Search Results

Search found 30347 results on 1214 pages for 'public speaking'.

Page 380/1214 | < Previous Page | 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386 387  | Next Page >

  • Email Proxy Ideas

    - by jtnire
    Hi Everyone, I wish to host some managed email servers for some customers. Each customer will have their own email server which will be an all-in-one virtual machine running postfix, dovecot and some webmail suite. Even though each customer will have their own server, I do not wish to give each email server it's own public facing IP. I wish to avail the use of proxy servers so all customers use the same public IP. As for the "smtp-in" from the public internet, this isn't a problem as I can set up many mx servers (using postfix) which will store-and-forward the mail to the correct server (using transport maps). As for the IMAP access from the customer, I was thinking of using perdition which is an IMAP proxy - I believe that this will suit my needs. I am confused however on what to use for the "smtp-out" proxy. The customers will have to authenticate with their receptive email server, however they will have to go via a proxy of some sort as they won't have direct access to their server instance. It probably can't be a store-and-forward proxy either. Does anyone have any idea on what I could use here? Many Thanks

    Read the article

  • Possible Hack with FTP - What are the solutions?

    - by iamrohitbanga
    I was reading the FTP rfc and hence had this idea. Suppose there are several public ftp servers that allow anonymous user login. I open a control connection on port 21 to each of these servers. Now suppose there is a web server a.com with ip address x.y.z.w listening on port 80. FTP allows a user to specify the host on which the data connection is to be setup. So a user specifies the host and port number of a.com web server. Now the ftp server starts sending data to a.com for which it is not a valid HTTP request and hence it is rejected. But a.com notes that the invalid http request came from a public ftp server and not my ip address. Can this not lead to a distributed attack by utilizing all public ftp servers. worse still the the data being sent by ftp server could be a valid http request which could trigger a.com to send a file back to the ftp server. Is there a solution for this or is it no problem at all.

    Read the article

  • iptables, forward traffic for ip not active on the host itself

    - by gucki
    I have kvm guest which's netword card is conntected to the host using a tap device. The tap device is part of a bridge on the host together with eth0 so it can access the public network. So far everything works, the guest can access the public network and it can be accessed from the public network. Now the kvm process on the host provides a vnc server for the guest which listens on 127.0.0.1:5901 on the host. Is there any way to make this vnc server accessible by the ip address which the guest is using (ex. 192.168.0.249), without interrupting the guest from using the same ip (port 5901 is not used by the guest)? It should also work when the guest is not using any ip address at all. So basically I just want to fake IP xx is on the host and only answer/ forward traffic to port 5901 to the host itself. I tried using this NAT rule on the host, but it doesn't work. Ip forwarding is enabled at the host. iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -p tcp --dst 192.168.0.249 --dport 5901 -j DNAT --to-destination 127.0.0.1:5901 I assume this is because the IP 192.168.0.249 is not not bound to any interfaces and so no ARP requests for it get answered and so no packets for this IP arrive at the host. How can make it work? :)

    Read the article

  • Reverse NAT Setup for Hyper-V on Win 2008 R2

    - by sukru
    I'm trying to setup a Linux server behind a Windows Hyper-V host that will help supply some of the services (SSH, HTTPS, etc). However getting RRAS configured for reverse NAT (port forwarding) turned out to be a non trivial task. As a staring point, I tried forwarding port 22 (SSH) to the virtual machine. The virtual machine is on a public interface (i.e.: it also has a visible IP on the same network as the host). On RRAS management console I tried to add a rule, by adding "Local Area Connection" to NAT pool (Public Interface - Enable Nat), and an incoming rule for port 22 - :22. I also tried with the same port enabled on Windows Firewall (and not). The NAT management page tells there are "1 mappings" and "30+ Outbound packets transleted". However all other counters (Inbound packets translated, and respective rejected ones) are always zero. (I'm trying to access the server from an external machine). I can directly access the service if I give the VM's public IP, but not the host's one. Is there a way to enable this on RRAS?

    Read the article

  • NginxHttpAuthBasicModule with Sinatra & Passenger

    - by scainey
    Hi, I'm serving static pages from a Sinatra application using Nginx. I've implemented Basic Authentication for one page on the site using NginxHttpAuthBasicModule, the authentication succeeds but Nginx doesn't resolve the link. Error log gives - 2010/03/22 12:15:19 [error] 7143#0: *2902 open() "/home/me/live/mysite_home/public /mypage" failed (2: No such file or directory), client: 82.71.18.122, server: mysite.com, request: "GET /mypage HTTP/1.1", host: "mysite.com" The actual file is found at: /home/me/live/mysite_home/live/mypage.erb The configuration file is: server { listen 80; server_name mysite.com; root /home/me/live/mysite_home/public; passenger_enabled on; location /mypage { auth_basic "Restricted"; auth_basic_user_file htpasswd; } } server { listen 443; server_name mysite.com; root /home/me/live/mysite_home/public; passenger_enabled on; ssl on; ssl_certificate /etc/nginx/conf/certs/server.crt; ssl_certificate_key /etc/nginx/conf/certs/server.key; keepalive_timeout 70; location /mypage { auth_basic "Restricted"; auth_basic_user_file htpasswd; } } Not sure if this is a Sinatra, Passenger or Nginx thing, or if I'm just missing something.

    Read the article

  • apache front-end rewriting URL to different https ports?

