Search Results

Search found 9894 results on 396 pages for 'primary interop assembly'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 38/396 | < Previous Page | 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45  | Next Page >

  • Set primary key on hibernate generated sequence table

    - by bungrudi
    setup: hibernate 3.3, MySQL 5 I have an hibernate entity that have its PK generated using a sequence table. The annotation looks like this: @GenericGenerator(name = "SCENARIO_TABLE_GEN", strategy = "org.hibernate.id.enhanced.TableGenerator", parameters = { @Parameter(name = "initial_value", value = "5"), @Parameter(name = "force_table_use", value = "true"), @Parameter(name = "table_name", value = "SEQ_TABLE"), @Parameter(name = "value_column_name", value = "VALUE_COL"), @Parameter(name = "segment_column_name", value = "KEY_COL"), @Parameter(name = "segment_value", value = "SCENARIO") }) The problem is, that hibernate generated sequence table (SEQ_TABLE in my case, generated using hbm2ddl) does not have a primary keys. How do I tell hibernate that I want to have the primary key for the sequence table set on KEY_COL ?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Express: Failed to add primary key after creating a database table

    - by Syd
    Scenario: I have created a database table. And when I tried to add a primary key (using the SQL Server Management Studiio) to the table, it failed with an error message "Saving changes is not permitted. The changes you have made requrie the following tables to be dropped and re-created. You have either made changes to a table that can't be recreated or enabled the option Prevent savign changes that require the table to be re-created." The environment is Windows 7. I have earlier installed it on a Windows XP SP2 and it worked. And yes, my table is empty (freshly created). My current workaround is to run the "Drop and Create" script. The other alternative is to create the primary key before I save the table. Is this a bug or a limitation with the Express version?

    Read the article

  • Copying Primary key to another field in Access.

    - by BashLover
    Hey, I'm struggling to copy the Primary Key to another field in Access. This is irrelevant , but clarifying on what I'm comparing. ... WHERE Tunniste=" & [Tarkiste] & "" Tunniste = Primary Key , Autonumber , ID (Generated by Access.) Tarkiste = This is the field I want to copy it to compare it. I'm open to suggestions, I've already try'ed with Form_Load, using the following code. Private Sub Form_Load() DoCmd.RunSQL "UPDATE Korut SET [Tarkiste]=('" & Tunniste & "');" End Sub But this copied the same key to all the entries in "Tarkiste" field. In simplicity I want 1:1 copy of field "Tunniste" to "Tarkiste" , whichever method it takes. Started from this question. File Picker Replaces All Rows With The Same Choice.

    Read the article

  • is it a good idea to change a recovery partition from primary to logical? [HP laptop]

    - by DiegoDD
    I have a new HP laptop, model dv6-6c85la, with 1TB hard drive, and it has 4 primary partitions, like this: |<- system [199 MB] -|<- c: [899.8 GB] -|<- d:(recovery) [27.5 GB] -|<- e:(hp_tools) [4 GB] -| I wanted to make another partition, splitting "C" which is the main partition, into TWO partitions, and leave the rest as it is. but it doesn't let me because they are already 4 primary partitions (the ones in the diagram). I read somewhere, that i could in fact split C into 2 partitions, but only if the adjacent partition (in this case d:(recovery) is converted into a "logical" partition. That way, the new unallocated part taken from C, and the recovery partition, would each be logical, "inside" an extended partition (right???) As i understand, the resulting partitions would be: primary (system, no letter), primary (c:), extended [ logical (x:) | logical(d:recovery) ], primary (e: hp_tools) "x" being the new one. am i correct? My question is, if i do convert the recovery partition to logical (and thus, it is inside an extended partition adjacent to the new "x:" one), would i have any problems when in case of a disaster i would like to restore the system using the now logical instead of primary RECOVERY partition? Or it is completely safe to change it to logical? My main concern is because i think i may need to be primary so the recovery can proceed in boot time? Or i am completely wrong? how does the recovery process happens? I also understand that i can simply create recovery media, in DVDs, and then even i would be able to delete that recovery partition completely, but as of now, i don't want to do that. I may create the disks, but i don't want to delete the partition, simply because it would be a lot faster and easier to recover from a hard drive than disks. Wrapping up: if i change a recovery partition from primary to logical, will the system still be capable of using it to recover? or it NEEDS to be primary to work? The whole point is that i want to split C:, but as things are, i cant directly, i'd need to change the recovery partition to logical. Or is there another way? thanks.

