::BERDecodeErr ) { // Convert PEM to DER and try to load the key again } I'd like to avoid making system calls to openssl and do the transformation entirely in Crypto++ so that users can provide either format and things "just work". Thanks for any advice.

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  • Solr - DeltaImport doenst run the parentDeltaQuery

    - by rails
    I have 1:n relation between my main entity(PackageVersion) and its tag in my DB. I add a new tag with this date to the db at the timestamp and I run delta import command. the select retrieves the line but i dont see any other sql. Here are my data-config.xml configurations: <entity name="PackageVersion" pk="PackageVersionId" query= "select ... from [dbo].[Package] Package inner join [dbo].[PackageVersion] PackageVersion on Package.Id = PackageVersion.PackageId" deltaQuery = "select PackageVersion.Id PackageVersionId from [dbo].[Package] Package inner join [dbo].[PackageVersion] PackageVersion on Package.Id = PackageVersion.PackageId where Package.LastModificationTime > '${dataimporter.last_index_time}' OR PackageVersion.Timestamp > '${dataimporter.last_index_time}'" deltaImportQuery="select ... from [dbo].[Package] Package inner join [dbo].[PackageVersion] PackageVersion on Package.Id = PackageVersion.PackageId Where PackageVersionId=='${dih.delta.id}'" > <entity name="PackageTag" pk="ResourceId" processor="CachedSqlEntityProcessor" cacheKey="ResourceId" cacheLookup="PackageVersion.PackageId" query= "SELECT ResourceId,[Text] PackageTag from [dbo].[Tag] Tag" deltaQuery="SELECT ResourceId,[Text] PackageTag from [dbo].[Tag] Tag Where Tag.TimeStamp > '${dataimporter.last_index_time}'" parentDeltaQuery="select PackageVersion.PackageVersionId from [dbo].[Package] where Package.Id=${PackageTag.ResourceId}"> </entity> </entity>

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  • How does Access 2007's moveNext/moveFirst/, etc., feature work?

    - by Chris M
    I'm not an Access expert, but am an SQL expert. I inherited an Access front-end referencing a SQL 2005 database that worked OK for about 5000 records, but is failing miserably for 800k records... Behind the scenes in the SQL profiler & activity manager I see some kind of Access query like: SELECT "MS1"."id" FROM "dbo"."customer" "MS1" ORDER BY "MS1"."id" The MS prefix doesn't appear in any Access code I can see. I'm suspicious of the built-in Access navigation code: DoCmd.GoToRecord , , acNext The GoToRecord has AcRecord constant, which includes things like acFirst, acLast, acNext, acPrevious and acGoTo. What does it mean in a database context to move to the "next" record? This particular table uses an identity column as the PK, so is it internally grabbing all the IDs and then moving to the one that is the next highest??? If so, how would it work if a table was comprised of three different fields for the PK? Or am I on the wrong track, and something else in Access is calling that statement? Unfortunately I see a ton of prepared statements in the profiler. THanks!

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  • Entity Framework one-to-one relationship mapping flattened in code

    - by Josh Close
    I have a table structure like so. Address: AddressId int not null primary key identity ...more columns AddressContinental: AddressId int not null primary key identity foreign key to pk of Address County State AddressInternational: AddressId int not null primary key identity foreign key to pk of Address ProvinceRegion I don't have control over schema, this is just the way it is. Now, what I want to do is have a single Address object. public class Address { public int AddressId { get; set; } public County County { get; set; } public State State { get; set } public ProvinceRegion { get; set; } } I want to have EF pull it out of the database as a single entity. When saving, I want to save the single entity and have EF know to split it into the three tables. How would I map this in EF 4.1 Code First? I've been searching around and haven't found anything that meets my case yet. UPDATE An address record will have a record in Address and one in either AddressContinental or AddressInternational, but not both.

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  • Get the first and last posts in a thread

    - by Grampa
    I am trying to code a forum website and I want to display a list of threads. Each thread should be accompanied by info about the first post (the "head" of the thread) as well as the last. My current database structure is the following: threads table: id - int, PK, not NULL, auto-increment name - varchar(255) posts table: id - int, PK, not NULL, auto-increment thread_id - FK for threads The tables have other fields as well, but they are not relevant for the query. I am interested in querying threads and somehow JOINing with posts so that I obtain both the first and last post for each thread in a single query (with no subqueries). So far I am able to do it using multiple queries, and I have defined the first post as being: SELECT * FROM threads t LEFT JOIN posts p ON t.id = p.thread_id ORDER BY p.id LIMIT 0, 1 The last post is pretty much the same except for ORDER BY id DESC. Now, I could select multiple threads with their first or last posts, by doing: SELECT * FROM threads t LEFT JOIN posts p ON t.id = p.thread_id ORDER BY p.id GROUP BY t.id But of course I can't get both at once, since I would need to sort both ASC and DESC at the same time. What is the solution here? Is it even possible to use a single query? Is there any way I could change the structure of my tables to facilitate this? If this is not doable, then what tips could you give me to improve the query performance in this particular situation?

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  • INSERT..ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE - but NOT using the duplicate key to compare.

    - by calumbrodie
    I am trying to solve a problem I have inherited with poor treatment of different data sources. I have a user table that contains BOTH good and evil users. create table `users`( `user_id` int(13) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `email` varchar(255) , `name` varchar(255) , PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`) ); In this table the primary key is currently set to be user_id. I have another table ('users_evil') which contains ONLY the evil users (all the users from this table are included in the first table) - the user_id's on this table do NOT correspond to those in the first table. I want to have all my users in one table, and simply flag which are good and which are evil. What I want to do is alter the user table and add a column ('evil') which defaults to 0. I then want to dump the data from my 'users_evil') table and then run an INSERT..ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE with this data into the first table (setting 'evil'=1 where the emails match) The problem is that the 'PK' is set to the user_id and not the 'email'. Any suggestions, or even another strategy to successfully achive this. Can I run this statement but treat another column as PK only for the duration of the statement.

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