    - by khedron
    Hi all, One of my users is having some trouble with forwarding to an internal web app from a public address. Everything worked fine for him when the situation was like this: front page: http://www.myexample.com/ public ref to internal app: http://www.example.com/app-8903/app.html secretly goes to: http://secret.example.com:8903/app-8903/app.html This is to say, my user is providing the very last URL, with the port information duplicated in the URL base, and they were using that to give a public face that hid both the port and the internal machine name. You could still read the port in the URL base if you looked, but the obvious reference and machine name were hidden. Doing it this way, he could have several different instances of the application running on secret.example.com with different ports, and on the front end it just looked like it was changing the URL directory/base. Now the user wants to do the same thing over https:, and the people helping him with apache config say it can't be done. Is that so? Without being there to tinker with the configuration myself, I'm not sure what his IT people have tried, but reading through the apache2 SSL FAQ and other docs, it seems like it should be possible to rewrite URLs to different ports and still use https:.

    Read the article

  • Apache forwarding without redirecting (application won't follow redirects)

    - by DrewVS
    Recently we had to move /task to /public/task, and I'd like to configure Apache to redirect accordingly. However, using mod_rewrite, though it works in the browser, seems to break applications making api calls to the above location. What happens is the application returns a page with the message saying the page was moved, but the app doesn't follow the redirect. So, is there a way to simply forward any traffic to /task to /public/task without 'redirecting', i.e, returning a redirect status code? EDIT: Here's a little more information. I've found a simple test to clarify what I'm trying to fix. Here is the URL path that needs forwarding: https://mydomain.com/task Needs to go to: https://mydomain.com/public/task If I use curl against the original domain, it just returns a redirect page notice. If I add the -L flag, which tells curl to follow redirects, it then follows the redirect successfully. I assume something very similar is happening in the application (which I don't have access to) that makes calls to the /task URL path. Since I cannot modify the application to make it follow redirects properly, I'm looking for a solution I can implement in Apache.

    Read the article

  • NginxHttpAuthBasicModule with Sinatra & Passenger

    - by scainey
    I'm serving static pages from a Sinatra application using Nginx. I've implemented Basic Authentication for one page on the site using NginxHttpAuthBasicModule, the authentication succeeds but Nginx doesn't resolve the link. Error log gives - 2010/03/22 12:15:19 [error] 7143#0: *2902 open() "/home/me/live/mysite_home/public /mypage" failed (2: No such file or directory), client: 82.71.18.122, server: mysite.com, request: "GET /mypage HTTP/1.1", host: "mysite.com" The actual file is found at: /home/me/live/mysite_home/live/mypage.erb The configuration file is: server { listen 80; server_name mysite.com; root /home/me/live/mysite_home/public; passenger_enabled on; location /mypage { auth_basic "Restricted"; auth_basic_user_file htpasswd; } } server { listen 443; server_name mysite.com; root /home/me/live/mysite_home/public; passenger_enabled on; ssl on; ssl_certificate /etc/nginx/conf/certs/server.crt; ssl_certificate_key /etc/nginx/conf/certs/server.key; keepalive_timeout 70; location /mypage { auth_basic "Restricted"; auth_basic_user_file htpasswd; } } Not sure if this is a Sinatra, Passenger or Nginx thing, or if I'm just missing something.

    Read the article

  • VLAN across a router to give wireless access to remote sites?

    - by Don
    I've been looking online for this answer, but getting conflicting information. I was under the impression that you couldn't use a VLAN across a router, but maybe it's possible (according to some documentation I see online)? I was hoping someone could clear it up for me. Here's what I'm working with: We have a remote site with a handful of users. We recently gave them an access point (Cisco 1142n) for internal wireless. It's plugged into a switch and working fine (getting IPs from the same DHCP scope as the wired users are getting). Private wireless is set on VL50. At the home office we have private wireless for our internal network working and on VL50, with a test VLAN setup for VL60, which points to our DSL line for the time being. Both private and public wireless works fine internally (not crossing a router). VL50 is named the same at both sites for consistency in naming. If we wanted to give the remote site access to the public wireless (VL60), would that be possible across the routers? For more information, currently the site is connected to the home office via a T1 connection, Cisco routers on both ends. I didn't think it was possible due to the nature of VLANS being layer 2. But, I am from from an expert on this and would appreciate any instruction as to the actual truth of the matter. The end result I'm going for is, how to get our remote sites access to a public (outside) connection along with their private connection, without actually having a DSL (or similar type line) dropped at their location? Thanks in advance for your thoughts.