    Read the article

  • mysql add auto increment and a additional key

    - by Lee
    Hey all I am trying to alter a table with adding a new column setting it as auto increment and with a key. The table already has one key and this one will be an addition. The error I get is the following. error : Multiple primary key defined My code is: alter table user add column id int (11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT PRIMARY KEY FIRST; I have also tries wrapping the key name ie alter table user add column id int (11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT PRIMARY (id) KEY FIRST; But still no luck. How can it be done ?

    Read the article

  • Ensuring uniqueness on a varchar greater than 255 in MYSQL/InnoDB

    - by Vijay Boyapati
    I have a table which contains HTML entries for news pages. When I initially designed it I used URL as the primary key. I've learned the error of my ways because left-joining is super slow. So I want to redesign the table with an integer (id) primary key, but still keep the rows unique based on the URL. The problem is that I've found URLs longer than 255 characters, and MySQL isn't letting my create a key on the URL. I'm using an InnoDB/UTF8 table. From what I understand it's using multiple bytes per character with a limit of 766 bytes for the key (in InnoDB). I would really love suggestions on an elegant way of keeping the rows unique based on URL, while using an integer primary key. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework and multi-tenancy database design

    - by Junto
    I am looking at multi-tenancy database schema design for an SaaS concept. It will be ASP.NET MVC - EF, but that isn't so important. Below you can see an example database schema (the Tenant being the Company). The CompanyId is replicated throughout the schema and the primary key has been placed on both the natural key, plus the tenant Id. Plugging this schema into the Entity Framework gives the following errors when I add the tables into the Entity Model file (Model1.edmx): The relationship 'FK_Order_Customer' uses the set of foreign keys '{CustomerId, CompanyId}' that are partially contained in the set of primary keys '{OrderId, CompanyId}' of the table 'Order'. The set of foreign keys must be fully contained in the set of primary keys, or fully not contained in the set of primary keys to be mapped to a model. The relationship 'FK_OrderLine_Customer' uses the set of foreign keys '{CustomerId, CompanyId}' that are partially contained in the set of primary keys '{OrderLineId, CompanyId}' of the table 'OrderLine'. The set of foreign keys must be fully contained in the set of primary keys, or fully not contained in the set of primary keys to be mapped to a model. The relationship 'FK_OrderLine_Order' uses the set of foreign keys '{OrderId, CompanyId}' that are partially contained in the set of primary keys '{OrderLineId, CompanyId}' of the table 'OrderLine'. The set of foreign keys must be fully contained in the set of primary keys, or fully not contained in the set of primary keys to be mapped to a model. The relationship 'FK_Order_Customer' uses the set of foreign keys '{CustomerId, CompanyId}' that are partially contained in the set of primary keys '{OrderId, CompanyId}' of the table 'Order'. The set of foreign keys must be fully contained in the set of primary keys, or fully not contained in the set of primary keys to be mapped to a model. The relationship 'FK_OrderLine_Customer' uses the set of foreign keys '{CustomerId, CompanyId}' that are partially contained in the set of primary keys '{OrderLineId, CompanyId}' of the table 'OrderLine'. The set of foreign keys must be fully contained in the set of primary keys, or fully not contained in the set of primary keys to be mapped to a model. The relationship 'FK_OrderLine_Order' uses the set of foreign keys '{OrderId, CompanyId}' that are partially contained in the set of primary keys '{OrderLineId, CompanyId}' of the table 'OrderLine'. The set of foreign keys must be fully contained in the set of primary keys, or fully not contained in the set of primary keys to be mapped to a model. The relationship 'FK_OrderLine_Product' uses the set of foreign keys '{ProductId, CompanyId}' that are partially contained in the set of primary keys '{OrderLineId, CompanyId}' of the table 'OrderLine'. The set of foreign keys must be fully contained in the set of primary keys, or fully not contained in the set of primary keys to be mapped to a model. The question is in two parts: Is my database design incorrect? Should I refrain from these compound primary keys? I'm questioning my sanity regarding the fundamental schema design (frazzled brain syndrome). Please feel free to suggest the 'idealized' schema. Alternatively, if the database design is correct, then is EF unable to match the keys because it perceives these foreign keys as a potential mis-configured 1:1 relationships (incorrectly)? In which case, is this an EF bug and how can I work around it?

