Search Results

Search found 20761 results on 831 pages for 'chef client'.

Page 380/831 | < Previous Page | 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386 387  | Next Page >

• Maximizing the number of true concurrent / parrallel http requests in Silverlight

  - by Clems

  Hi all. I'm using SL 4 beta and my app needs to do a lot of small http requests to the server. I believe that when exceeding the number of allowed concurrent requests, the subsequent requests are put in a queue. I am also aware that SL 4 has both a http browser stack and a http client stack, with both different limit in terms of the number of concurrent requests. Let's say call those limits MAX_BROWSER and MAX_CLIENT. Also I think I read somewhere that the number of concurrent requests is limited per domain, not overall. But I'm sure if this applies to both the http client stack. That means that you CAN have MAX_BROWSER requests to domain1.com AND MAX_BROWSER requests to domain2.com at the same time. And I even believe that sub domains are considered different so you can also have MAX_BROWSER requests to domain1.com AND MAX_BROWSER requests to sub.domain1.com at the same time. I have ownership of the services and domain names so I could easily setup sub domains for my services. Given those considerations I'm trying to optimize the number of concurrent http requests to my server. Here are few questions ? Is is possible to use both stack at the same time ? Is the subdomain/domain story true for both stacks ? None ? If so that would mean that I could potentially have a number of concurrent requests equal to : (MAX_BROWSER + MAX_CLIENT) * NUMBER_OF_DOMAINS which would be fairly good. Is this correct ? I'm kind of sharing my morning thoughts here, hoping somebody has experimented with those things. Thank you.

  Read the article

• Cheapest way to to determine if a MySQL connection is still alive

  - by MtnViewMark

  I have a pool of MySQL connections for a web-based data service. When it starts to service a request, it takes a connection from the pool to use. The problem is that if there has been a significant pause since that particular connection has been used, the server may have timed it out and closed its end. I'd like to be able to detect this in the pool management code. The trick is this: The environment in which I'm coding gives me only a very abstact API into the connection. I can basically only execute SQL statements. I don't have access to the actual socket or direct access to the MySQL client API. So, the question is: What is the cheapest MySQL statement I can execute on the connection to determine if it is working. For example SELECT 1; should work, but I'm wondering if there is something even cheaper? Perhaps something that doesn't even got across the wire, but is handled in the MySQL client lib and effectively answers the same question?

  Read the article

• Can't Compile Correct Mapping File

  - by NoOne

  Hello, Im now developping one application in C# with Remoting objects and NHibernate. So here is a image explaining how my projects are divided. Views Layer This layer will be responsible for the users interface. This layer will always use the Controls Layer to create and edit objects; Control Layer This is my persistence layer, here Ill have all the NHibernate configuration. This is my critic point, because ListSingleton Project will have only my RemoteObject. (Here I have the App.config file) Models Layer Entity layer. Here I only have the entities classes and their respective mapping. I’ve done a test solution with no remoting and only with the projects of the Control and Model Layers. It was all working ok. Now that I added the Views Layer and set the solution to start with projects Client and Server (Client calls the Control Layer and this would do a try to persist a object) I’m getting a error at : Configuration cfg = new Configuration(); cfg.AddXmlFile("mapping/User.hbm.xml"); InnerException: {"Could not compile the mapping document: mapping/User.hbm.xml"} InnerException.InnerException: {"Could not find the dialect in the configuration"} StackTrace in the InnerException.InnerException " em NHibernate.Dialect.Dialect.GetDialect(IDictionary`2 props)\r\n em NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration.AddValidatedDocument(NamedXmlDocument doc)" But I know that there is no error in the mapping file because I used in my test application.

  Read the article

• Multiple calls to data service from SL3?