    Read the article

  • what does square bracket syntax mean above a method in C#, ASP.NET

    - by Alexander
    I am just looking a bunch of codes that I am trying to learn from an open source project and sometimes I see a square brackets above a function such as: [EdmFunction("NerdDinnerModel.Store", "DistanceBetween")] public static double DistanceBetween(double lat1, double long1, double lat2, double long2) or [Bind(Include = "Title,Description,EventDate,Address,Country,ContactPhone,Latitude,Longitude")] [MetadataType(typeof(Dinner_Validation))] public partial class Dinner

    Read the article

  • HTTP client - HTTP 405 error "Method not allowed". I send a HTTP Post but for some reason HTTP Get i

    - by Shino88
    Hey I am using apache library. I have created a class which sends a post request to a servlet. I have set up the parameters for the client and i have created a HTTP post object to be sent but for some reason when i excute the request i get a reposnse that says the get method is not supported(which is true cause i have only made a dopost method in my servlet). It seems that a get request is being sent but i dont know why. The post method worked before but i started gettng http error 417 "Expectation Failed" which i fixed by adding paramenters. below is my class with the post method. P.s i am developing for android. public class HTTPrequestHelper { private final ResponseHandler<String> responseHandler; private static final String CLASSTAG = HTTPrequestHelper.class.getSimpleName(); private static final DefaultHttpClient client; static{ HttpParams params = new BasicHttpParams(); params.setParameter(CoreProtocolPNames.PROTOCOL_VERSION, HttpVersion.HTTP_1_1); params.setParameter(CoreProtocolPNames.HTTP_CONTENT_CHARSET, HTTP.UTF_8); ///params.setParameter(CoreProtocolPNames.USER_AGENT, "Android-x"); params.setParameter(CoreConnectionPNames.CONNECTION_TIMEOUT, 15000); params.setParameter(CoreConnectionPNames.STALE_CONNECTION_CHECK, false); SchemeRegistry schemeRegistry = new SchemeRegistry(); schemeRegistry.register( new Scheme("http", PlainSocketFactory.getSocketFactory(), 80)); schemeRegistry.register( new Scheme("https", SSLSocketFactory.getSocketFactory(), 443)); ThreadSafeClientConnManager cm = new ThreadSafeClientConnManager(params, schemeRegistry); client = new DefaultHttpClient(cm,params); } public HTTPrequestHelper(ResponseHandler<String> responseHandler) { this.responseHandler = responseHandler; } public void performrequest(String url, String para) { HttpPost post = new HttpPost(url); StringEntity parameters; try { parameters = new StringEntity(para); post.setEntity(parameters); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } BasicHttpResponse errorResponse = new BasicHttpResponse( new ProtocolVersion("HTTP_ERROR", 1, 1), 500, "ERROR"); try { client.execute(post, this.responseHandler); } catch (Exception e) { errorResponse.setReasonPhrase(e.getMessage()); try { this.responseHandler.handleResponse(errorResponse); } catch (Exception ex) { Log.e( "ouch", "!!! IOException " + ex.getMessage() ); } } } I tried added the allow header to the request but that did not work as well but im not sure if i was doing right. below is the code. client.addRequestInterceptor(new HttpRequestInterceptor() { @Override public void process(HttpRequest request, HttpContext context) throws HttpException, IOException { //request.addHeader("Allow", "POST"); } });

    Read the article

  • PowerShell - Parameter Value Tab Expansion for Enum types

    - by Adam Driscoll
    Is it possible to implement parameter value tab expansion for enum parameter types? Creating a binary cmdlet with parameter definition: [Parameter] public SomeEnum Type {get;set;} Is there some way to type: Add-MyThing -Type S<tab> To get: Add-MyThing -Type SomeEnumValue Where: public enum SomeEnum { SomeEnumValue, SomeEnumValue2 } I know it may be possible with overriding the TabExpansion function but I was wondering if there was something I could do within my cmdlet to expose this type of functionality.

    Read the article

  • Problem with redirecting *.domain.com & domain.com to www.domain.com for HTTPS

    - by Mat E.
    We have a site I'll call acme.com. Most of the time you see http://www.acme.com and sometimes we redirect you to https://www.acme.com. We want to redirect anyone going to http://acme.com or http://*.acme.com to http://www.acme.com, and the same for https. (It's mainly to avoid the alert you get if you go to https://acme.com instead of https://www.acme.com) Our vhost file is at the end of the post. It works nicely except for one strange behavior: http://acme.com - successfully redirects to http://www.acme.com http://www.acme.com - successfully does not redirect http://foo.acme.com - successfully redirects to http://www.acme.com https://acme.com - successfully redirects to https://www.acme.com https://www.acme.com - successfully does not direct https://foo.acme.com - ERROR - redirects to http://www.acme.com It's this last result I can't fathom. I've tried a lot of trial and error solutions from Google & Stack Overflow but nothing seems to change it. Even if we swap the order of the configurations (so that 443 is before 80) it still redirects https://foo.acme.com to http://www.acme.com We are running Apache/2.2.12 on Ubuntu. Here's the configuration file: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName www.acme.com ServerAlias acme.com *.acme.com ServerSignature On DocumentRoot /var/www/acme.com/public RailsEnv 'production' PassengerHighPerformance on <Directory /var/www/acme.com/public> AllowOverride all Options -MultiViews </Directory> SSLEngine Off CustomLog /var/log/apache2/acme.log combined ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/acme-error.log # Possible values include: debug, info, notice, warn, error, crit, alert, emerg. LogLevel warn RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTPS} off RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^[^\./]+\.[^\./]+$ RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ http://www.%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [R=301,L] </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:443> ServerName www.acme.com ServerAlias acme.com *.acome.com DocumentRoot /var/www/acme.com/public RailsEnv 'production' PassengerHighPerformance on <Directory /var/www/acme.com/public> AllowOverride all Options -MultiViews </Directory> SSLCertificateFile /etc/ssl/certs/www.acme.com.crt SSLCertificateKeyFile /etc/ssl/private/acme.com.private.key SSLCACertificateFile /etc/ssl/certs/EV_intermediate.crt SSLEngine On CustomLog /var/log/apache2/ssl-acme.log "%t %h %{SSL_PROTOCOL}x %{SSL_CIPHER}x \"%r\" %b" ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/ssl-acme-error.log # Possible values include: debug, info, notice, warn, error, crit, alert, emerg. LogLevel warn RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTPS} on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^[^\./]+\.[^\./]+$ RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ https://www.%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [R=301,L] </VirtualHost>