    Read the article

  • INetCfgComponent::RaisePropertyUi arguments

    - by Soo Wei Tan
    I'm trying to do some COM interop and attempting to invoke the INetCfgComponent::RaisePropertyUi method. I've gotten to the point where I can enumerate devices and get a valid INetCfgComponent for the adapter that I want to display the UI for. However, I'm a COM newbie (let alone COM interop) so I have no idea what the third argument in RaisePropertyUi() is meant to be. I've tried passing in the INetCfgComponent object that I have, but that just results in a InvalidCastException. MSDN has the following to say about the argument: Pointer to the IUnknown interface. RaisePropertyUi retrieves from IUnknown the interface of the context in which to display a network component's property sheet. RaisePropertyUi uses this interface to restrict the display of the property sheet to the context of a connection.

    Read the article

  • using Windows Script Host

    - by Axarydax
    Hello, I am using windows script host for some kind of installer application and I'm creating shortcuts in start menu with it. This problem came up when I switched to x64 environment (win7 ultimate x64+vs2010) I added a reference to Windows Script Host Object Model (from c:\windows\syswow64\wshom.ocx), it generated Interop.IWshRuntimeLibrary dll. I added 'using IWshRuntimeLibrary;' to my .cs files, but when I tried to create WshShell sh = new WshShellClass(); it throws an exception: Could not load file or assembly 'Interop.IWshRuntimeLibrary, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. An attempt was made to load a program with an incorrect format. I assume that I would need 64-bit version of that wshom.ocx for this to work, but I don't know what should I try. Or I'll just dump Windows Script stuff, but I need another way to create start menu shortcuts from .net application. Thanks

    Read the article

  • A continued saga of C# interoprability with unmanaged C++

    - by Gilad
    After a day of banging my head against the wall both literally and metaphorically, I plead for help: I have an unmanaged C++ project, which is compiled as a DLL. Let's call it CPP Project. It currently works in an unmanaged environment. In addition, I have created a WPF project, that shall be called WPF Project. This project is a simple and currently almost empty project. It contains a single window and I want it to use code from Project 1. For that, I have created a CLR C++ project, which shall be called Interop Project and is also compiled as a DLL. For simplicity I will attach some basic testing code I have boiled down to the basics. CPP Project has the following two testing files: tester.h #pragma once extern "C" class __declspec(dllexport) NativeTester { public: void NativeTest(); }; tester.cpp #include "tester.h" void NativeTester::NativeTest() { int i = 0; } Interop Project has the following file: InteropLib.h #pragma once #include <tester.h> using namespace System; namespace InteropLib { public ref class InteropProject { public: static void Test() { NativeTester nativeTester; nativeTester.NativeTest(); } }; } Lastly, WPF Project has a single window refrencing Interop Project: MainWindow.xaml.cs using System; using System.Windows; using InteropLib; namespace AppGUI { public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); InteropProject.Test(); } } } And the XAML itself has an empty window (default created). Once I am trying to run the WPF project, I get the following error: System.Windows.Markup.XamlParseException: 'The invocation of the constructor on type 'AppGUI.MainWindow' that matches the specified binding constraints threw an exception.' Line number '3' and line position '9'. --- System.IO.FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'InteropLib.dll' or one of its dependencies. The specified module could not be found. at AppGUI.MainWindow..ctor() Interestingly enough, if I do not export the class from CPP Project, I do not get this error. Say, if i change tester.h to: #pragma once class NativeTester { public: void NativeTest() { int i = 0; } }; However, in this case I cannot use my more complex classes. If I move my implementation to a cpp file like before, I get unresolved linkage errors due to my not exporting my code. The C++ code I want to actually use is large and has many classes and is object oriented, so I can't just move all my implementation to the h files. Please help me understand this horrific error I've been trying resolve without success. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • wait for the second VB script untill ended from primary VB script

