Search Results

Search found 44691 results on 1788 pages for 'first'.

Page 380/1788 | < Previous Page | 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386 387  | Next Page >

• Manually setting breakpoints in WinDBG

  - by chris

  I am trying to examine the assembly for an executable using WinDBG, but I am having a hard time getting to it. I want to set a breakpoint at the first instruction in my program, but when I try to do that manually (using the address of the module), WinDBG tells me that it is "unable to insert breakpoint" at that location due to an "Invalid access to memory location." I notice that when I create a breakpoint through the source code GUI, the address is not the same as the first part of my module (In my example: "Win32FileOpen", a simple program I wrote.) Is there a header of some sort that requires adding an offset to the address of my module? In another question, I saw the suggestion: "I would attempt to calculate the breakpoint address as: Module start + code start + code offset" but was unsure where to obtain those values. Can somebody please elaborate on this? The reason I don't just use the source GUI is that I want to be able to do this with a program that I may not have the source/symbols for. If there is an easier way to immediately start working with the executable I open, please let me know. (e.g. Opening an .exe Olly immediately shows me the assembly for that .exe, searching for referenced strings gives me results from that module, etc. WinDBG seems to start me off in ntdll.dll, which is not usually useful for me.) 0:000> lm start end module name 00000000`00130000 00000000`0014b000 Win32FileOpen C (private pdb symbols) C:\cfinley\code\Win32FileOpen\Debug\Win32FileOpen.pdb 00000000`73bd0000 00000000`73c2c000 wow64win (deferred) 00000000`73c30000 00000000`73c6f000 wow64 (deferred) 00000000`74fe0000 00000000`74fe8000 wow64cpu (deferred) 00000000`77750000 00000000`778f9000 ntdll (pdb symbols) c:\symbols\mssymbols\ntdll.pdb\15EB43E23B12409C84E3CC7635BAF5A32\ntdll.pdb 00000000`77930000 00000000`77ab0000 ntdll32 (deferred) 0:000> bu 00000000`00130000 0:000> bl 0 e x86 00000000`001413a0 0001 (0001) 0:**** Win32FileOpen!main <-- One that is generated via GUI 1 e x86 00000000`00130000 0001 (0001) 0:**** Win32FileOpen!__ImageBase <-- One I tried to set manually 0:000> g Unable to insert breakpoint 1 at 00000000`00130000, Win32 error 0n998 "Invalid access to memory location." bp1 at 00000000`00130000 failed WaitForEvent failed ntdll!LdrpDoDebuggerBreak+0x31: 00000000`777fcb61 eb00 jmp ntdll!LdrpDoDebuggerBreak+0x33 (00000000`777fcb63)

  Read the article

• Autofac Unit Testing using RegisterControllers()

  - by Kane

  I am having problems using Autofac 2.1.13 and writing my unit tests for my ASP.NET MV2 application. I can't seem to resolve controllers when using the RegisterControllers method. I have tried using the Resolve<() and ControllerBuilder.Current.GetControllerFactory().CreateController() methods but to no avail. I am sure that I've missed something simple here so can anyone assist? This was my first attempt at resolving the HomeController - but does not work. ContainerBuilder builder = new ContainerBuilder(); builder.RegisterControllers(typeof(HomeController).Assembly); IContainer container = builder.Build(); // Throws a Throws a A first chance exception of type 'Autofac.Core.Registration.ComponentNotRegisteredException' occurred in Autofac.dll var homeController = container.Resolve<HomeController>(); Similarly this does not work either. ContainerBuilder builder = new ContainerBuilder(); builder.RegisterControllers(typeof(HomeController).Assembly); IContainer container = builder.Build(); var containerProvider = new ContainerProvider(container); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(new AutofacControllerFactory(containerProvider)); var request = new Mock<HttpRequestBase>(MockBehavior.Loose); request.Setup(r => r.Path).Returns("Path"); var httpContext = new Mock<HttpContextBase>(MockBehavior.Loose); httpContext.SetupGet(c => c.Request).Returns(request.Object); ControllerBuilder.Current.GetControllerFactory().CreateController(new RequestContext(httpContext.Object, new RouteData()), "home"); Any assistance would be greatly appreciated. I should note if I register my controllers without using the RegisterControllers() method my unit tests work. My question would seem to be limited to specifically using the RegisterControllers() method.