    Read the article

  • Java Process "The pipe has been ended" problem

    - by Amit Kumar
    I am using Java Process API to write a class that receives binary input from the network (say via TCP port A), processes it and writes binary output to the network (say via TCP port B). I am using Windows XP. The code looks like this. There are two functions called run() and receive(): run is called once at the start, while receive is called whenever there is a new input received via the network. Run and receive are called from different threads. The run process starts an exe and receives the input and output stream of the exe. Run also starts a new thread to write output from the exe on to the port B. public void run() { try { Process prc = // some exe is `start`ed using ProcessBuilder OutputStream procStdIn = new BufferedOutputStream(prc.getOutputStream()); InputStream procStdOut = new BufferedInputStream(prc.getInputStream()); Thread t = new Thread(new ProcStdOutputToPort(procStdOut)); t.start(); prc.waitFor(); t.join(); procStdIn.close(); procStdOut.close(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); printError("Error : " + e.getMessage()); } } The receive forwards the received input from the port A to the exe. public void receive(byte[] b) throws Exception { procStdIn.write(b); } class ProcStdOutputToPort implements Runnable { private BufferedInputStream bis; public ProcStdOutputToPort(BufferedInputStream bis) { this.bis = bis; } public void run() { try { int bytesRead; int bufLen = 1024; byte[] buffer = new byte[bufLen]; while ((bytesRead = bis.read(buffer)) != -1) { // write output to the network } } catch (IOException ex) { Logger.getLogger().log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } } } The problem is that I am getting the following stack inside receive() and the prc.waitfor() returns immediately afterwards. The line number shows that the stack is while writing to the exe. The pipe has been ended java.io.IOException: The pipe has been ended at java.io.FileOutputStream.writeBytes(Native Method) at java.io.FileOutputStream.write(FileOutputStream.java:260) at java.io.BufferedOutputStream.write(BufferedOutputStream.java:105) at java.io.BufferedOutputStream.flushBuffer(BufferedOutputStream.java:65) at java.io.BufferedOutputStream.write(BufferedOutputStream.java:109) at java.io.FilterOutputStream.write(FilterOutputStream.java:80) at xxx.receive(xxx.java:86) Any advice about this will be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Drawing a TextBox in an extended Glass Frame (C# w/o WPF)

    - by Lazlo
    I am trying to draw a TextBox on the extended glass frame of my form. I won't describe this technique, it's well-known. Here's an example for those who haven't heard of it: http://www.danielmoth.com/Blog/Vista-Glass-In-C.aspx The thing is, it is complex to draw over this glass frame. Since black is considered to be the 0-alpha color, anything black disappears. There are apparently ways of countering this problem: drawing complex GDI+ shapes are not affected by this alpha-ness. For example, this code can be used to draw a Label on glass (note: GraphicsPath is used instead of DrawString in order to get around the horrible ClearType problem): public class GlassLabel : Control { public GlassLabel() { this.BackColor = Color.Black; } protected override void OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { GraphicsPath font = new GraphicsPath(); font.AddString( this.Text, this.Font.FontFamily, (int)this.Font.Style, this.Font.Size, Point.Empty, StringFormat.GenericDefault); e.Graphics.SmoothingMode = SmoothingMode.HighQuality; e.Graphics.FillPath(new SolidBrush(this.ForeColor), font); } } Similarly, such an approach can be used to create a container on the glass area. Note the use of the polygons instead of the rectangle - when using the rectangle, its black parts are considered as alpha. public class GlassPanel : Panel { public GlassPanel() { this.BackColor = Color.Black; } protected override void OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { Point[] area = new Point[] { new Point(0, 1), new Point(1, 0), new Point(this.Width - 2, 0), new Point(this.Width - 1, 1), new Point(this.Width -1, this.Height - 2), new Point(this.Width -2, this.Height-1), new Point(1, this.Height -1), new Point(0, this.Height - 2) }; Point[] inArea = new Point[] { new Point(1, 1), new Point(this.Width - 1, 1), new Point(this.Width - 1, this.Height - 1), new Point(this.Width - 1, this.Height - 1), new Point(1, this.Height - 1) }; e.Graphics.FillPolygon(new SolidBrush(Color.FromArgb(240, 240, 240)), inArea); e.Graphics.DrawPolygon(new Pen(Color.FromArgb(55, 0, 0, 0)), area); base.OnPaint(e); } } Now my problem is: How can I draw a TextBox? After lots of Googling, I came up with the following solutions: Subclassing the TextBox's OnPaint method. This is possible, although I could not get it to work properly. It should involve painting some magic things I don't know how to do yet. Making my own custom TextBox, perhaps on a TextBoxBase. If anyone has good, valid and working examples, and thinks this could be a good overall solution, please tell me. Using BufferedPaintSetAlpha. (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms649805.aspx). The downsides of this method may be that the corners of the textbox might look odd, but I can live with that. If anyone knows how to implement that method properly from a Graphics object, please tell me. I personally don't, but this seems the best solution so far. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • JBoss 6 deployment of message-driven bean error

