Search Results

Search found 12126 results on 486 pages for 'property hiding'.

Page 385/486 | < Previous Page | 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 | Next Page >

How to get around the Circular Reference issue with JSON and Entity

- by DanScan

I have been experimenting with creating a website that leverages MVC with JSON for my presentation layer and Entity framework for data model/database. My Issue comes into play with serializing my Model objects into JSON. I am using the code first method to create my database. When doing the code first method a one to many relationship (parent/child) requires the child to have a reference back to the parent. (Example code my be a typo but you get the picture) class parent { public List<child> Children{get;set;} public int Id{get;set;} } class child { public int ParentId{get;set;} [ForeignKey("ParentId")] public parent MyParent{get;set;} public string name{get;set;} } When returning a "parent" object via a JsonResult a circular reference error is thrown because "child" has a property of class parent. I have tried the ScriptIgnore attribute but I lose the ability to look at the child objects. I will need to display information in a parent child view at some point. I have tried to make base classes for both parent and child that do not have a circular reference. Unfortunately when I attempt to send the baseParent and baseChild these are read by the JSON Parser as their derived classes (I am pretty sure this concept is escaping me). Base.baseParent basep = (Base.baseParent)parent; return Json(basep, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); The one solution I have come up with is to create "View" Models. I create simple versions of the database models that do not include the reference to the parent class. These view models each have method to return the Database Version and a constructor that takes the database model as a parameter (viewmodel.name = databasemodel.name). This method seems forced although it works. NOTE:I am posting here because I think this is more discussion worthy. I could leverage a different design pattern to over come this issue or it could be as simple as using a different attribute on my model. In my searching I have not seen a good method to overcome this problem. My end goal would be to have a nice MVC application that heavily leverages JSON for communicating with the server and displaying data. While maintaining a consistant model across layers (or as best as I can come up with).

Read the article
How to refactor a method which breaks "The law of Demeter" principle?

- by dreza

I often find myself breaking this principle (not intentially, just through bad design). However recently I've seen a bit of code that I'm not sure of the best approach. I have a number of classes. For simplicity I've taken out the bulk of the classes methods etc public class Paddock { public SoilType Soil { get; private set; } // a whole bunch of other properties around paddock information } public class SoilType { public SoilDrainageType Drainage { get; private set; } // a whole bunch of other properties around soil types } public class SoilDrainageType { // a whole bunch of public properties that expose soil drainage values public double GetProportionOfDrainage(SoilType soil, double blockRatio) { // This method does a number of calculations using public properties // exposed off SoilType as well as the blockRatio value in some conditions } } In the code I have seen in a number of places calls like so paddock.Soil.Drainage.GetProportionOfDrainage(paddock.Soil, paddock.GetBlockRatio()); or within the block object itself in places it's Soil.Drainage.GetProportionOfDrainage(this.Soil, this.GetBlockRatio()); Upon reading this seems to break "The Law of Demeter" in that I'm chaining together these properties to access the method I want. So my thought in order to adjust this was to create public methods on SoilType and Paddock that contains wrappers i.e. on paddock it would be public class Paddock { public double GetProportionOfDrainage() { return Soil.GetProportionOfDrainage(this.GetBlockRatio()); } } on the SoilType it would be public class SoilType { public double GetProportionOfDrainage(double blockRatio) { return Drainage.GetProportionOfDrainage(this, blockRatio); } } so now calls where it used would be simply // used outside of paddock class where we can access instances of Paddock paddock.GetProportionofDrainage() or this.GetProportionOfDrainage(); // if used within Paddock class This seemed like a nice alternative. However now I have a concern over how would I enforce this usage and stop anyone else from writing code such as paddock.Soil.Drainage.GetProportionOfDrainage(paddock.Soil, paddock.GetBlockRatio()); rather than just paddock.GetProportionOfDrainage(); I need the properties to remain public at this stage as they are too ingrained in usage throughout the code block. However I don't really want a mixture of accessing the method on DrainageType directly as that seems to defeat the purpose altogether. What would be the appropiate design approach in this situation? I can provide more information as required to better help in answers. Is my thoughts on refactoring this even appropiate or should is it best to leave it as is and use the property chaining to access the method as and when required?

Read the article
Accessing Controls Within A Gridview

- by Bunch

Sometimes you need to access a control within a GridView, but it isn’t quite as straight forward as just using FindControl to grab the control like you can in a FormView. Since the GridView builds multiple rows the key is to specify the row. In this example there is a GridView with a control for a player’s errors. If the errors is greater than 9 the GridView should display the control (lblErrors) in red so it stands out. Here is the GridView: <asp:GridView ID="gvFielding" runat="server" DataSourceID="sqlFielding" DataKeyNames="PlayerID" AutoGenerateColumns="false" > <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="PlayerName" HeaderText="Player Name" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="PlayerNumber" HeaderText="Player Number" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Errors"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblErrors" runat="server" Text='<%# EVAL("Errors") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> In the code behind you can add the code to change the label’s ForeColor property to red based on the amount of errors. In this case 10 or more errors triggers the color change. Protected Sub gvFielding_DataBound(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles gvFielding.DataBound Dim errorLabel As Label Dim errors As Integer Dim i As Integer = 0 For Each row As GridViewRow In gvFielding.Rows errorLabel = gvFielding.Rows(i).FindControl("lblErrors") If Not errorLabel.Text = Nothing Then Integer.TryParse(errorLabel.Text, errors) If errors > 9 Then errorLabel.ForeColor = Drawing.Color.Red End If End If i += 1 Next End Sub The main points in the DataBound sub is use a For Each statement to loop through the rows and to increment the variable i so you loop through every row. That way you check each one and if the value is greater than 9 the label changes to red. The If Not errorLabel.Text = Nothing line is there as a check in case no data comes back at all for Errors. Technorati Tags: GridView,ASP.Net,VB.Net

Read the article
Entity Framework 5, separating business logic from model - Repository?

- by bnice7

I am working on my first public-facing web application and I’m using MVC 4 for the presentation layer and EF 5 for the DAL. The database structure is locked, and there are moderate differences between how the user inputs data and how the database itself gets populated. I have done a ton of reading on the repository pattern (which I have never used) but most of my research is pushing me away from using it since it supposedly creates an unnecessary level of abstraction for the latest versions of EF since repositories and unit-of-work are already built-in. My initial approach is to simply create a separate set of classes for my business objects in the BLL that can act as an intermediary between my Controllers and the DAL. Here’s an example class: public class MyBuilding { public int Id { get; private set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Notes { get; set; } private readonly Entities _context = new Entities(); // Is this thread safe? private static readonly int UserId = WebSecurity.GetCurrentUser().UserId; public IEnumerable<MyBuilding> GetList() { IEnumerable<MyBuilding> buildingList = from p in _context.BuildingInfo where p.Building.UserProfile.UserId == UserId select new MyBuilding {Id = p.BuildingId, Name = p.BuildingName, Notes = p.Building.Notes}; return buildingList; } public void Create() { var b = new Building {UserId = UserId, Notes = this.Notes}; _context.Building.Add(b); _context.SaveChanges(); // Set the building ID this.Id = b.BuildingId; // Seed 1-to-1 tables with reference the new building _context.BuildingInfo.Add(new BuildingInfo {Building = b}); _context.GeneralInfo.Add(new GeneralInfo {Building = b}); _context.LocationInfo.Add(new LocationInfo {Building = b}); _context.SaveChanges(); } public static MyBuilding Find(int id) { using (var context = new Entities()) // Is this OK to do in a static method? { var b = context.Building.FirstOrDefault(p => p.BuildingId == id && p.UserId == UserId); if (b == null) throw new Exception("Error: Building not found or user does not have access."); return new MyBuilding {Id = b.BuildingId, Name = b.BuildingInfo.BuildingName, Notes = b.Notes}; } } } My primary concern: Is the way I am instantiating my DbContext as a private property thread-safe, and is it safe to have a static method that instantiates a separate DbContext? Or am I approaching this all wrong? I am not opposed to learning up on the repository pattern if I am taking the total wrong approach here.

Read the article
A Simple Entity Tagger

- by Elton Stoneman

In the REST world, ETags are your gateway to performance boosts by letting clients cache responses. In the non-REST world, you may also want to add an ETag to an entity definition inside a traditional service contract – think of a scenario where a consumer persists its own representation of your entity, and wants to keep it in sync. Rather than load every entity by ID and check for changes, the consumer can send in a set of linked IDs and ETags, and you can return only the entities where the current ETag is different from the consumer’s version. If your entity is a projection from various sources, you may not have a persistent ETag, so you need an efficient way to generate an ETag which is deterministic, so an entity with the same state always generates the same ETag. I have an implementation for a generic ETag generator on GitHub here: EntityTagger code sample. The essence is simple - we get the entity, serialize it and build a hash from the serialized value. Any changes to either the state or the structure of the entity will result in a different hash. To use it, just call SetETag, passing your populated object and a Func<> which acts as an accessor to the ETag property: EntityTagger.SetETag(user, x => x.ETag); The implementation is all in at 80 lines of code, which is all pretty straightforward: var eTagProperty = AsPropertyInfo(eTagPropertyAccessor); var originalETag = eTagProperty.GetValue(entity, null); try { ResetETag(entity, eTagPropertyAccessor); string json; var serializer = new DataContractJsonSerializer(entity.GetType()); using (var stream = new MemoryStream()) { serializer.WriteObject(stream, entity); json = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(stream.GetBuffer(), 0, (int)stream.Length); } var guid = GetDeterministicGuid(json); eTagProperty.SetValue(entity, guid.ToString(), null); //... There are a couple of helper methods to check if the object has changed since the ETag value was last set, and to reset the ETag. This implementation uses JSON to do the serializing rather than XML. Benefit - should be marginally more efficient as your hashing a much smaller serialized string; downside, JSON doesn't include namespaces or class names at the root level, so if you have two classes with the exact same structure but different names, then instances which have the same content will have the same ETag. You may want that behaviour, but change to use the XML DataContractSerializer if you think that will be an issue. If you can persist the ETag somewhere, it will save you server processing to load up the entity, but that will only apply to scenarios where you can reliably invalidate your ETag (e.g. if you control all the entry points where entity contents can be updated, then you can calculate and persist the new ETag with each update).