  Read the article

• RIA Services EntitySet does not support 'Edit' opperation

  - by Savvas Sopiadis

  Hello everbody! Making my first steps in RIA Services (VS2010Beta2) and i encountered this problem: created an EF Model (no POCOs), generic repository on top of it and a RIA Service(hosted in an ASP.NET MVC application) and tryed to get data from within the ASP.NET MVC application: worked well. Next step: Silverlight client. Got a reference to the RIAService (through its context), queried for all the records of the repository and got them into the SL application as well (using this code sample): private ObservableCollection<Culture> _cultures = new ObservableCollection<Culture>(); public ObservableCollection<Culture> cultures { get { return _cultures; } set { _cultures = value; RaisePropertyChanged("cultures"); } } .... //Get cultures EntityQuery<Culture> queryCultures = from cu in dsCtxt.GetAllCulturesQuery() select cu; loCultures = dsCtxt.Load(queryCultures); loCultures.Completed += new EventHandler(lo_Completed); .... void loAnyCulture_Completed(object sender, EventArgs e) { ObservableCollection<Culture> temp= new ObservableCollection<Culture>loAnyCulture.Entities); AnyCulture = temp[0]; } The problem is this: whenever i try to edit some data of a record (in this example the first record) i get this error: This EntitySet of type 'Culture' does not support the 'Edit' operation. I thought that i did something weird and tryed to create an object of type Culture and assign a value to it: it worked well! What am i missing? Do i have to declare an EntitySet? Do i have to mark it? Do i have to...what? Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• Cannot import the following keyfile: blah.pfx. The keyfile may be password protected.

  - by JasonD

  We just upgraded our Visual Studio 2008 projects to VS2010. All of our assemblies were strong signed using a Verisign code signing certificate. Since the upgrade we continuously get the following error: Cannot import the following key file: companyname.pfx. The key file may be password protected. To correct this, try to import the certificate again or manually install the certificate to the Strong Name CSP with the following key container name: VS_KEY_3E185446540E7F7A This happens on some developer machines and not others. Some methods used to fix this that worked some of the time include: re-installing the key file from Windows Explorer (right click on the PFX file and click Install) installing VS2010 on a fresh machine for the first time prompts you for the password the first time you open the project, and then it works. On machines upgraded from VS2008, you don't get this option. I've tried using the SN.EXE utility to register the key with the Strong Name CSP as the error message suggests, but whenever I run the tool with any options using the version that came with VS2010, SN.EXE just lists its command line arguments instead of doing anything. This happens regardless of what arguments I supply. Does anyone know WHY this is happening, and have clear steps to fix it? I'm about to give up on Click Once installs and Microsoft Code Signing. Thanks for any help!

  Read the article

• MVC Html.ActionLink not passing querystring properly

  - by Dave Hanna

  This seems like it should be pretty straight forward, but I'm apparently confused. I have a List view that displays a paged list. At the bottom I have a set of actionlinks: <%= Html.ActionLink("First Page", "List", new { page = 1} ) %> &nbsp; <%= Html.ActionLink("Prev Page", "List", new { page = Model.PageNumber - 1 }) %> &nbsp; <%= Html.ActionLink("Next Page", "List", new { page = Model.PageNumber + 1 }) %> &nbsp; <%= Html.ActionLink("Last Page", "List", new { page = Model.LastPage } )%> I'm using the basic default routes setup, except with "List" substituted for "Index": routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "List", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); The problem is that the ActionLink helpers are generating links of the form: http://localhost:2083/Retrofit?page=2 rather than http://localhost:2083/Retrofit/?page=2 (with the trailing slash after the controller name & before the query string). When the first URL is routed, it completely loses the query string - if I look at Request.QueryString by the time it gets to the controller, it's null. If I enter the second URL (with the trailing slash), it comes in properly (i.e., QueryString of "page=2"). So how can I either get the ActionLink helper to generate the right URL, or get the Routing to properly parse what ActionLink is generating? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Ajax call from a form rendered as Ajax response (jQuery + Grails: chaining ajax requests)

  - by bsreekanth

  Hello, I was expecting the below scenario common, but couldn't find much help online. I have a form loaded through Ajax (say, create entity form). It is loaded through a button click (load) event $("#bt-create").click(function(){ $ ('#pid').load('/controller/vehicleModel/create3'); return false; }); the response (a form) is written in to the pid element. The name and id of the form is ajax-form, and the submit event is attached to an ajax post request $(function() { $("#ajax-form").submit(function(){ // do something... var url = "/app/controller/save" $.post(url, $(this).serialize(), function(data) { alert( data ) ; /// alert data from server }); I could make the above ajax operations individually. That is the ajax post operation succeeds if it calls from a static html file. But if I chain the requests (after completing the first), so that it calls from the output form generated by the first request, nothing happens. I could see the post method is called through firebug. Is there a better way to handle above flow? One more interesting thing I noticed. As you could see, I use grails as my platform. If I keep the javascripts in the main.gsp (master layout), the submit event would not register as the breakpoint is not hit in firebug. But, if I define the javascript in the template file (which renders the form above), the breakpoint is hit, but as I explained, the action is not called at the controller. I changes the javascript to the head section but same result. any help greatly appreciated. thanks, Babu.