    - by yael
    Hi I have VB script that run second VB script The second VB script ask some questions from the input box My problem is that “MyShell.Run” not wait until SecondVBscript.vbs will ended And the Other VB syntax run immodestly also Need to wait for MyShell.Run process ended and then perform the Other VB syntax How can I do that? Set MyShell = Wscript.CreateObject("WScript.Shell") MyShell.Run " C:\Program Files\SecondVBscript.vbs" Set MyShell = Nothing Other VB syntax

    Read the article

  • Create a AD-LDS partition under a child of the primary partition

    - by ixe013
    I have a AD-LDS instance running on a Server 2008 R2. I have this application partition, created at installation : dc=enterprise,dc=example,dc=com I have succesfully followed this procedure to create application partitions. They are named : cn=stuff,dc=enterprise,dc=example,dc=com cn=things,dc=enterprise,dc=example,dc=com If I configure my client(s) to follow referals, I can search from dc=enterprise,dc=example,dc=com and find objects under cn=stuff and cn=things. How can I create (or move after the fact) the stuff and things partitions so they are logically located under a OU under the initial partition, ending up with something like : cn=stuff,ou=applications,dc=enterprise,dc=example,dc=com cn=things,ou=applications,dc=enterprise,dc=example,dc=com

    Read the article

  • Host Primary Domain from a subfolder

    - by TandemAdam
    I am having a problem making a sub directory act as the public_html for my main domain, and getting a solution that works with that domains sub directories too. My hosting allows me to host multiple sites, which are all working great. I have set up a subfolder under my ~/public_html/ directory called /domains/, where I create a folder for each separate website. e.g. public_html domains websiteone websitetwo websitethree ... This keeps my sites nice and tidy. The only issue was getting my "main domain" to fit into this system. It seems my main domain, is somehow tied to my account (or to Apache, or something), so I can't change the "document root" of this domain. I can define the document roots for any other domains ("Addon Domains") that I add in cPanel no problem. But the main domain is different. I was told to edit the .htaccess file, to redirect the main domain to a subdirectory. This seemed to work great, and my site works fine on it's home/index page. The problem I'm having is that if I try to navigate my browser to say the images folder (just for example) of my main site, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/images/ then it seems to ignore the redirect and shows the entire server directory in the url, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/domains/yourmaindomain/images/ It still actually shows the correct "Index of /images" page, and show the list of all my images. Here is an example of my .htaccess file that I am using: RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/domains/yourmaindomain/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /domains/yourmaindomain/$1 RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteRule ^(/)?$ domains/yourmaindomain/index.html [L] Does this htaccess file look correct? I just need to make it so my main domain behaves like an addon domain, and it's subdirectories adhere to the redirect rules.