  - by Chris

  I have an SL3 that makes asynchronous calls to a data service. Basically, there is a treeview that is bound to a collection of objects. The idea is that as a user selects a specific treeviewitem, a call is made to the data service, with a parameter specific to the selected treeviewitem being passed to the corresponding web method in the data service. The data service returns data back to the SL3 client, and the client presents the data to the user. This works well. The problem is that when users start to navigate through the treeview using the arrow keys on their keyboard, they could press the down arrow key, for example, 10 times, and 10 calls will be made to the data service, and then each of the 10 items will be displayed to the user momentarily, until finishing with the data for the most recently selected treeview item. So - onto the question. How can I put in some form of delay, to allow someone to navigate quickly through a treeview, then, once then stop at a certain treeviewitem, a call is made to the data service? Thanks for any suggestions. Chris

  Read the article

• Record Disappeared from Mysql Table, How Can I Find Out What Happened?

  - by Jascha

  I got the fire alarm phone call, AIM messages and email today from a client stating "The site is down!, WTF happened?!" Well, after a little digging, it turns out one of the records in a table had been wiped clean, but without removing the row itself. So, I had the representation of data, but a bunch of empty fields. (needless to day I need to write into my code a catch for this.) What my real question is, where can I figure out what happened? I've got access to phpmyadmin and that's about it. I found some access logs on in the root directory of my server, but that just tells me the client was in the admin area I built editing that record, I'd like to know specifically what they did that made all of the data go away. (what query was run etc...) is it possible without real server admin access? is there a neat little php to mysql class that returns data like this? Thanks in advance. -Jascha

  Read the article

• How to deal with "partial" dates (2010-00-00) from MySQL in Django?

  - by Etienne

  In one of my Django projects that use MySQL as the database, I need to have a date fields that accept also "partial" dates like only year (YYYY) and year and month (YYYY-MM) plus normal date (YYYY-MM-DD). The date field in MySQL can deal with that by accepting 00 for the month and the day. So 2010-00-00 is valid in MySQL and it represent 2010. Same thing for 2010-05-00 that represent May 2010. So I started to create a PartialDateField to support this feature. But I hit a wall because, by default, and Django use the default, MySQLdb, the python driver to MySQL, return a datetime.date object for a date field AND datetime.date() support only real date. So it's possible to modify the converter for the date field used by MySQLdb and return only a string in this format 'YYYY-MM-DD'. Unfortunately the converter use by MySQLdb is set at the connection level so it's use for all MySQL date fields. But Django DateField rely on the fact that the database return a datetime.date object, so if I change the converter to return a string, Django is not happy at all. Someone have an idea or advice to solve this problem? How to create a PartialDateField in Django ? EDIT Also I should add that I already thought of 2 solutions, create 3 integer fields for year, month and day (as mention by Alison R.) or use a varchar field to keep date as string in this format YYYY-MM-DD. But in both solutions, if I'm not wrong, I will loose the special properties of a date field like doing query of this kind on them: Get all entries after this date. I can probably re-implement this functionality on the client side but that will not be a valid solution in my case because the database can be query from other systems (mysql client, MS Access, etc.)

  Read the article

• error on connecting to the server : socket io is not defined

  - by max

  i know there's been couple of question about the same problem , i've already check them . i have very simple node.js chat app i have a server running on 8000 port and it works fine my client pages are html , they are running on apache and i'm using socket.io to connect them to the server and it works fine on the local host but when i upload the app on the server i keep on getting this error in the firebug io is not defined var socket = io.connect('http://atenak.com:8000/'); or sometimes it doesn't show that but when i try to broadcast message from cliend i get this error : socket is undefined socket.emit('msg', { data: msg , user:'max' }); the only difference is i've changed the localhost with atenak.com ! here is my html code var socket = io.connect('http://atenak.com:8000/'); var user = 'jack'; socket.on('newmsg', function (data) { if(data.user == user ) { $('#container').html(data.data); } }); function brodcast(){ var msg = $('#fild').val(); socket.emit('msg', { data: msg , user:'max' }); } </script> </head> <body> <div id="container"> </div> <input id="fild" type="text"> <input name="" type="button" onClick="brodcast();"> </body> i have included the sockt.io.js and server is running ok which means socket.io is installed on the server here is the live page http://atenak.com/client.html

  Read the article

• Hibernate Bi- Directional many to many mapping advice!

