Search Results

Search found 10719 results on 429 pages for 'temp tables'.

Page 385/429 | < Previous Page | 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392  | Next Page >

  • cakephp hasMany through and multiselect form

    - by Zoran Kalinic
    I'm using cakephp 2.2.2 and I have a problem with the editing view Models and relationships are: Person hasMany OrganizationPerson Organization hasMany OrganizationPerson OrganizationPerson belongs to Person,Organization A basic hasMany through relationship as found within cake documentation. Tables are: people (id,...) organizations (id,...) organization_people (id, person_id,organization_id,...) In the person add and edit forms there is a select box allowing a user to select multiple organization. The problem I have is, when a user edits an existing person, the associated organizations aren't pre-selected. Here is the code in the PeopleController: $organizations = $this->Person->OrganizationPerson->Organization->find('list'); $this->set(compact('organizations')); Related part of the code in the People/edit code looks like: $this->Form->input('OrganizationPerson.organization_id', array('multiple' => true, 'empty' => false)); This will populate the select field, but it does not pre-select it with the Person's associated organizations. Format and content of the $this-data: Array ( [Person] => Array ( [id] => 1 ... ) [OrganizationPerson] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [person_id] => 1 [organization_id] => 1 ... ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 2 [person_id] => 1 [organization_id] => 2 ... ) ) ) What I have to add/change in the code to get pre-selected organizations? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Kohana Auth Library Deployment

    - by Steve
    My Kohana app runs perfectly on my local machine. When I deployed my app to a server (and adjust the config files appropriately), I can no longer log into the app. I've traced through the app login routine on both my local version and the server version and they both agree with each other all the way through until you get to the auth.php controller logged_in() routine where suddenly, at line 140 - the is_object($this-user) test - the $user object no longer exists!?!?!? The login() function call that calls the logged_in() function successfully passes the following test, which causes a redirect to the logged_in() function. if(Auth::instance()->login($user, $post['password'])) Yes, the password and hash, etc all work perfectly. Here is the offending code: public function logged_in() { if ( ! is_object($this->user)) { // No user is currently logged in url::redirect('auth/login'); } etc... } As the code is the same between my local installation and the server, I reckon it must be some server setting that is messing with me. FYI: All the rest of the code works because I have a temporary backdoor available that allows me to use the application (view pages of tables, etc) without being logged in. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Fix DB duplicate entries (MySQL bug)

    - by Silence
    I'm using MySQL 4.1. Some tables have duplicates entries that go against the constraints. When I try to group rows, MySQL doesn't recognise the rows as being similar. Example: Table A has a column "Name" with the Unique proprety. The table contains one row with the name 'Hach?' and one row with the same name but a square at the end instead of the '?' (which I can't reproduce in this textfield) A "Group by" on these 2 rows return 2 separate rows This cause several problems including the fact that I can't export and reimport the database. On reimporting an error mentions that a Insert has failed because it violates a constraint. In theory I could try to import, wait for the first error, fix the import script and the original DB, and repeat. In pratice, that would take forever. Is there a way to list all the anomalies or force the database to recheck constraints (and list all the values/rows that go against them) ? I can supply the .MYD file if it can be helpful.

    Read the article

  • Database contents setting themselves to 0

    - by Luis Armando
    I have a Database that contains 4 tables, however I'm using 1 of them which is separated from the others. In this table I have 4 fields which are varchar and the rest are ints (11 other fields), when the users fill up the DB everything gets saved correctly, however it has happened 3 times so far that the database values for the int's reset to 0 without any apparent reason. At first, I thought, it was because those fields (where the numbers should go) were varchars not ints. However since I changed it, it happened again. I've already double checked my code and I have nothing that even updates or inserts a 0 value. Also I'm using codeigniter and active records which protect against SQL injections AND have XSS filtering enabled, could anyone point out something I might be missing or a reason for this to be happening? Also, I'm pretty sure about the answer of this but, is there ANY way to recover some data?? Other than having to ask everyone to fill in everything again.. =/ ** EDIT ** The Storage Engine is MyISAM and Collation is latin1_swedish_ci, Pack Keys are default, for all intents and purposes it's a normal DB

    Read the article

  • architecture - centraled location for different modules (cms, webapplications, ...) - best practise