Read the article
Building Enterprise Smartphone App – Part 3: Key Concerns

- by Tim Murphy

This is part 3 in a series of posts based on a talk I gave recently at the Chicago Information Technology Architects Group. Feel free to leave feedback. Keys Concerns Of Smartphones In The Enterprise These are the factors that you need to be aware of and address in order to build successful enterprise smartphone applications. Most of them have nothing to do with the application itself as you will see here. Managing Devices Managing devices is a factor that is going to effect how much your company will have to spend outside of developing the applications. How will you track the devices within the corporation? How often will you have to replace phones and as a consequence have to upgrade your applications to support new phones? The devices can represent a significant investment of capital. If these questions are not addressed you will find a number of hidden costs throughout the life of your solution. Purchase or BYOD We have seen the trend of Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) lately within the enterprise. How many meetings have you been in where someone is on their personal iPad, iPhone, Android phone or Windows Phone? The issue is if you can afford to support everyone's choice in device? That is a lot to take on even if you only support the current release of each platform. Do you go with the most popular device or do you pick a platform that best matches your current ecosystem and distribute company owned devices? There is no easy answer here, but you should be able give some dollar value to both hardware and development costs related to platform coverage. Asset Tracking/Insurance Smartphones are devices that are easier to lose or have stolen than laptops and desktops. Not only do you have your normal asset management concerns but also assignment of financial responsibility. You also will need to insure them against damage and theft and add legal documents that spell out the responsibilities of the employees that use these devices. Personal vs. Corporate Data What happens when you terminate an employee? How do you recover the device? What happens when they have put personal data on the device? These are all situation that can cause possible loss of corporate intellectual property or legal repercussions of reclaiming a device with personal data on it. Policies need to be put in place that protect the company from being exposed to type of loss. This can mean significant legal and procedural cost that you need to consider. Coming Up In the last installment of this series I will cover application development considerations. del.icio.us Tags: Smartphones,Enterprise Smartphone Apps,Architecture

Read the article
Setting the SlideShowExtender's Index

- by Bunch

The AJAX SlideShowExtender is pretty useful. It does what it says and works without much fuss. There was one trick I needed it to perform that I could not find natively within the control. That was to set the slide’s current index. With a little JavaScript however I could make the control do what I wanted. The example below assumes a few things. First you already have a SlideShowExtender setup and working (or see this post). Second this SlideShowExtender is on a page all by itself so the index to set the slide to is passed in the URL. The scenario I had was this SSE was showing full images, the index was passed from another page that had a SSE showing thumbnails. JavaScript in <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function pageLoad() { var slider = $find("sse"); var photoIndex = GetQuerystring('Index', 0); slider._currentIndex = photoIndex - 1; slider._slides = ''; slider.setCurrentImage(); } function GetQuerystring(key, default_) { if (default_ == null) default_ = '0'; key = key.replace(/[\[]/, "\\\[").replace(/[\]]/, "\\\]"); var regex = new RegExp("[\\?&]" + key + "=([^&#]*)"); var qs = regex.exec(window.location.href); if (qs == null) return default_; else return qs[1]; } </script> The GetQuerystring function is what grabs the Index value I pass from the page with the thumbnails. It does not have anything else to do with setting the slide index. The code in the pageLoad function sets the index on the slide_currentIndex line. The slider.setCurrentImage() line does pretty much what it says. I added the slider._slider = ‘’ to avoid an error (not a show stopper just a bit annoying). Control in <body> <cc1:SlideShowExtender ID="ssePhotos" runat="server" TargetControlID="imgFull" AutoPlay="false" PreviousButtonID="btnPrev" NextButtonID="btnNext" SlideShowServicePath="PlacePhotos.asmx" SlideShowServiceMethod="GetPlaceFullPhotos" BehaviorID="sse" ImageDescriptionLabelID="lblPictureDescription"> </cc1:SlideShowExtender> The main property to set with the SSE is the BehaviorID. This is what a JavaScript function can use to find the control rather than the control’s ID value. Technorati Tags: AJAX,ASP.Net,JavaScript

Read the article
Architecture or Pattern for handling properties with custom setter/getter?

- by Shelby115

Current Situation: I'm doing a simple MVC site for keeping journals as a personal project. My concern is I'm trying to keep the interaction between the pages and the classes simplistic. Where I run into issues is the password field. My setter encrypts the password, so the getter retrieves the encrypted password. public class JournalBook { private IEncryptor _encryptor { get; set; } private String _password { get; set; } public Int32 id { get; set; } public String name { get; set; } public String description { get; set; } public String password { get { return this._password; } set { this.setPassword(this._password, value, value); } } public List<Journal> journals { get; set; } public DateTime created { get; set; } public DateTime lastModified { get; set; } public Boolean passwordProtected { get { return this.password != null && this.password != String.Empty; } } ... } I'm currently using model-binding to submit changes or create new JournalBooks (like below). The problem arises that in the code below book.password is always null, I'm pretty sure this is because of the custom setter. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(JournalBook book) { // Create the JournalBook if not null. if (book != null) this.JournalBooks.Add(book); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } Question(s): Should I be handling this not in the property's getter/setter? Is there a pattern or architecture that allows for model-binding or another simple method when properties need to have custom getters/setters to manipulate the data? To summarize, how can I handle the password storing with encryption such that I have the following, Robust architecture I don't store the password as plaintext. Submitting a new or modified JournalBook is as easy as default model-binding (or close to it).

Read the article
Correct syntax in stored procedure and method using MsSqlProvider.ExecProcedure? [migrated]

- by Dudi

I have problem with ASP.net and database prcedure My procedure in mssql base USE [dbase] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[top1000] @Published datetime output, @Title nvarchar(100) output, @Url nvarchar(1000) output, @Count INT output AS SET @Published = (SELECT TOP 1000 dbo.vst_download_files.dfl_date_public FROM dbo.vst_download_files ORDER BY dbo.vst_download_files.dfl_download_count DESC ) SET @Title = (SELECT TOP 1000 dbo.vst_download_files.dfl_name FROM dbo.vst_download_files ORDER BY dbo.vst_download_files.dfl_download_count DESC) SET @Url = (SELECT TOP 1000 dbo.vst_download_files.dfl_source_url FROM dbo.vst_download_files ORDER BY dbo.vst_download_files.dfl_download_count DESC) SET @Count = (SELECT TOP 1000 dbo.vst_download_files.dfl_download_count FROM dbo.vst_download_files ORDER BY dbo.vst_download_files.dfl_download_count DESC) And my proceduer in website project public static void Top1000() { List<DownloadFile> List = new List<DownloadFile>(); SqlDataReader dbReader; SqlParameter published = new SqlParameter("@Published", SqlDbType.DateTime2); published.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; SqlParameter title = new SqlParameter("@Title", SqlDbType.NVarChar); title.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; SqlParameter url = new SqlParameter("@Url", SqlDbType.NVarChar); url.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; SqlParameter count = new SqlParameter("@Count", SqlDbType.Int); count.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; SqlParameter[] parm = {published, title, count}; dbReader = MsSqlProvider.ExecProcedure("top1000", parm); try { while (dbReader.Read()) { DownloadFile df = new DownloadFile(); //df.AddDate = dbReader["dfl_date_public"]; df.Name = dbReader["dlf_name"].ToString(); df.SourceUrl = dbReader["dlf_source_url"].ToString(); df.DownloadCount = Convert.ToInt32(dbReader["dlf_download_count"]); List.Add(df); } XmlDocument top1000Xml = new XmlDocument(); XmlNode XMLNode = top1000Xml.CreateElement("products"); foreach (DownloadFile df in List) { XmlNode productNode = top1000Xml.CreateElement("product"); XmlNode publishedNode = top1000Xml.CreateElement("published"); publishedNode.InnerText = "data dodania"; XMLNode.AppendChild(publishedNode); XmlNode titleNode = top1000Xml.CreateElement("title"); titleNode.InnerText = df.Name; XMLNode.AppendChild(titleNode); } top1000Xml.AppendChild(XMLNode); top1000Xml.Save("\\pages\\test.xml"); } catch { } finally { dbReader.Close(); } } And if I made to MsSqlProvider.ExecProcedure("top1000", parm); I got String[1]: property Size has invalid size of 0. Where I shoudl look for solution? Procedure or method?