    - by AntonioP
    Hello, I have an java EE application which has one message-driven bean and it runs fine on JBoss 4, however when I configure the project for JBoss 6 and deploy on it, I get this error; WARN [org.jboss.ejb.deployers.EjbDeployer.verifier] EJB spec violation: ... The message driven bean must declare one onMessage() method. ... org.jboss.deployers.spi.DeploymentException: Verification of Enterprise Beans failed, see above for error messages. But my bean HAS the onMessage method! It would not have worked on jboss 4 either then. Why do I get this error!? Edit: The class in question looks like this package ... imports ... public class MyMDB implements MessageDrivenBean, MessageListener { AnotherSessionBean a; OneMoreSessionBean b; public MyMDB() {} public void onMessage(Message message) { if (message instanceof TextMessage) { try { //Lookup sessionBeans by jndi, create them lookupABean(); // check message-type, then invokie a.handle(message); // else b.handle(message); } catch (SomeException e) { //handling it } } } public void lookupABean() { try { // code to lookup session beans and create. } catch (CreateException e) { // handling it and catching NamingException too } } } Edit 2: And this is the jboss.xml relevant parts <message-driven> <ejb-name>MyMDB</ejb-name> <destination-jndi-name>topic/A_Topic</destination-jndi-name> <local-jndi-name>A_Topic</local-jndi-name> <mdb-user>user</mdb-user> <mdb-passwd>pass</mdb-passwd> <mdb-client-id>MyMessageBean</mdb-client-id> <mdb-subscription-id>subid</mdb-subscription-id> <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jms/TopicFactory</res-ref-name> <jndi-name>jms/TopicFactory</jndi-name> </resource-ref> </message-driven>

    Read the article

  • Using Joda DateTime as a Jersey parameter?

    - by HolySamosa
    I'd like to use Joda's DateTime for query parameters in Jersey, but this isn't supported by Jersey out-of-the-box. I'm assuming that implementing an InjectableProvider is the proper way to add DateTime support. Can someone point me to a good implementation of an InjectableProvider for DateTime? Or is there an alternative approach worth recommending? (I'm aware I can convert from Date or String in my code, but this seems like a lesser solution). Thanks. Solution: I modified Gili's answer below to use the @Context injection mechanism in JAX-RS rather than Guice. import com.sun.jersey.core.spi.component.ComponentContext; import com.sun.jersey.spi.inject.Injectable; import com.sun.jersey.spi.inject.PerRequestTypeInjectableProvider; import java.util.List; import javax.ws.rs.QueryParam; import javax.ws.rs.WebApplicationException; import javax.ws.rs.core.Context; import javax.ws.rs.core.Response; import javax.ws.rs.core.Response.Status; import javax.ws.rs.core.UriInfo; import javax.ws.rs.ext.Provider; import org.joda.time.DateTime; /** * Enables DateTime to be used as a QueryParam. * <p/> * @author Gili Tzabari */ @Provider public class DateTimeInjector extends PerRequestTypeInjectableProvider<QueryParam, DateTime> { private final UriInfo uriInfo; /** * Creates a new DateTimeInjector. * <p/> * @param uriInfo an instance of {@link UriInfo} */ public DateTimeInjector( @Context UriInfo uriInfo) { super(DateTime.class); this.uriInfo = uriInfo; } @Override public Injectable<DateTime> getInjectable(final ComponentContext cc, final QueryParam a) { return new Injectable<DateTime>() { @Override public DateTime getValue() { final List<String> values = uriInfo.getQueryParameters().get(a.value()); if( values == null || values.isEmpty()) return null; if (values.size() > 1) { throw new WebApplicationException(Response.status(Status.BAD_REQUEST). entity(a.value() + " may only contain a single value").build()); } return new DateTime(values.get(0)); } }; } }