  Read the article

• Spring Framework 3 and session attributes

  - by newbie

  I have form object that I set to request in GET request handler in my Spring controller. First time user enters to page, a new form object should be made and set to request. If user sends form, then form object is populated from request and now form object has all user givern attributes. Then form is validated and if validation is ok, then form is saved to database. If form is not validated, I want to save form object to session and then redirect to GET request handling page. When request is redirected to GET handler, then it should check if session contains form object. I have figured out that there is @SessionAttributes("form") annotation in Spring, but for some reason following doesnt work, because at first time, session attribute form is null and it gives error: org.springframework.web.HttpSessionRequiredException: Session attribute 'form' required - not found in session Here is my controller: @RequestMapping(value="form", method=RequestMethod.GET) public ModelAndView viewForm(@ModelAttribute("form") Form form) { ModelAndView mav = new ModelAndView("form"); if(form == null) form = new Form(); mav.addObject("form", form); return mav; } @RequestMapping(value="form", method=RequestMethod.POST) @Transactional(readOnly = true) public ModelAndView saveForm(@ModelAttribute("form") Form form) { FormUtils.populate(form, request); if(form.validate()) { formDao.save(); } else { return viewForm(form); } return null; }

  Read the article

• Delphi Exception handling problem with multiple Exception handling blocks

  - by Robert Oschler

  I'm using Delphi Pro 6 on Windows XP with FastMM 4.92 and the JEDI JVCL 3.0. Given the code below, I'm having the following problem: only the first exception handling block gets a valid instance of E. The other blocks match properly with the class of the Exception being raised, but E is unassigned (nil). For example, given the current order of the exception handling blocks when I raise an E1 the block for E1 matches and E is a valid object instance. However, if I try to raise an E2, that block does match, but E is unassigned (nil). If I move the E2 catching block to the top of the ordering and raise an E1, then when the E1 block matches E is is now unassigned. With this new ordering if I raise an E2, E is properly assigned when it wasn't when the E2 block was not the first block in the ordering. Note I tried this case with a bare-bones project consisting of just a single Delphi form. Am I doing something really silly here or is something really wrong? Thanks, Robert type E1 = class(EAbort) end; E2 = class(EAbort) end; procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); begin try raise E1.Create('hello'); except On E: E1 do begin OutputDebugString('E1'); end; On E: E2 do begin OutputDebugString('E2'); end; On E: Exception do begin OutputDebugString('E(all)'); end; end; // try() end;

  Read the article

• Entity Framework - adding new items via a navigation property

  - by Robert

  I have come across what appears to be very peculiar behaviour using entity framework 4.0. I have a User entity, which has a Company (A Company has many Users). If I do this, everything works as expected and I get a nice shiny new user in the database: var company = _model.Companies.First(); company.Users.Add(new User(1, "John", "Smith")); _model.SaveChanges(); However, if I do this, then I get nothing new in the database, and no exceptions thrown: var existingUser = _model.Users.First(); var company = existingUser.Company; company.Users.Add(new User(1, "John", "Smith")); _model.SaveChanges(); So it appears that if I add a User to the Company that is pulled directly from the model, then everything works fine. However if the User is added to a Company that is pulled as a navigation property of another object, then it doesn't work. Can someone tell me if this is expected behaviour, or if there is something I can do to make it so that it is? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Delph Exception handling problem with multiple Exception handling blocks

  - by Robert Oschler

  I'm using Delphi Pro 6 on Windows XP with FastMM 4.92 and the JEDI JVCL 3.0. Given the code below, I'm having the following problem: only the first exception handling block gets a valid instance of E. The other blocks match properly with the class of the Exception being raised, but E is unassigned (nil). For example, given the current order of the exception handling blocks when I raise an E1 the block for E1 matches and E is a valid object instance. However, if I try to raise an E2, that block does match, but E is unassigned (nil). If I move the E2 catching block to the top of the ordering and raise an E1, then when the E1 block matches E is is now unassigned. With this new ordering if I raise an E2, E is properly assigned when it wasn't when the E2 block was not the first block in the ordering. Note I tried this case with a bare-bones project consisting of just a single Delphi form. Am I doing something really silly here or is something really wrong? Thanks, Robert type E1 = class(EAbort) end; E2 = class(EAbort) end; procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); begin try raise E1.Create('hello'); except On E: E1 do begin OutputDebugString('E1'); end; On E: E2 do begin OutputDebugString('E2'); end; On E: Exception do begin OutputDebugString('E(all)'); end; end; // try() end;

  Read the article

• Why do I get a DependencyProperty.UnsetValue when converting a value in a MultiBinding?