Read the article
?????create or replace???PL/SQL??

- by Liu Maclean(???)

????T.Askmaclean.com?????10gR2??????procedure,?????????create or replace ??????????????????,????Oracle???????????????????procedure? ??Maclean ??2?10gR2???????????PL/SQL?????: ??1: ??Flashback Query ????,?????????????flashback database,??????????create or replace???SQL??source$??????????undo data,????????????: SQL> select * from V$version; BANNER ---------------------------------------------------------------- Oracle Database 10g Enterprise Edition Release 10.2.0.5.0 - 64bi PL/SQL Release 10.2.0.5.0 - Production CORE 10.2.0.5.0 Production TNS for Linux: Version 10.2.0.5.0 - Production NLSRTL Version 10.2.0.5.0 - Production SQL> select * from global_name; GLOBAL_NAME -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- www.oracledatabase12g.com SQL> create or replace procedure maclean_proc as 2 begin 3 execute immediate 'select 1 from dual'; 4 end; 5 / Procedure created. SQL> select * from dba_source where name='MACLEAN_PROC'; OWNER NAME TYPE LINE TEXT ---------- ------------------------------ ------------ ---------- -------------------------------------------------- SYS MACLEAN_PROC PROCEDURE 1 procedure maclean_proc as SYS MACLEAN_PROC PROCEDURE 2 begin SYS MACLEAN_PROC PROCEDURE 3 execute immediate 'select 1 from dual'; SYS MACLEAN_PROC PROCEDURE 4 end; SQL> select current_scn from v$database; CURRENT_SCN ----------- 2660057 create or replace procedure maclean_proc as begin -- I am new procedure execute immediate 'select 2 from dual'; end; / Procedure created. SQL> select current_scn from v$database; CURRENT_SCN ----------- 2660113 SQL> select * from dba_source where name='MACLEAN_PROC'; OWNER NAME TYPE LINE TEXT ---------- ------------------------------ ------------ ---------- -------------------------------------------------- SYS MACLEAN_PROC PROCEDURE 1 procedure maclean_proc as SYS MACLEAN_PROC PROCEDURE 2 begin SYS MACLEAN_PROC PROCEDURE 3 -- I am new procedure SYS MACLEAN_PROC PROCEDURE 4 execute immediate 'select 2 from dual'; SYS MACLEAN_PROC PROCEDURE 5 end; SQL> create table old_source as select * from dba_source as of scn 2660057 where name='MACLEAN_PROC'; Table created. SQL> select * from old_source where name='MACLEAN_PROC'; OWNER NAME TYPE LINE TEXT ---------- ------------------------------ ------------ ---------- -------------------------------------------------- SYS MACLEAN_PROC PROCEDURE 1 procedure maclean_proc as SYS MACLEAN_PROC PROCEDURE 2 begin SYS MACLEAN_PROC PROCEDURE 3 execute immediate 'select 1 from dual'; SYS MACLEAN_PROC PROCEDURE 4 end; ?????????scn??flashback query????,????????as of timestamp??????????,????PL/SQL????????????????undo??????????,????????????replace/drop ??????PL/SQL??? ??2 ??logminer??replace/drop PL/SQL?????SQL???DELETE??,??logminer?UNDO SQL???PL/SQL?????? ????????????????archivelog????,??????????????? minimal supplemental logging,??????????Unsupported SQLREDO???: create or replace?? ?? procedure???????SQL??????, ??????procedure????????????????, source$??????????????: SQL> ALTER DATABASE ADD SUPPLEMENTAL LOG DATA; Database altered. SQL> create or replace procedure maclean_proc as 2 begin 3 execute immediate 'select 1 from dual'; 4 end; 5 / Procedure created. SQL> SQL> oradebug setmypid; Statement processed. SQL> SQL> oradebug event 10046 trace name context forever,level 12; Statement processed. SQL> SQL> create or replace procedure maclean_proc as 2 begin 3 execute immediate 'select 2 from dual'; 4 end; 5 / Procedure created. SQL> oradebug tracefile_name /s01/admin/G10R25/udump/g10r25_ora_4305.trc [oracle@vrh8 ~]$ egrep "update|insert|delete|merge" /s01/admin/G10R25/udump/g10r25_ora_4305.trc delete from procedureinfo$ where obj#=:1 delete from argument$ where obj#=:1 delete from procedurec$ where obj#=:1 delete from procedureplsql$ where obj#=:1 delete from procedurejava$ where obj#=:1 delete from vtable$ where obj#=:1 insert into procedureinfo$(obj#,procedure#,overload#,procedurename,properties,itypeobj#) values (:1,:2,:3,:4,:5,:6) insert into argument$( obj#,procedure$,procedure#,overload#,position#,sequence#,level#,argument,type#,default#,in_out,length,precision#,scale,radix,charsetid,charsetform,properties,type_owner,type_name,type_subname,type_linkname,pls_type) values (:1,:2,:3,:4,:5,:6,:7,:8,:9,:10,:11,:12,:13,:14,:15,:16,:17,:18,:19,:20,:21,:22,:23) insert into procedureplsql$(obj#,procedure#,entrypoint#) values (:1,:2,:3) update procedure$ set audit$=:2,options=:3 where obj#=:1 delete from source$ where obj#=:1 insert into source$(obj#,line,source) values (:1,:2,:3) delete from idl_ub1$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and version<>:3 delete from idl_char$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and version<>:3 delete from idl_ub2$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and version<>:3 delete from idl_sb4$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and version<>:3 delete from ncomp_dll$ where obj#=:1 returning dllname into :2 update idl_sb4$ set piece#=:1 ,length=:2 , piece=:3 where obj#=:4 and part=:5 and piece#=:6 and version=:7 update idl_ub1$ set piece#=:1 ,length=:2 , piece=:3 where obj#=:4 and part=:5 and piece#=:6 and version=:7 update idl_char$ set piece#=:1 ,length=:2 , piece=:3 where obj#=:4 and part=:5 and piece#=:6 and version=:7 update idl_ub2$ set piece#=:1 ,length=:2 , piece=:3 where obj#=:4 and part=:5 and piece#=:6 and version=:7 delete from idl_ub1$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and version<>:3 delete from idl_char$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and version<>:3 delete from idl_ub2$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and version<>:3 delete from idl_sb4$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and version<>:3 delete from ncomp_dll$ where obj#=:1 returning dllname into :2 delete from idl_ub1$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and (piece#<:3 or piece#>:4) and version=:5 delete from idl_char$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and (piece#<:3 or piece#>:4) and version=:5 delete from idl_ub2$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and (piece#<:3 or piece#>:4) and version=:5 delete from idl_sb4$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and (piece#<:3 or piece#>:4) and version=:5 delete from idl_ub1$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and version<>:3 delete from idl_char$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and version<>:3 delete from idl_ub2$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and version<>:3 delete from idl_sb4$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and version<>:3 delete from ncomp_dll$ where obj#=:1 returning dllname into :2 update idl_sb4$ set piece#=:1 ,length=:2 , piece=:3 where obj#=:4 and part=:5 and piece#=:6 and version=:7 update idl_ub1$ set piece#=:1 ,length=:2 , piece=:3 where obj#=:4 and part=:5 and piece#=:6 and version=:7 delete from idl_char$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and (piece#<:3 or piece#>:4) and version=:5 delete from idl_ub2$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 and (piece#<:3 or piece#>:4) and version=:5 delete from error$ where obj#=:1 delete from settings$ where obj# = :1 insert into settings$(obj#, param, value) values (:1, :2, :3) delete from warning_settings$ where obj# = :1 insert into warning_settings$(obj#, warning_num, global_mod, property) values (:1, :2, :3, :4) delete from dependency$ where d_obj#=:1 delete from access$ where d_obj#=:1 insert into dependency$(d_obj#,d_timestamp,order#,p_obj#,p_timestamp, property, d_attrs)values (:1,:2,:3,:4,:5,:6, :7) insert into access$(d_obj#,order#,columns,types) values (:1,:2,:3,:4) update obj$ set obj#=:6,type#=:7,ctime=:8,mtime=:9,stime=:10,status=:11,dataobj#=:13,flags=:14,oid$=:15,spare1=:16, spare2=:17 where owner#=:1 and name=:2 and namespace=:3 and(remoteowner=:4 or remoteowner is null and :4 is null)and(linkname=:5 or linkname is null and :5 is null)and(subname=:12 or subname is null and :12 is null) ?drop procedure??????source$???PL/SQL?????: SQL> oradebug setmypid; Statement processed. SQL> oradebug event 10046 trace name context forever,level 12; Statement processed. SQL> drop procedure maclean_proc; Procedure dropped. SQL> oradebug tracefile_name /s01/admin/G10R25/udump/g10r25_ora_4331.trc delete from context$ where obj#=:1 delete from dir$ where obj#=:1 delete from type_misc$ where obj#=:1 delete from library$ where obj#=:1 delete from procedure$ where obj#=:1 delete from javaobj$ where obj#=:1 delete from operator$ where obj#=:1 delete from opbinding$ where obj#=:1 delete from opancillary$ where obj#=:1 delete from oparg$ where obj# = :1 delete from com$ where obj#=:1 delete from source$ where obj#=:1 delete from idl_ub1$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 delete from idl_char$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 delete from idl_ub2$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 delete from idl_sb4$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 delete from ncomp_dll$ where obj#=:1 returning dllname into :2 delete from idl_ub1$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 delete from idl_char$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 delete from idl_ub2$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 delete from idl_sb4$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 delete from ncomp_dll$ where obj#=:1 returning dllname into :2 delete from idl_ub1$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 delete from idl_char$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 delete from idl_ub2$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 delete from idl_sb4$ where obj#=:1 and part=:2 delete from ncomp_dll$ where obj#=:1 returning dllname into :2 delete from error$ where obj#=:1 delete from settings$ where obj# = :1 delete from procedureinfo$ where obj#=:1 delete from argument$ where obj#=:1 delete from procedurec$ where obj#=:1 delete from procedureplsql$ where obj#=:1 delete from procedurejava$ where obj#=:1 delete from vtable$ where obj#=:1 delete from dependency$ where d_obj#=:1 delete from access$ where d_obj#=:1 delete from objauth$ where obj#=:1 update obj$ set obj#=:6,type#=:7,ctime=:8,mtime=:9,stime=:10,status=:11,dataobj#=:13,flags=:14,oid$=:15,spare1=:16, spare2=:17 where owner#=:1 and name=:2 and namespace=:3 and(remoteowner=:4 or remoteowner is null and :4 is null)and(linkname=:5 or linkname is null and :5 is null)and(subname=:12 or subname is null and :12 is null) ??????????source$???redo: SQL> alter system switch logfile; System altered. SQL> select sequence#,name from v$archived_log where sequence#=(select max(sequence#) from v$archived_log); SEQUENCE# ---------- NAME -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 242 /s01/flash_recovery_area/G10R25/archivelog/2012_05_21/o1_mf_1_242_7vnm13k6_.arc SQL> exec dbms_logmnr.add_logfile ('/s01/flash_recovery_area/G10R25/archivelog/2012_05_21/o1_mf_1_242_7vnm13k6_.arc',options => dbms_logmnr.new); PL/SQL procedure successfully completed. SQL> exec dbms_logmnr.start_logmnr(options => dbms_logmnr.dict_from_online_catalog); PL/SQL procedure successfully completed. SQL> select sql_redo,sql_undo from v$logmnr_contents where seg_name = 'SOURCE$' and operation='DELETE'; delete from "SYS"."SOURCE$" where "OBJ#" = '56059' and "LINE" = '1' and "SOURCE" = 'procedure maclean_proc as ' and ROWID = 'AAAABIAABAAALpyAAN'; insert into "SYS"."SOURCE$"("OBJ#","LINE","SOURCE") values ('56059','1','procedure maclean_proc as '); delete from "SYS"."SOURCE$" where "OBJ#" = '56059' and "LINE" = '2' and "SOURCE" = 'begin ' and ROWID = 'AAAABIAABAAALpyAAO'; insert into "SYS"."SOURCE$"("OBJ#","LINE","SOURCE") values ('56059','2','begin '); delete from "SYS"."SOURCE$" where "OBJ#" = '56059' and "LINE" = '3' and "SOURCE" = 'execute immediate ''select 1 from dual''; ' and ROWID = 'AAAABIAABAAALpyAAP'; insert into "SYS"."SOURCE$"("OBJ#","LINE","SOURCE") values ('56059','3','execute immediate ''select 1 from dual''; '); delete from "SYS"."SOURCE$" where "OBJ#" = '56059' and "LINE" = '4' and "SOURCE" = 'end;' and ROWID = 'AAAABIAABAAALpyAAQ'; insert into "SYS"."SOURCE$"("OBJ#","LINE","SOURCE") values ('56059','4','end;'); delete from "SYS"."SOURCE$" where "OBJ#" = '56059' and "LINE" = '1' and "SOURCE" = 'procedure maclean_proc as ' and ROWID = 'AAAABIAABAAALpyAAJ'; insert into "SYS"."SOURCE$"("OBJ#","LINE","SOURCE") values ('56059','1','procedure maclean_proc as '); delete from "SYS"."SOURCE$" where "OBJ#" = '56059' and "LINE" = '2' and "SOURCE" = 'begin ' and ROWID = 'AAAABIAABAAALpyAAK'; insert into "SYS"."SOURCE$"("OBJ#","LINE","SOURCE") values ('56059','2','begin '); delete from "SYS"."SOURCE$" where "OBJ#" = '56059' and "LINE" = '3' and "SOURCE" = 'execute immediate ''select 2 from dual''; ' and ROWID = 'AAAABIAABAAALpyAAL'; insert into "SYS"."SOURCE$"("OBJ#","LINE","SOURCE") values ('56059','3','execute immediate ''select 2 from dual''; '); delete from "SYS"."SOURCE$" where "OBJ#" = '56059' and "LINE" = '4' and "SOURCE" = 'end;' and ROWID = 'AAAABIAABAAALpyAAM'; insert into "SYS"."SOURCE$"("OBJ#","LINE","SOURCE") values ('56059','4','end;'); ???? logminer???UNDO SQL???????source$????,?DELETE????????????,????SOURCE????????????PL/SQL???DDL???