    - by NicoJuicy
    Let's just say that i want to create a cms + other online applications. I want them all to integrate into a central location, but they also have to be available seperately (not everyone want's more than the cms solution). Would i create a huge central application that contains all the database, which communicates through a webserice with the "standalone - integrated" modules? Or would i create them seperately and the only thing that the "central" application would do is syncing the information (eg. the cms and another solution can have the same tables (eg. clients or employees). Or do you have another idea? (i know i'm a little vague, but i can't "give" a lot of details because of work - contract). If someone has all the "packages" it should be possible for the central application to integrate all the modules at one place! Or if someone has more than 1 module, it should combine this on the website. What i thought is best, is that the central location contains only the users and their rights (eg. cms - all rights, ...), and the information get synced with every change. (module cms, adding a new client - store locally and send data to the central location, central location - send to modules = table clients updated everywhere) This way it is easy if someone only "bought" a module, they can sync it easily through the complete architecture. I hope i made myself clear!

    Read the article

  • Help with create action in a different show page

    - by Andrew
    Hi, I'm a Rails newbie and want to do something but keep messing something up. I'd love some help. I have a simple app that has three tables. Users, Robots, and Recipients. Robots belong_to users and Recipients belong_to robots. On the robot show page, I want to be able to create recipients for that robot right within the robot show page. I have the following code in the robot show page which lists current recipients: <table> <% @robot.recipients.each do |recipient| %> <tr> <td><b><%=h recipient.chat_screen_name %></b> via <%=h recipient.protocol_name</td> <td><%= link_to 'Edit', edit_recipient_path(recipient) %>&nbsp;</td> <td><%= link_to 'Delete', recipient, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %></td> </tr> <% end %> </table> What I'd like to do is have an empty field in which the user can add a new recipient, and have tried the following: I added this to the Robots Show view: <% form_for(@robot.recipient) do |f| %> Enter the screen name<br> <%= f.text_field :chat_screen_name %> <p> <%= f.submit 'Update' %> </p> <% end %> and then this to the Robot controller in the show action: @recipient = Recipient.new @recipients = Recipient.all Alas, I'm still getting a NoMethod error that says: "undefined method `recipient' for #" I'm not sure what I'm missing. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • can this problem be solved with a single SQL query?

    - by PierrOz
    I have the two following tables (with some sample datas) LOGS: ID | SETID | DATE ======================== 1 | 1 | 2010-02-25 2 | 2 | 2010-02-25 3 | 1 | 2010-02-26 4 | 2 | 2010-02-26 5 | 1 | 2010-02-27 6 | 2 | 2010-02-27 7 | 1 | 2010-02-28 8 | 2 | 2010-02-28 9 | 1 | 2010-03-01 STATS: ID | OBJECTID | FREQUENCY | STARTID | ENDID ============================================= 1 | 1 | 0.5 | 1 | 5 2 | 2 | 0.6 | 1 | 5 3 | 3 | 0.02 | 1 | 5 4 | 4 | 0.6 | 2 | 6 5 | 5 | 0.6 | 2 | 6 6 | 6 | 0.4 | 2 | 6 7 | 1 | 0.35 | 3 | 7 8 | 2 | 0.6 | 3 | 7 9 | 3 | 0.03 | 3 | 7 10 | 4 | 0.6 | 4 | 8 11 | 5 | 0.6 | 4 | 8 7 | 1 | 0.45 | 5 | 9 8 | 2 | 0.6 | 5 | 9 9 | 3 | 0.02 | 5 | 9 Every day new logs are analyzed on different sets of objects and stored in table LOGS. Among other processes, some statistics are computed on the objects contained into these sets and the result are stored in table STATS. These statistic are computed through several logs (identified by the STARTID and ENDID columns). So, what could be the SQL query that would give me the latest computed stats for all the objects with the corresponding log dates. In the given example, the result rows would be: OBJECTID | SETID | FREQUENCY | STARTDATE | ENDDATE ====================================================== 1 | 1 | 0.45 | 2010-02-27 | 2010-03-01 2 | 1 | 0.6 | 2010-02-27 | 2010-03-01 3 | 1 | 0.02 | 2010-02-27 | 2010-03-01 4 | 2 | 0.6 | 2010-02-26 | 2010-02-28 5 | 2 | 0.6 | 2010-02-26 | 2010-02-28 So, the most recent stats for set 1 are computed with logs from feb 27 to march 1 whereas stats for set 2 are computed from feb 26 to feb 28. object 6 is not in the results rows as there is no stat on it within the last period of time. Last thing, I use MySQL. Any Idea ?