  - by Rob

  hi all, i woundered if anyone might be able to help me out. I am trying to work out what to google for (or any other ideas!!) basically i have a bidirectional many to many mapping between a user entity and a club entity (via a join table called userClubs) I now want to include a column in userClubs that represents the role so that when i call user.getClubs() I can also work out what level access they have. Is there a clever way to do this using hibernate or do i need to rethink the database structure? Thank you for any help (or just for reading this far!!) the user.hbm.xml looks a bit like <set name="clubs" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="user_ID"/> <many-to-many column="activity_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.Activity"/> </set> the activity.hbm.xml part <set name="members" inverse="true" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="activity_ID"/> <many-to-many column="user_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.User"/> </set> The current userClubs table contains the fields id | user_ID | activity_ID I would like to include in there id | user_ID | activity_ID | role and be able to access the role on both sides...

  Read the article

• How to use log4j for a axis2 webservice

  - by KItis

  I have created a simple axis2 webservice to understand logging functionality in a webservice. in this sample webservice, when a client calls this webservice, first it reads the log4j.property file. then i can see the logs being printed on console. but i have included file appender too into the property file. but i can not file the log file any where in my sample webapplication. i am using tomcat to run the webservice. following is webservice interface method called by client. package test; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.InputStream; import java.util.Properties; import org.apache.log4j.BasicConfigurator; import org.apache.log4j.Logger; import org.apache.log4j.PropertyConfigurator; public class WSInterface { static final Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(WSInterface.class); public String log4jTest(String input){ InputStream inputStream = this.getClass().getClassLoader() .getResourceAsStream(input); Properties properties = new Properties(); System.out.println("InputStream is: " + inputStream); //load the inputStream using the Properties try { properties.load(inputStream); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } PropertyConfigurator.configure(properties); logger.debug("Hello World!"); Class myclass = WSInterface.class; String url = myclass.getResource("WSInterface.class").toString(); String output = ""; return url; } }

  Read the article

• How can I work around WinXP using ports 1025-5000 as ephemeral?

  - by Chris Dolan

  If you create a TCP client socket with port 0 instead of a non-zero port, then the operating system chooses any free ephemeral port for you. Most OSes choose ephemeral ports from the IANA dynamic port range of 49152-65535. However in Windows Server 2003 and earlier (including XP) Microsoft used ports 1025-5000 as the ephemeral range, according to their bind() documentation. I run multiple Java services on the same hardware. On rare occasions, this range collides with well-known ports that I use for other services (e.g. port 4160 for Jini discovery). While rare, this has caused real problems. Is there any easy way to tell Windows or Java to use a different port range for client sockets? Microsoft's docs indicate that I can change the high end of that range via the MaxUserPort TcpIP registry setting, but I see no way to change the low end. Update: I've made some progress on this. It looks like Microsoft has a concept of reserved ports that are exceptions to the ephemeral port range. There's a registry setting that lets you change this permanently and apparently there must be an API to do the same thing because there's a data structure that holds high/low values for reserved port ranges, but I can't find the actual function call anywhere... The registry solution may work, but now I'm fixated on this API.

  Read the article

• Winsock tcp/ip Socket listening but connection refused, race condition?

  - by Wayne

  Hello folks. This involves two automated unit tests which each start up a tcp/ip server that creates a non-blocking socket then bind()s and listen()s in a loop on select() for a client that connects and downloads some data. The catch is that they work perfectly when run separately but when run as a test suite, the second test client will fail to connect with WSACONNREFUSED... UNLESS there is a Thread.Sleep() of several seconds between them??!!! Interestingly, there is retry loop every 1 second for connecting after any failure. So the second test loops for a while until timeout after 10 minutes. During that time, netstat -na shows the correct port number is in the LISTEN state for the server socket. So if it is in the listen state? Why won't it accept the connection? In the code, there are log messages that show the select NEVER even gets a socket ready to read (which means ready to accept a connection when it applies to a listening socket). Obviously the problem must be related to some race condition between finishing one test which means close() and shutdown() on each end of the socket, and the start up of the next. This wouldn't be so bad if the retry logic allowed it to connect eventually after a couple of seconds. However it seems to get "gummed up" and won't even retry. However, for some strange reason the listening socket SAYS it's in the LISTEN state even through keeps refusing connections. So that means it's the Windoze O/S which is actually catching the SYN packet and returning a RST packet (which means "Connection Refused"). The only other time I ever saw this error was when the code had a problem that caused hundreds of sockets to get stuck in TIME_WAIT state. But that's not the case here. netstat shows only about a dozen sockets with only 1 or 2 in TIME_WAIT at any given moment. Please help.