Read the article
Apply jquery selectbox style on chained selectbox

- by ktsixit

Hi all, I have created a pair of chained selectboxes in my page. The second selectbox is filled with a set of values, depending on the first box's selected value. The script that makes the two selectboxes work like this, uses php and javascript. This is the code I'm using: form <select name="continent" tabindex="1" onChange="getCountry(this.value)"> <option value="#">-Select-</option> <option value="Europe">Europe</option> <option value="Asia">Asia</option> </select> <div id="countrydiv"> <select name="country" tabindex="2"> <option></option> </select> </div> <input type="submit" /> </form> javascript code $(document).ready(function() { $('select[name="continent"]').selectbox({debug: true}); $('select[name="country"]').selectbox({debug: true}); }); function getXMLHTTP() { //fuction to return the xml http object var xmlhttp=false; try{ xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(e) { try{ xmlhttp= new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch(e){ try{ xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch(e1){ xmlhttp=false; } } } return xmlhttp; } function getCountry(continentId) { var strURL="findCountry.php?continent="+continentId; var req = getXMLHTTP(); if (req) { req.onreadystatechange = function() { if (req.readyState == 4) { // only if "OK" if (req.status == 200) { document.getElementById('countrydiv').innerHTML=req.responseText; } else { alert("There was a problem while using XMLHTTP:\n" + req.statusText); } } } req.open("GET", strURL, true); req.send(null); } } php code (findCountry.php) <? $continent=intval($_GET['continent']); if ($_GET['continent'] == 'Europe') { ?> <select name="country"> <option value="France">France</option> <option value="Germany">Germany</option> <option value="Spain">Spain</option> <option value="Italy">Italy</option> </select> <? } if ($_GET['continent'] == 'Asia') { ?> <select name="country"> <option value="China">China</option> <option value="India">India</option> <option value="Japan">Japan</option> </select> <? } ?> What I want to do is to apply jquery selectbox styling on these selectboxes. I haven't succeeded in doing that yet. The problem is that jquery is hiding the normal selectbox and is replacing it with a list. Furthermore, after selectbox's content is refreshed, jquery cannot re-construct it into a list. You can take a look of the jquery code here Is there something I can do to combine these techniques? I have tried a million things but nothing worked. Can you please help me?

Read the article
NSMutableString leaks on append or replaceOccurrencesOfString

- by John

Hello Folks, I know similar questions have been asked time and time again but I ask that you please bear with me as I cannot seem to find an answer that helps. My application has leaks that are driving me out of my mind. Actually, they are not reported as leaks using Leaks, but my net bytes in ObjectAlloc goes up and up and up and never stops, eventually leading to a crash if it goes on long enough (not very long). The problem occurs with NSMutableStrings. I think there is either something fundamental I don't understand about them, or I am facing another problem that I am having difficulty tracking down but keeps hiding behind the NSMutableStrings. Specifically, I am noticing that whenever I append to or perform a replace on a NSMutableString, ObjectAlloc reports what appear to be mismatches in malloc/frees behind the scene when resizing the NSMutableString. I'm sorry to say this is the second time I'm facing this problem - the first time I messed around for hours and hours and finally the problem went away (magic!) but I don't really know why. When I look at the code below (and believe me, I've stared at it for hours) I cannot see the problem. I look at the code and think to myself that I should be fine because I'm releasing the only object for which I am responsible (aString) and that NSMutableString should be taking care of cleaning up after any resizing it does. In the second example, just so you know in case it helps, the string being passed in comes from an ASIHTTPRequest object (it's the responseString) and I don't do anything at all with it. It's being called simply like so ([self DoStuff2:[request responseString]]) and I don't free the request myself either (I'm using a ASINetworkQueue and I assume that the requests are destroyed for me (I tried and caused errors because the request was already being release somewhere else). Also, I know it shouldn't do anything, but I even tried wrapping the code in autorelease pools, which of course did nothing. I should mention that this code is being run inside of an NSOperation. I thought that perhaps I am experiencing problems because NSOperations should create an autorelease pool for themselves, but I've tried that to no avail. Not related to NSMutableString, but I find I also have similar problems using the NSString componentsSeparatedByString method. Sometimes the memory used by the array that gets the separated components is never released. Hmmm...strings in general seem to be somewhat problematic for me it seems. I would appreciate ANY help anyone can provide. If you require more info, I'll be glad to add it. I do promise you that I've struggled with this (and other problems) for weeks and every problem I encounter I research hard and long until I find a solution - this is not an idle request, but a true cry for help! I've written so much code and now I'm trying to seal some small leaks etc and I notice this problem. Honestly, I cannot believe how memory management in Objective C can stump me so at times...I've read Apple's memory mgmt docs many times and I thought I thoroughly understood it and I try to be diligent about releasing objects I own, but sometimes I find myself wondering if I truly understand...I would like to put this to bed once and make sure I understand all this fully - to have this sort of question/problem after writing thousands of lines of code is more than a little scary/embarrassing/annoying. So again, if anybody has any insight, I'd be grateful. Thanks for your time and efforts. -(void)DoStuff { NSString *aString [ [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"text %@ more text", self.strVariable]; [self.someMutableStringVar replaceOccurrencesOfString:@"replace" withString:aString options:NSCaseInsensitiveSearch range:NSMakeRange(0, [self.someMutableStringVar length])]; [aString release]; } -(void)DoStuff2:(NSString *)aString { [self.someMutableStringVar appendString:aString]; }