    Read the article

  • Add animation when user control get visible and collapsed In Wpf

    - by sanjeev40084
    I have two xaml files MainWindow.xaml and other user control WorkDetail.xaml file. MainWindow.xaml file has a textbox, button, listbox and reference to WorkDetail.xaml(user control which is collapsed). Whenever user enter any text, it gets added in listbox when the add button is clicked. When any items from the listbox is double clicked, the visibility of WorkDetail.xaml is set to Visible and it gets displayed. In WorkDetail.xaml (user control) it has textblock and button. The Textblock displays the text of selected item and close button sets the visibility of WorkDetail window to collapsed. Now i am trying to animate WorkDetail.xaml when it gets visible and collapse. When any items from listbox is double clicked and WorkDetail.xaml visibility is set to visible, i want to create an animation of moving WorkDetail.xaml window from right to left on MainWindow. When Close button from WorkDetail.xaml file is clicked and WorkDetail.xaml file is collapsed, i want to slide the WorkDetail.xaml file from left to right from MainWindow. Here is the screenshot: MainWindow.xaml code: <Window...> <Grid Background="Black" > <TextBox x:Name="enteredWork" Height="39" Margin="44,48,49,0" TextWrapping="Wrap" VerticalAlignment="Top"/> <ListBox x:Name="workListBox" Margin="26,155,38,45" FontSize="29.333" MouseDoubleClick="workListBox_MouseDoubleClick"/> <Button x:Name="addWork" Content="Add" Height="34" Margin="71,103,120,0" VerticalAlignment="Top" Click="Button_Click"/> <TestWpf:WorkDetail x:Name="WorkDetail" Visibility="Collapsed"/> </Grid> </Window> MainWindow.xaml.cs class code: namespace TestWpf { public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { this.InitializeComponent(); } private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { workListBox.Items.Add(enteredWork.Text); } private void workListBox_MouseDoubleClick(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { WorkDetail.workTextBlk.Text = (string)workListBox.SelectedItem; WorkDetail.Visibility = Visibility.Visible; } } } WorkDetail.xaml code: <UserControl ..> <Grid Background="#FFD2CFCF"> <TextBlock x:Name="workTextBlk" Height="154" Margin="33,50,49,0" TextWrapping="Wrap" VerticalAlignment="Top" FontSize="29.333" Background="#FFF13939"/> <Button x:Name="btnClose" Content="Close" Height="62" Margin="70,0,94,87" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Click="btnClose_Click"/> </Grid> </UserControl> WorkDetail.xaml.cs class code: namespace TestWpf { public partial class WorkDetail : UserControl { public WorkDetail() { this.InitializeComponent(); } private void btnClose_Click(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) { Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; } } } Can anyone tell how can i do this?

    Read the article

  • WPF DataGrid and Avalon TimePicker binding problem

    - by Jorge Vargas
    I'm using a the WPF DataGrid from the wpf toolkit and a TimePicker from AvalonControlsLibrary to insert a collection of TimeSpans. My problem is that bindings are not working inside the DataGrid, and I have no clue of why this isn't working. Here is my setup: I have the following XAML: <Window x:Class="Views.TestMainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:wpf="http://schemas.microsoft.com/wpf/2008/toolkit" xmlns:a="http://schemas.AvalonControls/AvalonControlsLibrary/Controls" SizeToContent="WidthAndHeight" MinHeight="250" MinWidth="300"> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <GroupBox Grid.Row="0"> <GroupBox.Header> Testing it: </GroupBox.Header> <wpf:DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding Path=TestSpans}" AutoGenerateColumns="False"> <wpf:DataGrid.Columns> <wpf:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Start"> <wpf:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellEditingTemplate> <DataTemplate> <a:TimePicker SelectedTime="{Binding Path=., Mode=TwoWay}" /> </DataTemplate> </wpf:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellEditingTemplate> <wpf:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding}" /> </DataTemplate> </wpf:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </wpf:DataGridTemplateColumn> </wpf:DataGrid.Columns> </wpf:DataGrid> </GroupBox> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Grid.Row="1"> <a:TimePicker SelectedTime="{Binding Path=SelectedTime, Mode=TwoWay}" /> </StackPanel> </Grid> And this is my ViewModel: Imports System.Collections.ObjectModel Namespace ViewModels Public Class TestMainWindowViewModel Private _selectedTime As TimeSpan = DateTime.Now.TimeOfDay Public Property SelectedTime() As TimeSpan Get Return _selectedTime End Get Set(ByVal value As TimeSpan) _selectedTime = value End Set End Property Private _testSpans As ObservableCollection(Of TimeSpan) = New ObservableCollection(Of TimeSpan) Public Property TestSpans() As ObservableCollection(Of TimeSpan) Get Return _testSpans End Get Set(ByVal value As ObservableCollection(Of TimeSpan)) _testSpans = value End Set End Property Public Sub New() _testSpans.Add(DateTime.Now.TimeOfDay) _testSpans.Add(DateTime.Now.TimeOfDay) _testSpans.Add(DateTime.Now.TimeOfDay) End Sub End Class End Namespace I'm starting this window in application.xaml.vb like this: Class Application ' Application-level events, such as Startup, Exit, and DispatcherUnhandledException ' can be handled in this file. Protected Overrides Sub OnStartup(ByVal e As System.Windows.StartupEventArgs) MyBase.OnStartup(e) Dim window As Views.TestMainWindow = New Views.TestMainWindow window.DataContext = New TestMainWindowViewModel() window.Show() End Sub End Class