  - by eskerber

  I have an extremely simple IMultiValueConverter that simply OR's two values. In the example below, I want to invert the first value using an equally simple boolean inverter. <MultiBinding Converter="{StaticResource multiBoolToVis}"> <Binding Path="ConditionA" Converter="{StaticResource boolInverter}"/> <Binding Path="ConditionB"/> </MultiBinding> public class BoolInverterConverter : IValueConverter { #region IValueConverter Members public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { if (value is bool) { return !((bool)value); } return null; } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } #endregion } When I include the boolInverter, the first value in the MultiValueConverter becomes a "DependencyProperty.UnsetValue". There are no problems when I do not use the converter (other than not the logic I am aiming for, of course). Am I missing something? Stepping through the debugger shows that the InverseBoolConverter is properly inverting the value I pass it, but that value is then not being 'sent' to the MultiValueConverter.

  Read the article

• JQuery Json error: Object doesn't support this property or method

  - by Abu Hamzah

  ERROR: Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method i am using WCF service to pull the data and its very simple for the purpose of test and it does returning me the data from wcf service but it fails on json2.js on line number 314-316 // We split the first stage into 4 regexp operations in order to work around // crippling inefficiencies in IE's and Safari's regexp engines. First we // replace all backslash pairs with '@' (a non-JSON character). Second, we // replace all simple value tokens with ']' characters. Third, we delete all // open brackets that follow a colon or comma or that begin the text. Finally, // we look to see that the remaining characters are only whitespace or ']' or // ',' or ':' or '{' or '}'. If that is so, then the text is safe for eval. if (/^[\],:{}\s]*$/.test(text.replace(/\\["\\\/bfnrtu]/g, '@'). replace(/"[^"\\\n\r]*"|true|false|null|-?\d+(?:\.\d*)?(?:[eE][+\-]?\d+)?/g, ']'). replace(/(?:^|:|,)(?:\s*\[)+/g, ''))) { here is what i am doing function serviceProxy(wjOrderServiceURL) { var _I = this; this.ServiceURL = wjOrderServiceURL; // *** Call a wrapped object this.invoke = function (options) { // Default settings var settings = { serviceMethod: '', data: null, callback: null, error: null, type: "POST", processData: false, contentType: "application/json", dataType: "text", bare: false }; if (options) { $.extend(settings, options); } function GetFederalHolidays() { $("#dContacts1").empty().html('Searching for Active Contacts...'); ContactServiceProxy.invoke({ serviceMethod: "Holidays", callback: function (response) { // ProcessActiveContacts1(response); debugger }, error: function (xhr, errorMsg, thrown) { postErrorAndUnBlockUI(xhr, errorMsg, thrown); } }); } any help what iam doing wrong? i try to change from dataType: text to json but i get the same error above.

  Read the article

• T4 Toolbox - mixing class feature and statement blocks

  - by Mauricio Scheffer

  I'm a T4 newbie trying to use T4 Toolbox to generate F# code based on this answer, but it seems that class feature blocks can't be mixed with statement blocks. Here's my code: <#@ template language="C#" hostspecific="True" debug="True" #> <#@ output extension="txt" #> <#@ include file="T4Toolbox.tt" #> <# FSharpTemplate template = new FSharpTemplate(); template.Output.Project = @"..\Library1\Library1.fsproj"; template.Output.File = "Module2.fs"; template.Render(); #> <#+ class FSharpTemplate: Template { public override string TransformText() { #> module Module2 <# for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { #> <#= i #> <# } #> <#+ return this.GenerationEnvironment.ToString(); } } #> And I get this error: A Statement cannot appear after the first class feature in the template. Only boilerplate, expressions and other class features are allowed after the first class feature block. So... how can I rewrite the template to achieve this?

  Read the article

• iPhone SDK 3.2 UIGestureRecognizer interfering with UIView animations?