Read the article
wave.getState() returns null

- by RMorrisey

When trying to call wave.getState() in my Google Wave gadget, I get back null (no state object). How can I initialize the Wave state object? I am working in the Wave Sandbox. My ModulePrefs contains the following: <Require feature="wave" /> <Require feature="rpc"/> I got the "rpc" feature from some google groups post when searching for a fix, but it doesn't seem to be any help. The gadget contains a jQuery plugin, which defines the classes I use (not shown), attaches an event handler to the link that shows up in edit mode, and sets up the callback methods with the google wave gadget initializer: $.fn.extend({ $.gork.InitPass.newButtonClick = function newButtonClick() { var jer = new $.gork.InitPass.Player('Jeremias', 12, 2); var delta = {}; delta[jer.name] = jer.serialize(); wave.getState().submitDelta(delta); }; $.gork.InitPass.modeCallback = function modeCallback() { var state = wave.getState(); var mode = wave.getMode(); $.gork.InitPass.getContainer().ipCombatState(state, (mode == wave.Mode.EDIT)); }; $.gork.InitPass.stateCallback = function stateCallback() { $.gork.InitPass.getContainer().ipCombatState( wave.getState(), (wave.getMode() == wave.Mode.EDIT)); alert('state'); }; $.gork.InitPass.init = function init() { if (wave && wave.isInWaveContainer()) { var mode = wave.getMode(); $('.gork-ip-container').ipCombatState(null, (mode == wave.Mode.EDIT)); wave.setModeCallback($.gork.InitPass.modeCallback); wave.setStateCallback($.gork.InitPass.stateCallback); } }; })(jQuery); gadgets.util.registerOnLoadHandler($.gork.InitPass.init); $(function ready() { $.gork.InitPass.getContainer().find('.gork-ip-edit .addSection a.newButton').click( $.gork.InitPass.newButtonClick); }); So there are two main pieces of functionality here: When the mode changes, ipCombatState(...) is called. This changes the visual appearance of the gadget when the user puts the gadget in Edit mode (CTRL+E), by hiding the view DIV and displaying the edit DIV. The newButtonClick callback (which is attached to the link "a.newButton" in the edit container) is supposed to add Jeremias (Nate's Shadowrun character) to the gadget state, so that he'll be appear as a table row in edit mode. I have verified that the initializer method is called, and the view/edit mode switch works just fine (except the state is null). When I click on the new button link (the link at the bottom in edit mode), and trigger the newButtonClick handler, I get an error because wave.getState() also returns null. How can I initialize the wave state so that I can work with it? The purpose of my gadget will be to keep track of combat initiative order in a Shadowrun tabletop game (4th Ed). You can test it out in Wave and see what I have so far: http://gorkwobble.herobo.com/wave/init-pass.xml The actual javascript code is externalized to: http://gorkwobble.herobo.com/wave/init-pass.js P.S. If any Shadowrun players read this, and want to hear about it when I get the gadget working, leave a comment and I'll wave you.

Read the article
Domain Validation in a CQRS architecture

- by Jupaol

Basically I want to know if there is a better way to validate my domain entities. This is how I am planning to do it but I would like your opinion The first approach I considered was: class Customer : EntityBase<Customer> { public void ChangeEmail(string email) { if(string.IsNullOrWhitespace(email)) throw new DomainException(“...”); if(!email.IsEmail()) throw new DomainException(); if(email.Contains(“@mailinator.com”)) throw new DomainException(); } } I actually do not like this validation because even when I am encapsulating the validation logic in the correct entity, this is violating the Open/Close principle (Open for extension but Close for modification) and I have found that violating this principle, code maintenance becomes a real pain when the application grows up in complexity. Why? Because domain rules change more often than we would like to admit, and if the rules are hidden and embedded in an entity like this, they are hard to test, hard to read, hard to maintain but the real reason why I do not like this approach is: if the validation rules change, I have to come and edit my domain entity. This has been a really simple example but in RL the validation could be more complex So following the philosophy of Udi Dahan, making roles explicit, and the recommendation from Eric Evans in the blue book, the next try was to implement the specification pattern, something like this class EmailDomainIsAllowedSpecification : IDomainSpecification<Customer> { private INotAllowedEmailDomainsResolver invalidEmailDomainsResolver; public bool IsSatisfiedBy(Customer customer) { return !this.invalidEmailDomainsResolver.GetInvalidEmailDomains().Contains(customer.Email); } } But then I realize that in order to follow this approach I had to mutate my entities first in order to pass the value being valdiated, in this case the email, but mutating them would cause my domain events being fired which I wouldn’t like to happen until the new email is valid So after considering these approaches, I came out with this one, since I am going to implement a CQRS architecture: class EmailDomainIsAllowedValidator : IDomainInvariantValidator<Customer, ChangeEmailCommand> { public void IsValid(Customer entity, ChangeEmailCommand command) { if(!command.Email.HasValidDomain()) throw new DomainException(“...”); } } Well that’s the main idea, the entity is passed to the validator in case we need some value from the entity to perform the validation, the command contains the data coming from the user and since the validators are considered injectable objects they could have external dependencies injected if the validation requires it. Now the dilemma, I am happy with a design like this because my validation is encapsulated in individual objects which brings many advantages: easy unit test, easy to maintain, domain invariants are explicitly expressed using the Ubiquitous Language, easy to extend, validation logic is centralized and validators can be used together to enforce complex domain rules. And even when I know I am placing the validation of my entities outside of them (You could argue a code smell - Anemic Domain) but I think the trade-off is acceptable But there is one thing that I have not figured out how to implement it in a clean way. How should I use this components... Since they will be injected, they won’t fit naturally inside my domain entities, so basically I see two options: Pass the validators to each method of my entity Validate my objects externally (from the command handler) I am not happy with the option 1 so I would explain how I would do it with the option 2 class ChangeEmailCommandHandler : ICommandHandler<ChangeEmailCommand> { public void Execute(ChangeEmailCommand command) { private IEnumerable<IDomainInvariantValidator> validators; // here I would get the validators required for this command injected, and in here I would validate them, something like this using (var t = this.unitOfWork.BeginTransaction()) { var customer = this.unitOfWork.Get<Customer>(command.CustomerId); this.validators.ForEach(x =. x.IsValid(customer, command)); // here I know the command is valid // the call to ChangeEmail will fire domain events as needed customer.ChangeEmail(command.Email); t.Commit(); } } } Well this is it. Can you give me your thoughts about this or share your experiences with Domain entities validation EDIT I think it is not clear from my question, but the real problem is: Hiding the domain rules has serious implications in the future maintainability of the application, and also domain rules change often during the life-cycle of the app. Hence implementing them with this in mind would let us extend them easily. Now imagine in the future a rules engine is implemented, if the rules are encapsulated outside of the domain entities, this change would be easier to implement

Read the article
Horizontal navigation from next previous buttons for Overflow:Hidden div

- by brz dot net

See following Code <div> <a id="west" href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="scrollBlockWest();"><<West</a> <a id="east" href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="scrollBlockEast();">East >></a> </div> <div id="myScrollContainer" style="overflow:hidden; width:900px; height:700px"> <table id="myScrollContent"><tr><td> <div id="block0" style="display:block;height:300px; width:300px; background-color:Lime">Content 0</div> </td><td> <div id="block1" style="display:block;height:300px; width:300px; background-color:Aqua">Content 1</div> </td><td> <div id="block2" style="display:block;height:300px; width:300px; background-color:Blue">Content 2</div> </td><td> <div id="block3" style="display:block;height:300px; width:300px; background-color:Gray">Content 3</div> </td><td> <div id="block4" style="display:block;height:300px; width:300px; background-color:Gray">Content 4</div> </td> </tr></table> </div> This is my script: <script type="text/javascript" > var totalBlock = 4; var currentBlock = 0; function scrollBlockEast() { var blk = document.getElementById('block'+currentBlock); //alert('block'+blockid); blk.style.display='none'; currentBlock++; //document.getElementById('myScrollContent').style.left = -100; if(currentBlock<totalBlock) { document.getElementById('west').style.display='inline'; } //alert(totlaBlock-1); if(currentBlock==totalBlock) { document.getElementById('east').style.display='none'; } } function scrollBlockWest() { currentBlock--; document.getElementById('block'+currentBlock).style.display='inline'; if(currentBlock<1) { document.getElementById('west').style.display='none'; } else { document.getElementById('east').style.display='inline'; } } </script> Now My object is to slide block on << and click. By default, 3 blocks(Content 0,Content 1,Content 2) are coming. When is clicked then (Content 1,Content 2,Content 3) will come. For this, I hide content 0 block. But layout will disturb on << click. I know this is wrong way. I should set left position instead of hiding content but it is empty I tried to set left position but no luck. Let me know How the block can be moved one by one using javascript and what is the best approach to do this?