    Read the article

  • Instructions to setup primary and only domain controller

    - by Robert Koritnik
    Where could I get best step by step instructions (with some simple explanations) how to setup domain controller on Windows Server 2008 R2 Server Core? I don't know what do I need? Do I need DNS as well and AD and so on and so forth. I don't know enough about these things, but I need to set them up to prepare development environment. I would also like to know how to configure firewall on DC machine, to make it visible on other machines because I've setup DC somehow but I can't connect to it... This is my HW config: Linksys internet router with DHCP my dev machine is Windows 7 my DC machine is a VM in my dev machine my dev machine has a hw network adapter to linksys and a virtual network adapter to DC DC machine has two network adapters: one to linksys (to be internet connected so it can be updated etc.) and one to host (my dev Win7 machine) Edit My development machine should access domain controller and logon using domain credentials. Development machine would access internet directly via Linksys router. My domain controller machine would only serve authentication (and if I'm able to configure it right) should also have Active Directory Federation Services in a workable condition. I hope this is a bit more clear now. At least a small bit.

    Read the article

  • touchscreen in dual monitors but not as primary

    - by bazzjedi
    Hi, I have been looking for information about using a second monitor but thought of using a touchscreen will a touchscreen monitor work in dual set up, but not set up as main monitor which is the question. Can't find any information on this only when others set it has main. only this piece If you mean do the touch screen features still work on the other machine, the answer is yes. Past that, you can even see some of the touch screen features on a non touch screen monitor (just not the multi touch features!) For example, on the taskbar, click (without releasing) on any icon and then drag the mouse up, and you will see that it does the same as using your finger and dragging up. link|flag answered Feb 5 '10 at 15:14 Wil 47.4k125 have hp 2510 main thinking of hp2310ti touchscreen as secondary, grafic card geforce gtx 295- windows 7 professional regards bazzjedi

    Read the article

  • Suitable companion monitors for HP LP3065 30" primary monitor

    - by Bittercoder
    I have an HP LP3065 30" monitor - now I want to add a couple of companion screens to either side of it - I've heard to people suggesting 21" monitors in portrait mode - but it seems difficult to find a suitable panel these day, as 22" wide-screen monitors have become common, and I can't seem to find anything with a suitable 1600 pixel width. Can anyone recommend a suitable monitor, and suggest what criteria are best for picking a suitable monitor - what's important to consider - I'm thinking things like: Exact resolution match? Viewing angle? Small/thin bezel?

    Read the article

  • My PC suddenly doesn't detect the primary drive (SSD)

    - by smoth190
    My computer has been working fine for months, and it worked today, but tonight I went to start it up to find that my OCZ Vertex 2 isn't being found. When I turn on my computer, the loading screen gets stuck at "Detecting IDE drives...". After a while, it keeps going and lists the drives it finds. The first one in the list should be my Vertex 2, but it just says "None". The computer proceeds to get stuck on "Loading operating system...", which is understandable because the drive with the OS is "gone". My first thought was drive failure, but every time drives have crashed on me, they're still detected--they just don't work. This drive is an SSD, it's pretty new, and I had no problems beforehand. I find it hard to believe it failed. I'm sure it's possible, but I hope this isn't the case. There has been nothing strange going on at all with my PC, it's been running perfect until now. I was just about to do my monthly dskchk and defrag today. I popped in my Windows 7 Home Premium disk and booted from it. When I launched the repair tool, it didn't list any operating systems (because the drive is 100% missing...). When I've had disks crash before, it still listed the OS, you just couldn't do anything with it. I tried to restore from an image, but I don't have any of those, either. I opened the command console and listed the drivers with wmic logicaldisk get name. Only C: and D: came up. C: was my 1TB storage driver (luckily, all my stuff is here--only the OS is on the SSD!) and D: was the disk driver. So I still had an MIA drive... The SSD didn't come with any driver disks, so I can't install drivers. If there's a way to do this from a CD I can burn with my other PC, please let me know. What the heck do I do? Although only the OS is on my SSD, a new SSD is expensive. I'll probably also have to buy a new copy of Windows (an upgrade would be nice, though...) because I've found it eats my registration key when my PC crashes (and my thousands of dollars of Adobe programs, I'll be on the phone with tech support for a week to get those keys back). And I'll lose my registry, all my settings, all sorts of other stuff that I'll spend weeks restoring. My computer is a pain in the butt to take out and open up, so if I can't fix it, I'll try fiddling with the plug or putting it into a new computer, but not right now. Any help is greatly appreciated! The day when they make crash-less drives will be the day I live without worry.