  - by Brian Cooley

  Are there known issues with gesture recognizers and the UIView class methods for animation? I am having problems with a sequence of animations on a UIImageView from UIGestureRecognizer callback. If the sequence of animations is started from a standard callback like TouchUpInside, the animation works fine. If it is started via the UILongPressGestureRecognizer, then the first animation jumps to the end and the second animation immediately begins. Here's a sample that illustrates my problem. In the .xib for the project, I have a UIImageView that is connected to the viewToMove IBOutlet. I also have a UIButton connected to the startButton IBOutlet, and I have connected its TouchUpInside action to the startButtonClicked IBAction. The TouchUpInside action works as I want it to, but the longPressGestureRecognizer skips to the end of the first animation after about half a second. When I NSLog the second animation (animateTo200) I can see that it is called twice when a long press starts the animation but only once when the button's TouchUpInside action starts the animation. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; UILongPressGestureRecognizer *longPressRecognizer = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(startButtonClicked)]; NSArray *recognizerArray = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:longPressRecognizer, nil]; [startButton setGestureRecognizers:recognizerArray]; [longPressRecognizer release]; [recognizerArray release]; } -(IBAction)startButtonClicked { if (viewToMove.center.x < 150) { [self animateTo200:@"Right to left" finished:nil context:nil]; } else { [self animateTo100:@"Right to left" finished:nil context:nil]; } } -(void)animateTo100:(NSString *)animationID finished:(NSNumber *)finished context:(void *)context { [UIView beginAnimations:@"Right to left" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:4]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(animateTo200:finished:context:)]; viewToMove.center = CGPointMake(100.0, 100.0); [UIView commitAnimations]; } -(void)animateTo200:(NSString *)animationID finished:(NSNumber *)finished context:(void *)context { [UIView beginAnimations:@"Left to right" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:4]; viewToMove.center = CGPointMake(200.0, 200.0); [UIView commitAnimations]; }

  Read the article

• Mixed surrogate composite key insert in JPA 2.0, PostgreSQL and Hibernate 3.5

  - by Gerald

  First off, we are using JPA 2.0 and Hibernate 3.5 as persistence provider on a PostgreSQL database. We successfully use the sequence of the database via the JPA 2.0 annotations as an auto-generated value for single-field-surrogate-keys and all works fine. Now we are implementing a bi-temporal database-scheme that requires a mixed key in the following manner: Table 1: id (pk, integer, auto-generated-sequence) validTimeBegin (pk, dateTime) validTimeEnd (dateTime) firstName (varChar) Now we have a problem. You see, if we INSERT a new element, the field id is auto-generated and that's fine. Only, if we want to UPDATE the field within this scheme, then we have to change the validTimeBegin column WITHOUT changing the id-field and insert it as a new row like so: BEFORE THE UPDATE OF THE ROW: |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | id| validTimeBegin | validTimeEnd | firstName | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | 1| 2010-05-01-10:00:00.000 | NULL | Gerald | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| AFTER THE UPDATE OF THE ROW happening at exactly 2010-05-01-10:35:01.788 server-time: (we update the person with the id:1 to reflect his new first name...) |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | id| validTimeBegin | validTimeEnd | firstName | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | 1| 2010-05-01-10:00:00.000 | 2010-05-01-10:35:01.788 | Gerald | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | 1| 2010-05-01-10:35:01.788 | NULL | Jerry | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| So our problem is, that this doesn't work at all using an auto-generated-sequence for the field id because when inserting a new row then the id ALWAYS is auto-generated although it really is part of a composite key which should sometimes behave differently. So my question is: Is there a way to tell hibernate via JPA to stop auto-generating the id-field in the case I want to generate a new variety of the same person and go on as usual in every other case or do I have to take over the whole id-generation with custom code? Thanks in advance, Gerald

  Read the article

• Getting rid of scroll bar for position: absolute inside of position:relative inside of overflow:auto

  - by Marcos

  Hey guys, my first question here on stack overflow. Trying to get something pretty simple to work, I'm sure I'm missing something quite obvious. Still getting used to the "standard" css, too many years working with non-functional ones! Heh. So, sample of what I'm doing: <div style="overflow: auto; border: 1px solid"> hello <div style="position: relative; z-index: 99999; top: 0px; left: 0px;"> <div style="z-index: 99999; overflow-y: hidden; position: absolute; overflow: hidden; height: 200px; left: 0; auto: 0"> <ul> <li >New</li> <li >Old</li> </ul> </div> </div> </div> In essence: The first div is a container, that I would like to automatically overflow as content is added. Inside of that container, I have a popup menu, which I have simplified here. The popup menu appears (as it should) directly under "hello". My problem, however, is that instead of the popup menu "coming out" of the parent, as would be expected by the absolute position, it is actually causing a scrollbar to appear on the parent. I know that if I take otu the "position: relative" it works, but then it no longer appars where I want it (directly under the previous element). What am I missing here? EDIT: Sample here: http://marcos.metx.net/OverflowTest.htm

  Read the article

• Xdebug: remote debugging won't stop at breakpoints

  - by Bryan M.