Read the article
Better, simpler example of 'semantic conflict'?

- by rhubbarb

I like to distinguish three different types of conflict from a version control system (VCS): textual syntactic semantic A textual conflict is one that is detected by the merge or update process. This is flagged by the system. A commit of the result is not permitted by the VCS until the conflict is resolved. A syntactic conflict is not flagged by the VCS, but the result will not compile. Therefore this should also be picked up by even a slightly careful programmer. (A simple example might be a variable rename by Left and some added lines using that variable by Right. The merge will probably have an unresolved symbol. Alternatively, this might introduce a semantic conflict by variable hiding.) Finally, a semantic conflict is not flagged by the VCS, the result compiles, but the code may have problems running. In mild cases, incorrect results are produced. In severe cases, a crash could be introduced. Even these should be detected before commit by a very careful programmer, through either code review or unit testing. My example of a semantic conflict uses SVN (Subversion) and C++, but those choices are not really relevant to the essence of the question. The base code is: int i = 0; int odds = 0; while (i < 10) { if ((i & 1) != 0) { odds *= 10; odds += i; } // next ++ i; } assert (odds == 13579) The Left (L) and Right (R) changes are as follows. Left's 'optimisation' (changing the values the loop variable takes): int i = 1; // L int odds = 0; while (i < 10) { if ((i & 1) != 0) { odds *= 10; odds += i; } // next i += 2; // L } assert (odds == 13579) Right's 'optimisation' (changing how the loop variable is used): int i = 0; int odds = 0; while (i < 5) // R { odds *= 10; odds += 2 * i + 1; // R // next ++ i; } assert (odds == 13579) This is the result of a merge or update, and is not detected by SVN (which is correct behaviour for the VCS). int i = 1; // L int odds = 0; while (i < 5) // R { odds *= 10; odds += 2 * i + 1; // R // next i += 2; // L } assert (odds == 13579) The assert fails because odds is 37. So my question is as follows. Is there a simpler example than this? Is there a simple example where the compiled executable has a new crash? As a secondary question, are there cases of this that you have encountered in real code? Again, simple examples are especially welcome.

Read the article
Search Form in Responsive Design - Remove Search button on Mobile

- by Kevin

I'm working with a search box in the header of a responsive website. On desktop/tablet widths, there's a search input field and a styled 'search' button to the right. You can type in a search term and either click 'SEARCH' button or just hit enter on the keyboard with the same result. When you scale down to mobile widths, the search input field fills the width of the screen. The submit button falls below it. On a desktop, clicking the button or hitting enter activate the search. On an actual iphone phone, you can hit the 'SEARCH' button, but the native mobile keyboard that rises from the bottom of the screen has a search button where the enter/return key would normally be. It seems to know I'm in a form and the keyboard automatically gives me the option to kick off the search by basically hitting the ENTER key location....but it says SEARCH. So far so good. I figure I don't need the button in the header on mobile since it's already in the keyboard. Therefore, I'll hide the button on mobile widths and everything will be tighter and look better. So I added this to my CSS to hide it in mobile: #search-button {display: none;} But now the search doesn't work at all. On mobile, I don't get the option in the keyboard that showed up before and if I just hit enter, it doesn't work at all. On desktop at mobile width, hitting enter also not longer works. So clearly by hiding the submit/search button, the phone no longer gave me the native option to run the search. In addition, on the desktop at mobile width, even hitting enter inside the search input box also fails to launch the the search. Here's my search box: <form id="search-form" method="get" accept-charset="UTF-8, utf-8" action="search.php"> <fieldset> <div id="search-wrapper"> <label id="search-label" for="search">Item:</label> <input id="search" class="placeholder-color" name="item" type="text" placeholder="Item Number or Description" /> <button id="search-button" title="Go" type="submit"><span class="search-icon"></span></button> </div> </fieldset> </form> Here's what my CSS looks like: #search-wrapper { float: left; display: inline-block; position: relative; white-space: nowrap; } #search-button { display: inline-block; cursor: pointer; vertical-align: top; height: 30px; width: 40px; } @media only screen and (max-width: 639px) { #search-wrapper { display: block; margin-bottom: 7px; } #search-button { /* this didn't work....it hid the button but the search failed to load */ display: none;*/ } } So.....how can I hide this submit button when I'm on a mobile screen, but still let the search run from the mobile keyboard or just run by hitting enter when in the search input box. I was sure that putting display:none on the search button at mobile width would do the trick, but apparently not. Thanks...

Read the article
ASP.NET - Call required field validator before AJAX modalpopup, client side

- by odinel

I have an ASP.NET/C# application. The user fills out a form with required fields, then clicks a submit button. An AJAX popup message is then displayed, and if they confirm, their information is posted back to the server. The problem is that the AJAX popup is fired BEFORE the req validator. I need to interrupt this and run the req validator, and then if successful show the popup. I know the req validator is working, because if you cancel the popup message, the req text is shown next to the fields. Textbox and AJAX control code is here: <table> <tr> <td>Name</td> <td> <asp:TextBox ID="txtName" runat="server" CssClass="textBox" AutoPostBack="true"></asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="reqName" runat="server" Text="*" ControlToValidate="txtName" ValidationGroup="trade" ForeColor="White"></asp:RequiredFieldValidator> </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Address</td> <td> <asp:TextBox ID="txtAdd1" runat="server" CssClass="textBox"></asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="RequiredFieldValidator1" runat="server" Text="*" ControlToValidate="txtAdd1" ValidationGroup="trade" ForeColor="White"></asp:RequiredFieldValidator> </td> </tr> <tr> <td></td> <td> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmitEnquiry" runat="server" CssClass="buttonText" Text="Submit Enquiry" ValidationGroup="trade" /> </td> </tr> </table> <ajax:ModalPopupExtender ID="ModalPopupExtender1" runat="server" okcontrolid="lnkCancel" targetcontrolid="btnSubmitEnquiry" popupcontrolid="pnlConfirm" popupdraghandlecontrolid="PopupHeader" drag="true" ></ajax:ModalPopupExtender> <asp:Button Text="targetbutton" ID="btnConfTgt" runat="server" Style="display: none" /> <asp:Panel ID="pnlConfirm" style="display:none" runat="server"> <div class="PopupContainer"> <div class="PopupBody"> <br /> <div align="center"> <asp:label ID="Label1" runat="server" CssClass="lblConfirmpopup"> Message goes here </asp:label> </div> <br /><br /><br /> <div align="center"> <asp:LinkButton ID="lnkCancel" runat="server" visible="true" Text="Cancel" CommandName="Update" BorderColor="#FFFFFF" BackColor="#000000" BorderWidth="3" BorderStyle="Double" ForeColor="White" Font-Size="13pt" Font-Underline="False"></asp:LinkButton> <asp:LinkButton ID="lnkConfirm" runat="server" visible="true" Text="Submit Enquiry" CommandName="Update" BorderColor="#FFFFFF" BackColor="#000000" BorderWidth="3" BorderStyle="Double" ForeColor="White" Font-Size="13pt" Font-Underline="False" OnClick="btnSubmitEnquiry_Click"></asp:LinkButton> </div> </div> </div> </asp:Panel> I've tried coding the first submit button to call the client-side req validator method, but no joy; it still shows the popup before the req validator. If there's no simple solution, I was thinking of perhaps an 'outside the box' solution, maybe hiding the initial Submit button after the req validation has passed, then showing an additional button with the popup control attached to it. Not sure how I'd be able to achieve this though. Thanks

Read the article
How to hide/show a Process using c#?