    Read the article

  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ work?

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

    Read the article

  • Why does the WCF 3.5 REST Starter Kit do this?

    - by Brandon
    I am setting up a REST endpoint that looks like the following: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", UriTemplate = "?format=json", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] and [WebInvoke(Method = "DELETE", UriTemplate = "?token={token}&format=json", ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] The above throws the following error: UriTemplateTable does not support '?format=json' and '?token={token}&format=json' since they are not equivalent, but cannot be disambiguated because they have equivalent paths and the same common literal values for the query string. See the documentation for UriTemplateTable for more detail. I am not an expert at WCF, but I would imagine that it should map first by the HTTP Method and then by the URI Template. It appears to be backwards. If both of my URI templates are: ?token={token}&format=json This works because they are equivalent and it then appears to look at the HTTP Method where one is POST and the other is DELETE. Is REST supposed to work this way? Why are the URI Template Tables not being sorted first by HTTP Method and then by URI Template? This can cause some serious frustrations when 1 HTTP Method requires a parameter and another does not, or if I want to do optional parameters (e.g. if the 'format' parameter is not passed, default to XML).

    Read the article

  • Specify Columntype in nhibernate

    - by Bipul
    I have a class CaptionItem public class CaptionItem { public virtual int SystemId { get; set; } public virtual int Version { get; set; } protected internal virtual IDictionary<string, string> CaptionValues {get; private set;} } I am using following code for nHibernate mapping Id(x => x.SystemId); Version(x => x.Version); Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.CaptionValues) .KeyColumn("CaptionItem_Id") .AsMap<string>(idx => idx.Column("CaptionSet_Name"), elem => elem.Column("Text")) .Not.LazyLoad() .Cascade.Delete() .Table("CaptionValue") .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); So in database two tables get created. One CaptionValue and other CaptionItem. In CaptionItem table has three columns 1. CaptionItem_Id int 2. Text nvarchar(255) 3. CaptionSet_Name nvarchar(255) Now, my question is how can I make the columnt type of Text to nvarchar(max)? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Question about using an access database as a resource file in Visual Studio.

    - by user354303
    Hi I am trying to embed a Microsoft Access database file into my Class assembly DLL. I want my code to reference the resource file and use it with a ADODB.Connection object. Any body know a simpler way, or an easier way? Or what is wrong with my code, when i added the resource file it added me dataset definitions, but i have no idea what to do with those. The connection string I am trying below is from an automatically generated app.config. I did add the item as a resource... using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Data; using ConsoleApplication1.Resources;//SPPrinterLicenses using System.Data.OleDb; using ADODB; using System.Configuration; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class SharePointPrinterManager { public static bool IsValidLicense(string HardwareID) { OleDbDataAdapter da = new OleDbDataAdapter(); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); ADODB.Connection adoCn = new Connection(); ADODB.Recordset adoRs = new Recordset(); //**open command below fails** adoCn.Open( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\Resources\SPPrinterLicenses.accdb;Persist Security Info=True", "", "", 1); adoRs.Open("Select * from AllWorkstationLicenses", adoCn, ADODB.CursorTypeEnum.adOpenForwardOnly, ADODB.LockTypeEnum.adLockReadOnly, 1); da.Fill(ds, adoRs, "AllworkstationLicenses"); adoCn.Close(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); //ds.Tables. return true; } } }

    Read the article

  • Can a Snapshot transaction fail and only partially commit in a TransactionScope?

    - by Travis Brooks
    Greetings I stumbled onto a problem today that seems sort of impossible to me, but its happening...I'm calling some database code in c# that looks something like this: using(var tran = MyDataLayer.Transaction()) { MyDataLayer.ExecSproc(new SprocTheFirst(arg1, arg2)); MyDataLayer.CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql(arg1, argEtc); tran.Commit(); } I've simplified this a bit for posting, but whats going on is MyDataLayer.Transaction() makes a TransactionScope with the IsolationLevel set to Snapshot and TransactionScopeOption set to Required. This code gets called hundreds of times a day, and almost always works perfectly. However after reviewing some data I discovered there are a handful of records created by "SprocTheFirst" but no corresponding data from "CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql". The only way that records should exist in the tables I'm looking at is from SprocTheFirst, and its only ever called in this one function, so if its called and succeeded then I would expect CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql would get called and succeed because its all in the same TransactionScope. Its theoretically possible that some other dev mucked around in the DB, but I don't think they have. We also log all exceptions, and I can find nothing unusual happening around the time that the records from SprocTheFirst were created. So, is it possible that a transaction, or more properly a declarative TransactionScope, with Snapshot isolation level can fail somehow and only partially commit?