  I'm having a problem with xdebug not stopping at breakpoints when using remote debugging (everything is fine when running scripts via the command line). It will break at the first line of the program, then exit, not catching any breakpoints. It used to work fine, until I switched over to using MacPorts for Apache and PHP. I've tried re-compiling it serveral times (with several versions), but no dice. I'm using PHP 5.3.1 and Xdebug 2.1.0-beta3 I've also tried at least 3 different debugging programs (MacGDBp, Netbeans and JetBrains Web IDE). My php.ini settings look like: [xdebug] xdebug.remote_enable=1 xdebug.remote_handler=dbgp xdebug.remote_mode=req xdebug.remote_port=9000 xdebug.remote_host=localhost xdebug.idekey=webide And when I log the debugger output, setting a breakpoint looks like this/; <- breakpoint_set -i 895 -t line -f file:///Users/WM_imac/Sites/wm/debug_test.php -n 13 -s enabled -> <response xmlns="urn:debugger_protocol_v1" xmlns:xdebug="http://xdebug.org/dbgp/xdebug" command="breakpoint_set" transaction_id="895" state="enabled" id="890660002"></response> When run, the debugger will get the context of the first line of the application, then send the detach and stop messages. However, this line is output when starting the debugger. <- feature_get -i 885 -n breakpoint_types -> <response xmlns="urn:debugger_protocol_v1" xmlns:xdebug="http://xdebug.org/dbgp/xdebug" command="feature_get" transaction_id="885" feature_name="breakpoint_types" supported="1"><![CDATA[line conditional call return exception]]></response> Does 'line conditional call return exception' mean anything?

  Read the article

• ExtJS: Combobox in EditorGridPanel not selecting the desired item (with test case)

  - by TomH

  I'm using ExtJS to create an EditorGridPanel with a combobox for an editor in a cell. The combobox in my EditorGridPanel that is not working as I'd expect it to. When the user types the first letter of an item in the drop down list, the combobox seems to ignore it and select the first item in the list. I can reproduce the error consistently and have put together a test case here: http://cluebucket.com/dev/testcase/testcase.html Load the page and reproduce the behavior by the following -- note that this is all done using the keyboard, no mouse clicks: Click 'Add Record' (A new row is added to the grid) enter text in the text field. TAB to the Priority field without selecting anything (None will remain selected) TAB out of the Priority field. (A new row is added to the grid) enter text and TAB to the Priority field TYPE v (Very High is selected) TAB out of the priority field (A new row is added to the grid) enter text and TAB to the Priority field Type v (None is selected, but Very High should have been) TAB out of the priority field Enter text and TAB to the priority field Type l ('el') (Low is selected) TAB out, enter text, TAB to priority Type l (None is selected) It appears that whenever the user attempts to select the same value that was selected in the previous row, the combobox selects None. Any ideas? The code is available at cluebucket.com/dev/testcase/js/testcase.js Thoughts/Pointers/Corrections are appreciated!! thanks tom

  Read the article

• Why doesn't TransactionScope work with Entity Framework?

  - by NotDan

  See the code below. If I initialize more than one entity context, then I get the following exception on the 2nd set of code only. If I comment out the second set it works. {"The underlying provider failed on Open."} Inner: {"Communication with the underlying transaction manager has failed."} Inner: {"Error HRESULT E_FAIL has been returned from a call to a COM component."} Note that this is a sample app and I know it doesn't make sense to create 2 contexts in a row. However, the production code does have reason to create multiple contexts in the same TransactionScope, and this cannot be changed. Edit Here is a previous question of me trying to set up MS-DTC. It seems to be enabled on both the server and the client. I'm not sure if it is set up correctly. Also note that one of the reasons I am trying to do this, is that existing code within the TransactionScope uses ADO.NET and Linq 2 Sql... I would like those to use the same transaction also. (That probably sounds crazy, but I need to make it work if possible). http://stackoverflow.com/questions/794364/how-do-i-use-transactionscope-in-c Solution Windows Firewall was blocking the connections to MS-DTC. using(TransactionScope ts = new System.Transactions.TransactionScope()) { using (DatabaseEntityModel o = new DatabaseEntityModel()) { var v = (from s in o.Advertiser select s).First(); v.AcceptableLength = 1; o.SaveChanges(); } //-> By commenting out this section, it works using (DatabaseEntityModel o = new DatabaseEntityModel()) { //Exception on this next line var v = (from s1 in o.Advertiser select s1).First(); v.AcceptableLength = 1; o.SaveChanges(); } //-> ts.Complete(); }