- by aF

Hello, While executing my program, I want to hide/minimize Microsoft Speech Recognition Application: and at the end I want to show/maximize using c#! This process is not started by me so I can't give control the process startInfo. I've tried to use user32.dll methods such as: ShowWindow AnimatedWindows AnimatedWindows With all of them I have the same problem. I can hide the windows (althought I have to call one of the methods two times with SW_HIDE option), but when I call the method with a SW_SHOW flag, it simply doesn't shows.. How can I maximize/show after hiding the process? Thanks in advance! Here is some pieces of the code, now implemented to use SetWindowPlacement: { [DllImport("user32.dll")] [return: MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.Bool)] public static extern bool GetWindowPlacement(IntPtr hWnd, ref WINDOWPLACEMENT lpwndpl); [DllImport("user32.dll", SetLastError = true)] [return: MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.Bool)] static extern bool SetWindowPlacement(IntPtr hWnd, [In] ref WINDOWPLACEMENT lpwndpl); [DllImport("user32.dll")] public static extern Boolean ShowWindowAsync(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 nCmdShow); [DllImport("user32.dll")] public static extern Boolean SetForegroundWindow(IntPtr hWnd); [DllImport("user32.dll")] public static extern Boolean ShowWindow(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 nCmdShow); [DllImport("user32.dll")] public static extern Boolean AnimateWindow(IntPtr hWnd, uint dwTime, uint dwFlags); [DllImport("dwmapi.dll")] public static extern int DwmSetWindowAttribute(IntPtr hwnd, uint dwAttribute, IntPtr pvAttribute, IntPtr lol); //Definitions For Different Window Placement Constants const UInt32 SW_HIDE = 0; const UInt32 SW_SHOWNORMAL = 1; const UInt32 SW_NORMAL = 1; const UInt32 SW_SHOWMINIMIZED = 2; const UInt32 SW_SHOWMAXIMIZED = 3; const UInt32 SW_MAXIMIZE = 3; const UInt32 SW_SHOWNOACTIVATE = 4; const UInt32 SW_SHOW = 5; const UInt32 SW_MINIMIZE = 6; const UInt32 SW_SHOWMINNOACTIVE = 7; const UInt32 SW_SHOWNA = 8; const UInt32 SW_RESTORE = 9; public sealed class AnimateWindowFlags { public const int AW_HOR_POSITIVE = 0x00000001; public const int AW_HOR_NEGATIVE = 0x00000002; public const int AW_VER_POSITIVE = 0x00000004; public const int AW_VER_NEGATIVE = 0x00000008; public const int AW_CENTER = 0x00000010; public const int AW_HIDE = 0x00010000; public const int AW_ACTIVATE = 0x00020000; public const int AW_SLIDE = 0x00040000; public const int AW_BLEND = 0x00080000; } public struct WINDOWPLACEMENT { public int length; public int flags; public int showCmd; public System.Drawing.Point ptMinPosition; public System.Drawing.Point ptMaxPosition; public System.Drawing.Rectangle rcNormalPosition; } //this works param = new WINDOWPLACEMENT(); param.length = Marshal.SizeOf(typeof(WINDOWPLACEMENT)); param.showCmd = (int)SW_HIDE; lol = SetWindowPlacement(theprocess.MainWindowHandle, ref param); // this doesn't work WINDOWPLACEMENT param = new WINDOWPLACEMENT(); param.length = Marshal.SizeOf(typeof(WINDOWPLACEMENT)); param.showCmd = SW_SHOW; lol = GetWindowPlacement(theprocess.MainWindowHandle, ref param);

Read the article
Rails destroy confirm with Jquery AJAX

- by Mike

I have got this working for the most part. My rails link is: <%= link_to(image_tag('/images/bin.png', :alt => 'Remove'), @business, :class => 'delete', :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :id => 'trash') %> :class = "delete" is calling an ajax function so that it is deleted and the page isn't refreshed that works great. But because the page doesn't refresh, it is still there. So my id trash is calling this jquery function: $('[id^=trash]').click(function(){ var row = $(this).closest("tr").get(0); $(row).hide(); return false; }); Which is hiding the row of whatever trash icon i clicked on. This also works great. I thought I had it all worked out and then I hit this problem. When you click on my trash can I have this confirm box pop up to ask you if you are sure. Regardless of whether you choose cancel or accept, the jquery fires and it hides the row. It isn't deleted, only hidden till you refresh the page. I tried changing it so that the prompt is done through jquery, but then rails was deleteing the row regardless of what i choose in my prompt because the .destroy function was being called when the prompt was being called. My question really is how can i get the value to cancel or accept from the rails confirm pop up so that in my jquery I can have an if statement that hides if they click accept and does nothing if they click cancel. EDIT: Answering Question below. That did not work. I tried changing my link to: <%= link_to(image_tag('/images/bin.png', :alt => 'Remove'), @business, :class => "delete", :onclick => "trash") %> and putting this in my jquery function trash(){ if(confirm("Are you sure?")){ var row = $(this).closest("tr").get(0); $(row).hide(); return false; } else { //they clicked no. } } But the function was never called. It just deletes it with no prompt and doesn't hide it. But that gave me an idea. I took the delete function that ajax was calling $('a.delete').click (function(){ $.post(this.href, {_method:'delete'}, null, "script"); $(row).hide(); }); And modified it implementing your code: remove :confirm = 'Are you sure?' $('a.delete').click (function(){ if(confirm("Are you sure?")){ var row = $(this).closest("tr").get(0); $.post(this.href, {_method:'delete'}, null, "script"); $(row).hide(); return false; } else { //they clicked no. return false; } }); Which does the trick.

Read the article
Possible iphone animation timing/rendering bug?

- by David

Hi all, I have been working on an iphone apps for several weeks. Now I encounter an animation problem that I can't figure out how to resolve. Mayhbe you can help. Here is the details (a little long, bear with me): Basically the effect I want to achieve is, when user click a button, a loading view pops up, hiding the whole screen; and then the apps does a lot of heavy computation, which takes a few seconds. Once the computation is done, soem result views (something likes checkers on a checker board) are rendered under the loading view. Once all result views are rendered, I used animation animation to remove the loading view nand show the result views to the user. Here is what I do: when user click a button, run this code: [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0]; [UIView setAnimationBeginsFromCurrentState:YES]; [UIView setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionCurlDown forView:self.view cache:YES]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(loadingViewInserted:finished:context:)]; // use a really high index number so it will always on top [self.view insertSubview:loadingViewController.view atIndex:1000]; [UIView commitAnimations]; In the "loadingViewInserted" function, it calls another function doing the heavy computation work. Once the computation is done, a lot of result views (like checkers on a checker board) are rendered under the loading view. for(int colIndex = 1; colIndex <= result.columns; colIndex++) { for(int rowIndex = 1; rowIndex <= result.rows; rowIndex++) { ResultView *rv = [ResultView resultViewWithData:results[colIndex][rowIndex]]; [self.view addSubview:rv]; } } Once all result views are added, following animation is invoked to remove the loading view: [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0]; [UIView setAnimationBeginsFromCurrentState:YES]; [UIView setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionCurlUp forView:self.view cache:YES]; [loadingViewController.view removeFromSuperview]; [UIView commitAnimations]; By doing this, most of the time (maybe 90%) it does exactly what I want. However, sometime I see some weird result: the loading view shows up first as expected, then before it disappears, some result views, which suppose to be under the loading view, suddenly appears on top of the loading view; and some of them are partial rendered. And then the loading view curled up, and everything looks normal again. The weird situation only lasts for less than a second, but already bad enough to screw up the UI. I have tried all different kinds of thing to fix this (using another thread to remove the loading view, make the loading view non-transparent), but none of them works. The only thing that makes a little better is, I hide all the result views first; after the last animation finished, in its call back, unhide all result views. But this loses the nice effect that when curling up the loading view, the results are already there. At this point, I really think this is a bug in iphone (I compile it with OS 3.0) OS. Or maybe you can point out what I have done wrong (or could do differently). (thanks for finishing this long post, :-) )

Read the article
Iphone: controlling text with delay problem with UIWebView

- by James B.

Hi, I've opted to use UIWebView so I can control the layout of text I've got contained in a local html document in my bundle. I want the text to display within a UIWebView I've got contained within my view. So the text isn't the whole view, just part of it. Everything runs fine, but when the web page loads I get a blank screen for a second before the text appears. This looks really bad. can anyone give me an example of how to stop this happening? I'm assuming I have to somehow hide the web view until it has fully loaded? Could someone one tell me how to do this? At the moment I'm calling my code through the viewDidLoad like this: [myUIWebView loadRequest: [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL fileURLWithPath:[[NSBundle mainBundle]pathForResource:@"localwebpage" ofType:@"html"] isDirectory:NO]]]; Any help is much appreciated. I've read round a few forums and not seen a good answer to this question, and it seems like it recurs a lot as an issue for beginners like myself. Thanks for taking the time to read this post! UPDATED info Thanks for your response. The suggestions below solves the problem but creates a new one for me as now when my view loads it is totally hidden until I click on my toggle switch. to understand this it's maybe most helpful if I post all my code. Before this though let me explain the setup of my view. I've got a standard view within which I've also got two web views, one on top of the other. each web view contains different text with different styling. the user flicks between views using a toggle switch, which hides/reveals the web views. I'm using the web views because I want to control the style/layout of the text. Below is my full .m code, I can't figure out where it's going wrong. My web views are called oxford & harvard I'm sure its something to do with how/when I'm hiding/revealing views. I've played around with this but can't seem to get it right. Maybe my approach is wrong. A bit of advice ironing this out would be really appreciated: @implementation ReferenceViewController @synthesize oxford; @synthesize harvard; // Implement viewDidLoad to do additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; [oxford loadRequest: [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL fileURLWithPath:[[NSBundle mainBundle]pathForResource:@"Oxford" ofType:@"html"] isDirectory:NO]]]; [harvard loadRequest: [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL fileURLWithPath:[[NSBundle mainBundle]pathForResource:@"Harvard" ofType:@"html"] isDirectory:NO]]]; [oxford setHidden:YES]; [harvard setHidden:YES]; } - (void)webViewDidFinishLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { if([webView hidden]) { [oxford setHidden:NO]; [harvard setHidden:NO]; } } //Toggle controls for toggle switch in UIView to swap between webviews - (IBAction)toggleControls:(id)sender { if ([sender selectedSegmentIndex] == kSwitchesSegmentIndex) { oxford.hidden = NO; harvard.hidden = YES; } else { oxford.hidden = YES; harvard.hidden = NO; } } - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning { // Releases the view if it doesn't have a superview. [super didReceiveMemoryWarning]; // Release any cached data, images, etc that aren't in use. } - (void)viewDidUnload { [super viewDidUnload]; // Release any retained subviews of the main view. // e.g. self.myOutlet = nil; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; [oxford release]; [harvard release]; } @end

Read the article
SQL - date variable isn't being parsed correctly?