    Read the article

  • Impersonation - Access is denied

    - by krisg
    I am having trouble using impersonation to delete a PerformanceCounterCategory from an MVC website. I have a static class and when the application starts it checks whether or not a PerformanceCounterCategory exists, and if it contains the correct counters. If not, it deletes the category and creates it again with the required counters. It works fine when running under the built in webserver Cassini, but when i try run it through IIS7 (Vista) i get the following error: Access is denied Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception: Access is denied The code used is from an MS article, from memory... var username = "user"; var password = "password"; var domain = "tempuri.org"; WindowsImpersonationContext impersonationContext; // if impersonation fails - return if (!ImpersonateValidUser(username, password, domain, out impersonationContext)) { throw new AuthenticationException("Impersonation failed"); } PerformanceCounterCategory.Delete(PerfCategory); UndoImpersonation(impersonationContext); ... private static bool ImpersonateValidUser(string username, string password, string domain, out WindowsImpersonationContext impersonationContext) { const int LOGON32_LOGON_INTERACTIVE = 2; const int LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT = 0; WindowsIdentity tempWindowsIdentity; var token = IntPtr.Zero; var tokenDuplicate = IntPtr.Zero; if (RevertToSelf()) { if (LogonUserA(username, domain, password, LOGON32_LOGON_INTERACTIVE, LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT, ref token) != 0) { if (DuplicateToken(token, 2, ref tokenDuplicate) != 0) { tempWindowsIdentity = new WindowsIdentity(tokenDuplicate); impersonationContext = tempWindowsIdentity.Impersonate(); if (impersonationContext != null) { CloseHandle(token); CloseHandle(tokenDuplicate); return true; } } } } if (token != IntPtr.Zero) CloseHandle(token); if (tokenDuplicate != IntPtr.Zero) CloseHandle(tokenDuplicate); impersonationContext = null; return false; } [DllImport("advapi32.dll")] public static extern int LogonUserA(String lpszUserName, String lpszDomain, String lpszPassword, int dwLogonType, int dwLogonProvider, ref IntPtr phToken); [DllImport("advapi32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] public static extern int DuplicateToken(IntPtr hToken, int impersonationLevel, ref IntPtr hNewToken); [DllImport("advapi32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] public static extern bool RevertToSelf(); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] public static extern bool CloseHandle(IntPtr handle); The error is thrown when processing tries to execute the PerformanceCounterCategory.Delete command. Suggestions?

    Read the article

  • MVC 2 Entity Framework View Model Insert

    - by cannibalcorpse
    This is driving me crazy. Hopefully my question makes sense... I'm using MVC 2 and Entity Framework 1 and am trying to insert a new record with two navigation properties. I have a SQL table, Categories, that has a lookup table CategoryTypes and another self-referencing lookup CategoryParent. EF makes two nav properties on my Category model, one called Parent and another called CategoryType, both instances of their respective models. On my view that creates the new Category, I have two dropdowns, one for the CategoryType and another for the ParentCategory. When I try and insert the new Category WITHOUT the ParentCategory, which allows nulls, everything is fine. As soon as I add the ParentCategory, the insert fails, and oddly (or so I think) complains about the CategoryType in the form of this error: 0 related 'CategoryTypes' were found. 1 'CategoryTypes' is expected. When I step through, I can verifiy that both ID properties coming in on the action method parameter are correct. I can also verify that when I go to the db to get the CategoryType and ParentCategory with the ID's, the records are being pulled fine. Yet it fails on SaveChanges(). All that I can see is that my CategoryParent dropdownlistfor in my view, is somehow causing the insert to bomb. Please see my comments in my httpPost Create action method. My view model looks like this: public class EditModel { public Category MainCategory { get; set; } public IEnumerable<CategoryType> CategoryTypesList { get; set; } public IEnumerable<Category> ParentCategoriesList { get; set; } } My Create action methods look like this: // GET: /Categories/Create public ActionResult Create() { return View(new EditModel() { CategoryTypesList = _db.CategoryTypeSet.ToList(), ParentCategoriesList = _db.CategorySet.ToList() }); } // POST: /Categories/Create [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(Category mainCategory) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(new EditModel() { MainCategory = mainCategory, CategoryTypesList = _db.CategoryTypeSet.ToList(), ParentCategoriesList = _db.CategorySet.ToList() }); mainCategory.CategoryType = _db.CategoryTypeSet.First(ct => ct.Id == mainCategory.CategoryType.Id); // This db call DOES get the correct Category, but fails on _db.SaveChanges(). // Oddly the error is related to CategoryTypes and not Category. // Entities in 'DbEntities.CategorySet' participate in the 'FK_Categories_CategoryTypes' relationship. // 0 related 'CategoryTypes' were found. 1 'CategoryTypes' is expected. //mainCategory.Parent = _db.CategorySet.First(c => c.Id == mainCategory.Parent.Id); // If I just use the literal ID of the same Category, // AND comment out the CategoryParent dropdownlistfor in the view, all is fine. mainCategory.Parent = _db.CategorySet.First(c => c.Id == 2); _db.AddToCategorySet(mainCategory); _db.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } Here is my Create form on the view : <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true) %> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <div> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.MainCategory.Parent.Id) %> <%= Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.MainCategory.Parent.Id, new SelectList(Model.ParentCategoriesList, "Id", "Name")) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.MainCategory.Parent.Id) %> </div> <div> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.MainCategory.CategoryType.Id) %> <%= Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.MainCategory.CategoryType.Id, new SelectList(Model.CategoryTypesList, "Id", "Name"))%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.MainCategory.CategoryType.Id)%> </div> <div> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.MainCategory.Name) %> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.MainCategory.Name)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.MainCategory.Name)%> </div> <div> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.MainCategory.Description)%> <%= Html.TextAreaFor(model => model.MainCategory.Description)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.MainCategory.Description)%> </div> <div> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.MainCategory.SeoName)%> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.MainCategory.SeoName, new { @class = "large" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.MainCategory.SeoName)%> </div> <div> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.MainCategory.HasHomepage)%> <%= Html.CheckBoxFor(model => model.MainCategory.HasHomepage)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.MainCategory.HasHomepage)%> </div> <p><input type="submit" value="Create" /></p> </fieldset> <% } %> Maybe I've just been staying up too late playing with MVC 2? :) Please let me know if I'm not being clear enough.

    Read the article

  • facebook connect for android returns a blank login screen?