  Read the article

• xml parsing using nsxmlParser in iphone

  - by filthynight

  hi all, I have a problem in parsing xml from google api, the api xml looks like this ....... Now the problem is that first of all, the tags are different, like first parent tag name is "abc" and second parent tag is "efg", further more the inner tags are different as well. i have modified code got from web that it parses another url, but in this case since the tags keeps on changing it does not work. the url = "http://www.google.com/ig/api?weather=anaheim,ca" Source Code (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser didStartElement:(NSString *)elementName namespaceURI:(NSString *)namespaceURI qualifiedName:(NSString *)qName attributes:(NSDictionary *)attributeDict{ //NSLog(@"found this element: %@", elementName); if (currentElement) { [currentElement release]; currentElement = nil; } currentElement = [elementName copy]; NSString *thisOwner = [attributeDict objectForKey:@"data"]; NSLog(@"element Name-------: %@", thisOwner); if ([elementName isEqualToString:@"forecast_information"]) //|| [elementName isEqualToString:@"current_conditions"] || [elementName isEqualToString:@"forecast_conditions"]) { // clear out our story item caches... //NSString *nm = [[attributeDict objectForKey:@"city"] stringValue]; //NSLog(@"value...%@",nm); item = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; currentTitle = [[NSMutableString alloc] init]; currentDate = [[NSMutableString alloc] init]; currentSummary = [[NSMutableString alloc] init]; currentLink = [[NSMutableString alloc] init]; [item setObject:currentLink forKey:@"postal_code"]; [item setObject:currentSummary forKey:@"current_date_time"]; [item setObject:currentDate forKey:@"unit_system"]; NSLog(@"adding story: %@", currentTitle); [stories addObject:[item copy]]; } } I have another function didEndElement where the values are assigned in the array, but i could not figure out how to assign values of an attribute. Can somebody please help me in this regards Thanks!

  Read the article

• Using oauth2_access_token to get connections in linkedIn

  - by Pedro

  I'm trying to get the connections in linkedIn using their API, but when I try to retrieve the connections I get a 401 unauthorized error. in the official documentation says You must use an access token to make an authenticated call on behalf of a user Make the API calls You can now use this access_token to make API calls on behalf of this user by appending "oauth2_access_token=access_token" at the end of the API call that you wish to make. The API call that I'm trying to do is the following Error -- http://api.linkedin.com/v1/people/~/connections:(id,headline,first-name,last-name)?format=json&oauth2_access_token=access_token I have tried to do it with the following endpoint without any problems. OK -- https://api.linkedin.com/v1/people/~:(id,first-name,last-name,formatted-name,date-of-birth,industry,email-address,location,headline,picture-urls::(original))?format=json&oauth2_access_token=access_token this list of endpoints for the connections API are described here http://developer.linkedin.com/documents/connections-api I just copied and pasted one endpoint from there, so the question is what's the problem with the endpoint for getting the connections? what am I missing? EDIT: for the preAuth Url I'm using https://www.linkedin.com/uas/oauth2/authorization?response_type=code&client_id=ConsumerKey&scope=r_fullprofile%20r_emailaddress%20r_network&state&state=NewGuid&redirect_uri=Encoded_Url https://www.linkedin.com/uas/oauth2/accessToken?grant_type=authorization_code&code=QueryString_Code&redirect_uri=EncodedCallback&client_id=ConsummerKey&client_secret=ConsumerSecret please find attached the login screen requesting the permissions EDIT2: Switched to https and worked like a charm!