- by Bill Sambrone

I am pulling a list of invoices filtered by a starting and ending date, and further filtered by type of invoice from a SQL table. When I specify a range of 2013-07-01 through 2013-09-30 I am receiving 2 invoices per company when I expect 3. When I use the built in select top 1000 query in SSMS and add my date filters, all the expected invoices appear. Here is my fancy query that I'm using that utilizing variables that are fed in: DECLARE @ReportStart datetime DECLARE @ReportStop datetime SET @ReportStart = '2013-07-01' SET @ReportStop = '2013-09-30' SELECT Entity_Company.CompanyName, Reporting_AgreementTypes.Description, Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceAmount, ISNULL(Reporting_ProductCost.ProductCost,0), (Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceAmount - ISNULL(Reporting_ProductCost.ProductCost,0)), (Reporting_AgreementTypes.Description + Entity_Company.CompanyName), Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate FROM Reporting_Invoices JOIN Entity_Company ON Entity_Company.ClientID = Reporting_Invoices.ClientID LEFT JOIN Reporting_ProductCost ON Reporting_ProductCost.InvoiceNumber =Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceNumber JOIN Reporting_AgreementTypes ON Reporting_AgreementTypes.AgreementTypeID = Reporting_Invoices.AgreementTypeID WHERE Reporting_Invoices.AgreementTypeID = (SELECT AgreementTypeID FROM Reporting_AgreementTypes WHERE Description = 'Resold Services') AND Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate >= @ReportStart AND Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate <= @ReportStop ORDER BY CompanyName,InvoiceDate The above only returns 2 invoices per company. When I run a much more basic query through SSMS I get 3 as expected, which looks like: SELECT TOP 1000 [InvoiceID] ,[AgreementID] ,[AgreementTypeID] ,[InvoiceDate] ,[Comment] ,[InvoiceAmount] ,[InvoiceNumber] ,[TicketID] ,Entity_Company.CompanyName FROM Reporting_Invoices JOIN Entity_Company ON Entity_Company.ClientID = Reporting_Invoices.ClientID WHERE Entity_Company.ClientID = '9' AND AgreementTypeID = (SELECT AgreementTypeID FROM Reporting_AgreementTypes WHERE Description = 'Resold Services') AND Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate >= '2013-07-01' AND Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate <= '2013-09-30' ORDER BY InvoiceDate DESC I've tried stripping down the 1st query to include only a client ID on the original invoice table, the invoice date, and nothing else. Still only get 2 invoices instead of the expected 3. I've also tried manually entering the dates instead of the @ variables, same result. I confirmed that InvoiceDate is defined as a datetime in the table. I've tried making all JOIN's a FULL JOIN to see if anything is hiding, but no change. Here is how I stripped down the original query to keep all other tables out of the mix and yet I'm still getting only 2 invoices per client ID instead of 3 (I manually entered the ID for the type filter): --DECLARE @ReportStart datetime --DECLARE @ReportStop datetime --SET @ReportStart = '2013-07-01' --SET @ReportStop = '2013-09-30' SELECT --Entity_Company.CompanyName, --Reporting_AgreementTypes.Description, Reporting_Invoices.ClientID, Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceAmount, --ISNULL(Reporting_ProductCost.ProductCost,0), --(Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceAmount - ISNULL(Reporting_ProductCost.ProductCost,0)), --(Reporting_AgreementTypes.Description + Entity_Company.CompanyName), Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate FROM Reporting_Invoices --JOIN Entity_Company ON Entity_Company.ClientID = Reporting_Invoices.ClientID --LEFT JOIN Reporting_ProductCost ON Reporting_ProductCost.InvoiceNumber = Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceNumber --JOIN Reporting_AgreementTypes ON Reporting_AgreementTypes.AgreementTypeID = Reporting_Invoices.AgreementTypeID WHERE Reporting_Invoices.AgreementTypeID = '22'-- (SELECT AgreementTypeID FROM Reporting_AgreementTypes WHERE Description = 'Resold Services') AND Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate >= '2013-07-01' AND Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate <= '2013-09-30' ORDER BY ClientID,InvoiceDate This strikes me as really weird as it is pretty much the same query as the SSMS generated one that returns correct results. What am I overlooking? UPDATE I've further refined my "test query" that is returning only 2 invoices per company to help troubleshoot this. Below is the query and a relevant subset of data for 1 company from the appropriate tables: SELECT Reporting_Invoices.ClientID, Reporting_AgreementTypes.Description, Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceAmount, Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate FROM Reporting_Invoices JOIN Reporting_AgreementTypes ON Reporting_AgreementTypes.AgreementTypeID = Reporting_Invoices.AgreementTypeID WHERE Reporting_Invoices.AgreementTypeID = (SELECT AgreementTypeID FROM Reporting_AgreementTypes WHERE Description = 'Resold Services') AND Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate >= '2013-07-01T00:00:00' AND Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate <= '2013-09-30T00:00:00' ORDER BY Reporting_Invoices.ClientID,InvoiceDate The above only returns 2 invoices. Here is the relevant table data: Relevant data from Reporting_AgreementTypes AgreementTypeID Description 22 Resold Services Relevant data from Reporting_Invoices InvoiceID ClientID AgreementID AgreementTypeID InvoiceDate 16111 9 757 22 2013-09-30 00:00:00.000 15790 9 757 22 2013-08-30 00:00:00.000 15517 9 757 22 2013-07-31 00:00:00.000 Actual results from my new modified query ClientID Description InvoiceAmount InvoiceDate 9 Resold Services 3513.79 7/31/13 00:00:00 9 Resold Services 3570.49 8/30/13 00:00:00

Read the article
IIS6: Web Site presenting the wrong SSL certificate

- by pcampbell

Consider an IIS6 installation with multiple Web Sites. Each is intended to be a different subdomain with its own cert (not a wildcard cert). Each has their host-header specified properly. foo.example.com - port 443. Require SSL w/128 bit. Working properly! It presents its SSL cert properly to the browser. Configured for a specific IP address. bar.example.com - port 443. Require SSL w/128 bit. Configured for all unassigned addresses. When inspecting the IIS property page, it fully shows the cert for bar.example.com on the View Certificate button. This is a NEW web site that is having cert problems. It's presenting the cert for foo.example.com. Ouch! Question: can you have more than one subdomains both running on separate websites with SSL certs on the same port (443)? How would you configure 2 web sites on the same range of 'all unassigned' for the same port (443) ? Update: ignoring the cert error, when browsing to https://bar, the content served is from https://foo site. When NOT using SSL, browsing to http://bar serves the correct content from bar. Just one address is assigned to this DMZ server.

Read the article
How can I set IIS Application Pool recycle times without resorting to the ugly syntax of Add-WebConfiguration?

- by ObligatoryMoniker

I have been scripting the configuration of our IIS 7.5 instance and through bits and pieces of other peoples scripts I have come up with a syntax that I like: $WebAppPoolUserName = "domain\user" $WebAppPoolPassword = "password" $WebAppPoolNames = @("Test","Test2") ForEach ($WebAppPoolName in $WebAppPoolNames ) { $WebAppPool = New-WebAppPool -Name $WebAppPoolName $WebAppPool.processModel.identityType = "SpecificUser" $WebAppPool.processModel.username = $WebAppPoolUserName $WebAppPool.processModel.password = $WebAppPoolPassword $WebAppPool.managedPipelineMode = "Classic" $WebAppPool.managedRuntimeVersion = "v4.0" $WebAppPool | set-item } I have seen this done a number of different ways that are less terse and I like the way this syntax of setting object properties looks compared to something like what I see on TechNet: Set-ItemProperty 'IIS:\AppPools\DemoPool' -Name recycling.periodicRestart.requests -Value 100000 One thing I haven't been able to figure out though is how to setup recycle schedules using this syntax. This command sets ApplicationPoolDefaults but is ugly: add-webconfiguration system.applicationHost/applicationPools/applicationPoolDefaults/recycling/periodicRestart/schedule -value (New-TimeSpan -h 1 -m 30) I have done this in the past through appcmd using something like the following but I would really like to do all of this through powershell: %appcmd% set apppool "BusinessUserApps" /+recycling.periodicRestart.schedule.[value='01:00:00'] I have tried: $WebAppPool.recycling.periodicRestart.schedule = (New-TimeSpan -h 1 -m 30) This has the odd effect of turning the .schedule property into a timespan until I use $WebAppPool = get-item iis:\AppPools\AppPoolName to refresh the variable. There is also $WebappPool.recycling.periodicRestart.schedule.Collection but there is no add() function on the collection and I haven't found any other way to modify it. Does anyone know of a way I can set scheduled recycle times using syntax consistent with the code I have written above?

Read the article

< Previous Page | 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 | Next Page >