    - by jonney
    Hi, i am trying to use the old facebook connect authentication to authenticate my android client to get the necessary session id's and other credentials thats needed to start using the web service of facebook. the issue i am having is that when my android application launces and tries to load the login page for facebook, that very same login page is blank and it only displays the the facebook logo as the title of the screen. No login fields or buttons are visible leaving me nowhere to login and authenticate a user. i have tried two API's one is facebook connect api for android http://code.google.com/p/fbconnect-android/ and the other one is the official android facebook sdk that is recommended to be used instead of the previous one i have just mentioned https://github.com/facebook/facebook-android-sdk/ . please see the image below of how it looks like on my app. Here is code that uses the latest android sdk facebook: /** * Authenticate facebook network */ private void authenticateFacebook() { // TODO: move this away from this activty class into some kind of // helper/wrapper class Log.d(TAG, "Clicked on the facebook"); Facebook facebook = new Facebook(OAUTH_KEY_FACEBOOK_API); facebook.authorize(this, new AuthorizeListener()); } class AuthorizeListener implements DialogListener{ @Override public void onComplete(Bundle values) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Log.d(TAG, "finished authorizing facebook user"); } @Override public void onFacebookError(FacebookError e) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onError(DialogError e) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onCancel() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } And a simple example of how to use it: http://developers.facebook.com/docs/guides/mobile/ My code is more or less identical to the above example. edit: i did not catch what logcat was inputing in my first attempted at my code above but their was no exceptions or warnings thrown at the time. just a blank page. i then tried it again and diddnt touch my code and what happens now is that a loading dialogue view pops up and stays their for a few minutes until the facebook windows disapears and the logcat outputs the error below: 11-18 17:26:19.913: DEBUG/Facebook-WebView(783): Webview loading URL: https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?type=user_agent&redirect_uri=fbconnect%3A%2F%2Fsuccess&display=touch&client_id=e??????????????????? 11-18 17:27:01.756: DEBUG/Facebook-authorize(783): Login failed: com.kc.unity.agent.util.oauth.facebook.DialogError: The connection to the server was unsuccessful. 11-18 17:27:01.783: DEBUG/Facebook-WebView(783): Webview loading URL: https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?type=user_agent&redirect_uri=fbconnect%3A%2F%2Fsuccess&display=touch&client_id=??????????????? please note that the client id i have amended for obvious reasons but the rest of the logcat is untouched

    Read the article

  • Access custom attribute on method from Castle Windsor interceptor

    - by RobW
    I am trying to access a custom attribute applied to a method within a castle interceptor, e.g.: [MyCustomAttribute(SomeParam = "attributeValue")] public virtual MyEntity Entity { get; set; } using the following code: internal class MyInterceptor : IInterceptor { public void Intercept(IInvocation invocation) { if (invocation.Method.GetCustomAttributes(typeof(MyCustomAttribute), true) != null) { //Do something } } } The interceptor is firing OK when the method is called but this code does not return the custom attribute. How can I achieve this?

    Read the article

  • Using MVC2 to update an Entity Framework v4 object with foreign keys fails

    - by jbjon
    With the following simple relational database structure: An Order has one or more OrderItems, and each OrderItem has one OrderItemStatus. Entity Framework v4 is used to communicate with the database and entities have been generated from this schema. The Entities connection happens to be called EnumTestEntities in the example. The trimmed down version of the Order Repository class looks like this: public class OrderRepository { private EnumTestEntities entities = new EnumTestEntities(); // Query Methods public Order Get(int id) { return entities.Orders.SingleOrDefault(d => d.OrderID == id); } // Persistence public void Save() { entities.SaveChanges(); } } An MVC2 app uses Entity Framework models to drive the views. I'm using the EditorFor feature of MVC2 to drive the Edit view. When it comes to POSTing back any changes to the model, the following code is called: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { // Get the current Order out of the database by ID Order order = orderRepository.Get(id); var orderItems = order.OrderItems; try { // Update the Order from the values posted from the View UpdateModel(order, ""); // Without the ValueProvider suffix it does not attempt to update the order items UpdateModel(order.OrderItems, "OrderItems.OrderItems"); // All the Save() does is call SaveChanges() on the database context orderRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = order.OrderID }); } catch (Exception e) { return View(order); // Inserted while debugging } } The second call to UpdateModel has a ValueProvider suffix which matches the auto-generated HTML input name prefixes that MVC2 has generated for the foreign key collection of OrderItems within the View. The call to SaveChanges() on the database context after updating the OrderItems collection of an Order using UpdateModel generates the following exception: "The operation failed: The relationship could not be changed because one or more of the foreign-key properties is non-nullable. When a change is made to a relationship, the related foreign-key property is set to a null value. If the foreign-key does not support null values, a new relationship must be defined, the foreign-key property must be assigned another non-null value, or the unrelated object must be deleted." When debugging through this code, I can still see that the EntityKeys are not null and seem to be the same value as they should be. This still happens when you are not changing any of the extracted Order details from the database. Also the entity connection to the database doesn't change between the act of Getting and the SaveChanges so it doesn't appear to be a Context issue either. Any ideas what might be causing this problem? I know EF4 has done work on foreign key properties but can anyone shed any light on how to use EF4 and MVC2 to make things easy to update; rather than having to populate each property manually. I had hoped the simplicity of EditorFor and DisplayFor would also extend to Controllers updating data. Thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386 387  | Next Page >