  Read the article

• UISearchBar and UINavigationItem

  - by tbehunin

  I can't seem to get a UISearchBar to position itself from the far left to the far right in the navigation bar. In the -(void)viewDidLoad method, I have the following code: `UISearchBar *sb = [[UISearchBar alloc] initWithFrame:self.tableView.tableHeaderView.frame]; sb.delegate = self; self.navigationItem.titleView = sb; [sb sizeToFit]; [sb release];` When you build and run, it looks just fine at first glance. However, looking more closely, you can tell there is a margin/space on the left. This wouldn't be a big deal in the grand scheme of things, but when I tap the search bar to start a search, I animate the cancel button into view. Because the search bar is positioned slightly to the right, the animation is jerky and the cancel button falls off the end like so: link text It seems as if the UINavigationItem is like a table with three cells, where there is a padding on the first and last which I can't remove - nor does there seem to be a way to 'merge' it all together and then place the search bar there. I know this look is possible, because the AppStore search has a search bar in the navigation bar and it goes all the way to the edges. Anyone know how to get the search bar to go all the way to the edges so my slide-in cancel button animation will work properly?

  Read the article

• Android "single top" launch mode and onNewIntent method

  - by Rich

  I read in the Android documentation that by setting my Activity's launchMode property to singleTop OR by adding the FLAG_ACTIVITY_SINGLE_TOP flag to my Intent, that calling startActivity(intent) would reuse a single Activity instance and give me the Intent in the onNewIntent callback. I did both of these things, and onNewIntent never fires and onCreate fires every time. The docs also say that this.getIntent() returns the intent that was first passed to the Activity when it was first created. In onCreate I'm calling getIntent and I'm getting a new one every time (I'm creating the intent object in another activity and adding an extra to it...this extra should be the same every time if it was returning me the same intent object). All this leads me to believe that my activity is not acting like a "single top", and I don't understand why. To add some background in case I'm simply missing a required step, here's my Activity declaration in the manifest and the code I'm using to launch the activity. The Activity itself doesn't do anything worth mentioning in regards to this: in AndroidManifest.xml: <activity android:name=".ArtistActivity" android:label="Artist" android:launchMode="singleTop"> </activity> in my calling Activity: Intent i = new Intent(); i.putExtra(EXTRA_KEY_ARTIST, id); i.setClass(this, ArtistActivity.class); i.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_SINGLE_TOP); startActivity(i);

  Read the article

• How to populate a generic list of objects in C# from SQL database

  - by developr

  I am just learning ASP.NET c# and trying to incorporate best practices into my applications. Everything that I read says to layer my applications into DAL, BLL, UI, etc based on separation of concerns. Instead of passing datatables around, I am thinking about using custom objects so that I am loosely coupled to my data layer and can take advantage of intellisense in VS. I assume these objects would be considered DTOs? First, where do these objects reside in my layers? BLL, DAL, other? Second, when populating from SQL, should I loop through a data reader to populate the list or first fill a data table, then loop through the table to populate the list? I know you should close the database connection as soon as possible, but it seems like even more overhead to populate the data table and then loop through that for the list. Third, everything I see these days says use Linq2SQL. I am planning to learn Linq2SQL, but at this time I am working with a legacy database that doesn't have foreign keys setup and I do not have the ability to fix it atm. Also, I want to learn more about c# before I start getting into ORM solutions like nHibernate. At the same time I don't want to type out all the connection and SQL plumbing for every query. Is it ok to use the Enterprise DAAB for now?

  Read the article

• Calling Matlab's MLApp.MLAppClass.FEval from F#

  - by Matthew

  Matlab provides a COM interface that supports remote execution of arbitrary functions (and code snippets). In particular, it has an Feval method that calls a given Matlab function. The third parameter to this method, pvarArgOut, has COM type VARIANT*, and appears in the Visual Studio F# editor as an argument of type: pvarArgOut: byref<obj> The following code calls interp1, which in Matlab returns a matrix (i.e. 2D double array) result, as is normal for most Matlab functions. let matlab = new MLApp.MLAppClass() let vector_to_array2d (v : vector) = Array2D.init v.Length 1 (fun i j -> v.[i]) let interp1 (xs : vector) (ys : vector) (xi : vector) = let yi : obj = new obj() matlab.Feval("interp1", 1, ref yi, vector_to_array2d xs, vector_to_array2d ys, vector_to_array2d xi) yi :?> float[,] This code compiles fine, but when calling interp1, I get a COM exception: A first chance exception of type 'System.Reflection.TargetInvocationException' occurred in mscorlib.dll A first chance exception of type 'System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException' occurred in mscorlib.dll An unhandled exception of type 'System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException' occurred in mscorlib.dll Additional information: Invalid callee. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80020010 (DISP_E_BADCALLEE)) I get the same error whether initialize yi with a new obj, a new Array2D, or null. How does F# translate VARIANT output arguments?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386 387  | Next Page >