    Read the article

  • Black spray (?) on a laptop's heat sink assembly

    - by arnehehe
    We have a HP Pavilion DV3 4000SB that was given an error on startup that the fan was having problems (System Fan 90b error message) So I decided to open the laptop up and clean the fan, as that seemed the easiest option. Upon opening it up, at first I froze and thought "No wonder! The whole thing's burnt!", but then I started thinking it looked more like someone used a spraycan on it. I looked up a video on youtube of someone disassembling his Pavilion and noticed there wasn't any of the black on his, so my question here is: Have any of you encountered this, or know what it is? Or if it's something that could point to a problem?

    Read the article

  • Making an SSD drive the primary boot/system drive

    - by David Ebbo
    [Not much of a hardware guy, so please excuse my ignorance :)] I just ordered an HP Pavilion Elite HPE-450t (desktop), which came with Win7 installed on the hard drive, using two partitions (C: and D:). Separately, I bought a 128GB SSD that I intend to use as my system drive. I got it in there and connected it, and right now, it's the J: drive (which was the first letter available in disk manager). My goal is for the SSD to get a clean OS install be the C: drive, and to clean out the other hard drive and make it D: (for misc data storage) Question #1: the motherboard has two SATA plugs. Does it matter which one I use for which drive? Question #2: what's the right way to install Win7 on the SSD in a way that it ends up being the C: drive? Do I need to switch some things around in the current Win7 that came with it, are can I do all that while installing Win7 on the SSD?

    Read the article

  • Instantiate an .aspx that is an embedded resource of an assembly

    - by asbjornu
    I have an ASP.NET (MVC) application in which I would like to load WebForms .aspx files that are embedded as resources in 3rd party assemblies. The reason I want to do this is to make a sort of "plug-in" system where a .dll file can be dropped in a folder and then picked up at runtime to provide additional functionality to the base application. I've gotten the plugin system to work (I'm using MEF) with plugins written in ASP.NET MVC (Views and Controllers), but for plain old ASP.NET (Pages), I've got myself into a bit of a problem. For the execution of the embedded .aspx file (which, in the usual WebForm way Inherits="My.BasePage") I've created a custom VirtualPathProvider, ResourceFile ControllerFactory and PageController. Within the PageController I've overridden the Execute(RequestContext) method and within it I'm trying to compile the .aspx with BuildManager.CreateInstanceFromVirtualPath(virtualPath, type). When doing this, I get the error message "Could not load type 'My.BasePage'", even though I'm giving the BuildManager the System.Type of My.BasePage in the call to CreateInstanceFromVirtualPath. I seem to be stuck at this point. I've tried to Server.Transfer() to the custom VirtualPathProvider handled URL to the same .aspx file, but that fails with the same error message. How can I help BuildManager find out where My.BasePage is defined and how come the Type requiredBaseType parameter of CreateInstanceFromVirtualPath seems to be ignored? I've tried to call BuildManager.AddReferencedAssembly(), but that only fails with "This method can only be called during the application's pre-start initialization stage". MSDN says: "The method must be called during the Application_PreStartInit stage of the application", but I have no such event in my HttpApplication object and find absolutely zero information about it on the internet. Either way, I don't want to be calling BuildManager.AddReferencedAssembly() in or before the Application_Start event, since that makes me have to recycle the whole application to be able to add new plugins to the system. Does anyone have any clues? Any other ideas on how I can "execute" an .aspx file that is embedded as a resource within an assembly through reflection? Can I for instance pre-compile the .aspx file within the same assembly as the base Page class it inherits?

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45  | Next Page >