  Read the article

• Data synchronization using XMPP

  - by Jason

  Hi: I'm looking for some insight/advice on synchronizing data over XMPP. I've never developed anything for XMPP before so excuse me if some of my questions seem ridiculous. Basically, what I have is a decentralized social network. Each person has it's own Web site (or server) with a unique URI (one domain could host many servers). Each of these servers can have many clients. E.g., a desktop application, mobile application, etc. What I would like to accomplish is near real-time synchronization/communication between client and server, e.g., I update something on my desktop application, I see it change on my Web site. My server and client code is Python. So, I would like to make use of SleekXMPP if possible (it's license seems to have changed to MIT). I was thinking, and here is where I need advice, that each server would register an account at a dedicated XMPP server, e.g., [email protected]. and then I could use different resources for clients [email protected]/client1, [email protected]/client2, etc. If anyone can register any username, then maybe I also need some intermediate service (since it's decentralized, i'm not sure how to control registrations). Another option, I guess, is that each server runs it's own xmpp server. Assuming, that was all worked out, if I want to broadcast messages to all my resources (except the sending one), how do I do that? Do I have to subscribe to myself? This also seems like a good candidate for publish-subscribe, let me know if you think that could work and what the design/flow of that process would be. thanks :)

  Read the article

• Reading numpy arrays outside of Python

  - by Abiel

  In a recent question I asked about the fastest way to convert a large numpy array to a delimited string. My reason for asking was because I wanted to take that plain text string and transmit it (over HTTP for instance) to clients written in other programming languages. A delimited string of numbers is obviously something that any client program can work with easily. However, it was suggested that because string conversion is slow, it would be faster on the Python side to do base64 encoding on the array and send it as binary. This is indeed faster. My question now is, (1) how can I make sure my encoded numpy array will travel well to clients on different operating systems and different hardware, and (2) how do I decode the binary data on the client side. For (1), my inclination is to do something like the following import numpy as np import base64 x = np.arange(100, dtype=np.float64) base64.b64encode(x.tostring()) Is there anything else I need to do? For (2), I would be happy to have an example in any programming language, where the goal is to take the numpy array of floats and turn them into a similar native data structure. Assume we have already done base64 decoding and have a byte array, and that we also know the numpy dtype, dimensions, and any other metadata which will be needed. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Can I force Apache 2.2 connection close from inside a C module?

  - by Amos Shapira

  Hello, We'd like to have a more fine-grained control on the connections we serve in a C++ Apache 2.2 module (on CentOS 5). One of the connections needs to stay alive for a few multiple requests, so we set "KeepAlive" to "On" and set a short keep-alive period. But for every such connection we have a few more connections from the browser which we don't need to leave behind and instead want to force them to close after a single request. Some of these connections are on different ports (so we can distinguish them by port, since KeepAlive can be set per virtual host) and some request a different URL (so we can tell from the path and parameters that we don't want to leave them behind). Also for the one we do want to keep alive, we know that after a certain request we'd like to close it too. But so far the only way we found to "cancel" the keep-alive is to send a polite "Connection: close" header to the client. If the client is not well behaved, or malicious, then they can keep it open and waste our resources. Is there a way to tell Apache to close the connection from the server side? The documentation advises against just plain close(2) call on the socket since Apache needs to do some clean up before that's done. But is there some API or a trick to "override" the static "KeepAlive On" configuration dynamically (and convince Apache to call close(2))? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Paramaterising SQL in SSIS

  - by Anonymouslemming

  Hi all, I'm trying to paramaterize some queries in SSIS. After some reading, it sounds like my best option is to create one variable that contains my base sql, another that contains my criteria and a final variable that is evaluated as an expression that includes both of these. I want to end up with an SQL query that is effectively UPDATE mytable set something='bar' where something_else='foo' So my first two variables have the scope of my package and are as follows: Name: BaseSQL Data Type: String Value: UPDATE mytable set something = 'bar' where something_else = Name: MyVariable Data Type: String Value: foo My third variable has a scope of the data flow task where I want to use this SQL and is as follows: Name: SQLQuery Data Type: String Value: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" EvaluateAsExpression: True In the OLE DB Source, I then choose my connection and 'SQL command from variable' and select User::SQLQuery from the dropdown box. The Variable Value window then displays the following: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" This is as desired, and would provide the output I want from my DB. The variable name dropdown also contains User::BaseSQL and User::MyVariable so I believe that my namespaces are correct. However, when I then click preview, I get the following error when configuring an OLE DB Source (using SQL command from variable): TITLE: Microsoft Visual Studio Error at Set runtime in DB [Set runtime in myDb DB [1]]: SSIS Error Code DTS_E_OLEDBERROR. An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80040E14. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Statement(s) could not be prepared.". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Must declare the scalar variable "@".". (Microsoft Visual Studio) Can anyone advise what I'm missing or how I can resolve this please ? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

  - by Justin Grant

  I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

  Read the article

• [Qt] How to get rid of OCI.dll dependency when compiling static

  - by STL

  Hi, My application accesses an Oracle database through Qt's QSqlDatabase class. I'm compiling Qt as static for the release build, but I can't seem to be able to get rid of OCI.dll dependency. I'm trying to link against oci.lib (as available in Oracle's Instant Client with SDK). Here's my configure line : configure -qt-libjpeg -qt-zlib -qt-libpng -nomake examples -nomake demos -no-exceptions -no-stl -no-rtti -no-qt3support -no-scripttools -no-openssl -no-opengl -no-phonon -no-style-motif -no-style-cde -no-style-cleanlooks -no-style-plastique -static -release -opensource -plugin-sql-oci -plugin-sql-sqlite -platform win32-msvc2005 I link against oci.h and oci.lib in the SDK's folder by using : set INCLUDE=C:\oracle\instantclient\sdk\include;%INCLUDE% set LIB=C:\oracle\instantclient\sdk\lib\msvc;%LIB% Then, once Qt is compiled, I use the following lines in my *.pro file : QT += sql CONFIG += static LIBS += C:\oracle\instantclient\sdk\lib\msvc\oci.lib QTPLUGIN += qsqloci Then, in my main.cpp, I add the following commands to statically compile OCI plugin in the application : #include <QtPlugin> Q_IMPORT_PLUGIN(qsqloci) After compiling the project, I test it on my workstation and it works (as I have Oracle Instant Client installed). When I try on another workstation, I always get the message: This application has failed to start because OCI.dll was not found. Re-installing this application may fix this problem. I don't understand why I still need OCI.dll, as my statically linked application is supposed to link to oci.lib instead. Is there any Qt people here that might have a solution for me ? Thanks a lot ! STL

  Read the article

• RestSharp post object to WCF

  - by steve

  Im having an issue posting an object to my wcf rest webservice. On the WCF side I have the following: [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "", Method = "POST")] public void Create(myObject object) { //save some stuff to the db } When im debugging this never gets hit - it does however get hit when I remove the parameter so im guessing ive done something wrong on the restSharp side of things. Heres my code for that part: var client = new RestClient(ApiBaseUri); var request = new RestRequest(Method.POST); request.RequestFormat = DataFormat.Xml; request.AddBody(myObject); var response = client.Execute(request); Am I doing this wrong? How can the WCF side see my object? What way should I be making the reqest? Or should I be handling it differently WCF side? Things ive tried: request.AddObject(myObject); and request.AddBody(request.XmlSerialise.serialise(myObject)); Any help and understanding in what could possibly be wrong would be much appreciated. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Facebook Application with PHP running loosing session

  - by ArneRie

  Iam trying to build an Facebook Application based on PHP. The Application is running under php on my own Webhost inside an Canvas as iFrame. I have included the newest Client Library for PHP from Facebook: facebook-php-sdk-94fcb13 To Authorize the user inside my application iam trying to use Facebook Connect, like the example shipped with the Client. Everything works fine the 1st Login, but when i hit the F5 Key to reload the page, the session is lost and i have to login again. When i call my application outside of the Facebook Canvas everything is fine. Iam not sure, but i think my Browser (Chrome/FireFox - Ubuntu) is not allowing to store an cookie inside an iFrame. Does someone knows an solution for this Problem? Here are some Parts of the Sourcecode: $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'x', 'secret' => 'x', 'cookie' => 'true', )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); $facebook->setSession($session); $me = null; // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } // login or logout url will be needed depending on current user state. if ($me) { $logoutUrl = $facebook->getLogoutUrl(); } else { $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl(); }

  Read the article

• Systems design question: DB connection management in load-balanced n-tier

  - by aoven

  I'm wondering about the best approach to designing a DB connection manager for a load-balanced n-tier system. Classic n-tier looks like this: Client -> BusinessServer -> DBServer A load-balancing solution as I see it would then look like this: +--> ... +--+ +--> BusinessServer +--+--> SessionServer --+ Client -> Gateway --+--> BusinessServer +--| +--> DBServer +--> BusinessServer +--+--------------------+ +--> ... +--+ As pictured, the business server component is being load-balanced via multiple instances, and a hardware gateway is distributing the load among them. Session server probably needs to be situated outside the load-balancing array, because it manages state, which mustn't be duplicated. Barring any major errors in design so far, what is the best way to implement DB connection management? I've come up with a couple of options, but there may be others I'm not aware of: Introduce a new Broker component between the DBServer and the other components and let it handle the DB connections. The upside is that all the connections can be managed from a single point, which is very convenient. The downside is that now there is an additional "single point of failure" in the system. Other components must go through it for every request that involves DB in some way, which also makes this a bottleneck. Move the DB connection management into BusinessServer and SessionServer components and let each handle its own DB connections. The upside is that there is no additional "single point of failure" or bottleneck components. The downside is that there is also no control over possible conflicts and deadlocks apart from what DBServer itself can provide. What else can be done? FWIW: Technology is .NET, but none of the vendor-specific stacks are used (e.g. no WCF, MSMQ or the like).

  Read the article

• prevent javascript in the WMD editor's preview box

  - by Justin Grant

  There are many SO questions (e.g. here and here) about how to do server-side scrubbing of Markdown produced by the WMD editor to ensure the HTML generated doesn't contain malicious script, like this: <img onload="alert('haha');" src="http://www.google.com/intl/en_ALL/images/srpr/logo1w.png" /> Unfortunately, this still allows script to show up in the WMD client's preview box. I doubt this is a big deal since if you're scrubbing the HTML on the server, an attacker can't save the bad HTML so no one else will be able to see it later and have their cookies stolen or sessions hijacked by the bad script. But it's still kinda odd to allow an attacker to run any script in the context of your site, and it's probably a bad idea to allow the client preview window to allow different HTML than your server will allow. StackOverflow has clearly plugged this hole. How did they do it? [NOTE: I already figured this out but it required some tricky javascript debugging, so I'm answering my own question here to help others who may want to do ths same thing]

  Read the article

• JSP: How can I still get the code on my error page to run, even if I can't display it?

  - by Josh Hinman

  I've defined an error-page in my web.xml: <error-page> <exception-type>java.lang.Exception</exception-type> <location>/error.jsp</location> </error-page> In that error page, I have a custom tag that I created. The tag handler for this tag e-mails me the stacktrace of whatever error occurred. For the most part this works great. Where it doesn't work great is if the output has already begun being sent to the client at the time the error occurs. In that case, we get this: SEVERE: Exception Processing ErrorPage[exceptionType=java.lang.Exception, location=/error.jsp] java.lang.IllegalStateException I believe this error happens because we can't redirect a request to the error page after output has already started. The work-around I've used is to increase the buffer size on particularly large JSP pages. But I'm trying to write a generic error handler that I can apply to existing applications, and I'm not sure it's feasible to go through hundreds of JSP pages making sure their buffers are big enough. Is there a way to still allow my stack trace e-mail code to execute in this case, even if I can't actually display the error page to the client?

  Read the article

• Sending an email with browser capabilities and screen size etc.

  - by talkingnews

  A lot of my visitors are blind (with it being a site for the blind), and often when trying to diagnose problems, I'd like to know what version of browser etc they're using, whether flash is installed. Because more often than not, someone will swear they are using X, when in fact Y is installed. Currently, I'm using http://jsbrwsniff.sourceforge.net/usage.html piped into an email, but I've got 2 problems here: First of all, jsbrwsniff is quite "heavy" and hasn't been updated since early 2007, so there's a lot of -1's in the result. Secondly, if I call it as follows, the page reloads: <a href="#" onclick="sendEmail()">Email feedback</a> And if I call it like this, the page goes blank and looks like it's trying to infinitely load a blank page: <a href="javascript:sendEmail()">Email feedback</a> See the nightmare for yourself here: http://kingston.talking-newspapers.co.uk/ Now, I know there are 1001 articles and comments here and elsewhere saying "don't use browser sniffers, they can be spoofed (etc)", but honestly, you'll have to trust me that this is a significantly useful tool when you're talking someone in their more "senior years" and using a screenreader through "help about", when they've clicked the wrong window to start with! I'm using jquery anyway in the site, and I'm aware of $jQuery.browser and $jQuery.support, but these don't tell me the elements I need (like whether Flash is installed, and what version etc). I've looked everywhere for a jquery plugin for my needs, with no luck. Finally, if I have to stick to the current method of jsbrwsniff then it's not the end of the world, but if anyone knows a way of launching the user's email client populated with the information I need but WITHOUT refreshing or blanking the page, I'd love to know. BTW - there's a good reason for not using a webform, which is simply because it's easier for the screen-reader user to use an email client they are used to. Thanks!

  Read the article

• How do I abort a socket.recv() from another thread in python?

  - by Samuel Skånberg

  I have a main thread that waits for connection. It spawns client threads that will echo the response from the client (telnet in this case). But say that I want to close down all sockets and all threads after some time, like after 1 connection. How would I do? If I do clientSocket.close() from the main thread, it won't stop doing the recv. It will only stop if I first send something through telnet, then it will fail doing further sends and recvs. My code look like this: # Echo server program import socket from threading import Thread import time class ClientThread(Thread): def __init__(self, clientSocket): Thread.__init__(self) self.clientSocket = clientSocket def run(self): while 1: try: # It will hang here, even if I do close on the socket data = self.clientSocket.recv(1024) print "Got data: ", data self.clientSocket.send(data) except: break self.clientSocket.close() HOST = '' PORT = 6000 serverSocket = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) serverSocket.setsockopt(socket.SOL_SOCKET, socket.SO_REUSEADDR, 1) serverSocket.bind((HOST, PORT)) serverSocket.listen(1) clientSocket, addr = serverSocket.accept() print 'Got a new connection from: ', addr clientThread = ClientThread(clientSocket) clientThread.start() time.sleep(1) # This won't make the recv in the clientThread to stop immediately, # nor will it generate an exception clientSocket.close()

  Read the article

• How to detect a WCF session crash before calling a contract method?

  - by brain_pusher

  I am using a session mode for my WCF service. The problem is the following: if session is broken and no longer exists, client can't know it before calling a contract. For example, if the service has been restarted, the client's session id is invalid, because that session has been closed on the server side. I check the channel state before calling the contract and its value is CommunicationState.Opened even if session is already broken. So, when I call the contract after this check I get a CommunicationException with this message: The remote endpoint no longer recognizes this sequence. This is most likely due to an abort on the remote endpoint. The value of wsrm:Identifier is not a known Sequence identifier. The reliable session was faulted. Is there any workaround? I need a way to get an appropriate session state before calling a contract so that I can restore it without getting an exception. P.S. The CommunicationException type is general, so I can't detect a session crash by catching this exception. P.P.S. I have asked the similar question here, but in that case I didn't know the reason, now I don't know how to evade it.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386 387  | Next Page >