    Read the article

  • Iteration over a linq to sql query is very slow.

    - by devzero
    I have a view, AdvertView in my database, this view is a simple join between some tables (advert, customer, properties). Then I have a simple linq query to fetch all adverts for a customer: public IEnumerable<AdvertView> GetAdvertForCustomerID(int customerID) { var advertList = from advert in _dbContext.AdvertViews where advert.Customer_ID.Equals(customerID) select advert; return advertList; } I then wish to map this to modelItems for my MVC application: public List<AdvertModelItem> GetAdvertsByCustomer(int customerId) { List<AdvertModelItem> lstAdverts = new List<AdvertModelItem>(); List<AdvertView> adViews = _dataHandler.GetAdvertForCustomerID(customerId).ToList(); foreach(AdvertView adView in adViews) { lstAdverts.Add(_advertMapper.MapToModelClass(adView)); } return lstAdverts; } I was expecting to have some performance issues with the SQL, but the problem seems to be with the .ToList() function. I'm using ANTS performance profiler and it reports that the total runtime of the function is 1.400ms, and 850 of those is with the ToList(). So my question is, why does the tolist function take such a long time here?

    Read the article

  • trouble connecting to MySql DB (PHP)

    - by user332817
    Hi I have the following PHP code to connect to my db. <?php ob_start(); $host="localhost"; // Host name $username="root"; // Mysql username $password=""; // Mysql password $db_name="test"; // Database name $tbl_name="members"; // Table name // Connect to server and select databse. mysql_connect("$host", "$username", "$password")or die("cannot connect"); ?> however I get the following error: Warning: mysql_connect() [function.mysql-connect]: [2002] A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not (trying to connect via tcp://localhost:3306) in C:\Program Files (x86)\EasyPHP-5.3.2i\www\checklogin.php on line 11 Warning: mysql_connect() [function.mysql-connect]: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond. in C:\Program Files (x86)\EasyPHP-5.3.2i\www\checklogin.php on line 11 Fatal error: Maximum execution time of 30 seconds exceeded in C:\Program Files (x86)\EasyPHP-5.3.2i\www\checklogin.php on line 11 I am able to add a db/tables via phpmyadmin but I cant connect using php. here is a screenshot of my phpmyadmin page: http://img294.imageshack.us/img294/1589/sqls.jpg any help would be appreciated, thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to fix this simple SQL query?

    - by morpheous
    I have a database with three tables: user_table country_table city_table I want to write ANSI SQL which will allow me to fetch all the user data (i.e. user details including the name of the country of the last school and the name of the city they live in now). The problem I am having is that I have to use a self join, and I am getting slightly confused. The schema is shown below: CREATE TABLE user_table (id int, first_name varchar(16), last_school_country_id int, city_id int); CREATE TABLE country_table (id int, name varchar(32)); CREATE TABLE city_table (id int, country_id int, name varchar(32)); This is the query I have come up with so far, but the results are wrong, and sometimes, the db engine (mySQL), asks me if I want to show all [HUGE NUMBER HERE] results - which makes me suspect that I am unintentionally creating a cartesian product somewhere. Can someone explain what is wrong with this SQL statement, and what I need to do to fix it? SELECT usr.id AS id, usr.first_name, ctry1.name as loc_country_name, ctry2.name as school_country_name, city.name as loc_city_name FROM user_table usr, country_table ctry1, country_table ctry2, city_table city WHERE usr.last_school_country_id=ctry2.id AND usr.city_id=city.id AND city.country_id=ctry1.id AND ctry1.id=ctry2.id;

    Read the article

  • .net printing multiple reports in one document (architecture question)

    - by LawsonM
    I understand how to print a single document via the PrintDocument class. However, I want to print multiple reports in one document. Each "report" will consist of charts, tables, etc. I want to have two reports per page. I've studied the few examples I can find on how to combine multiple documents into one; however, they always seem to work by creating a collection of objects (e.g. customer or order) that are then iterated over and drawn in the OnPrintPage method. My problem and hence the "architecture" question is that I don't want to cache the objects required to produce the report since they are very large and memory intensive. I'd simply like the resulting "report". One thought I had was to print the report to a metafile, cache that instead in a "MultiplePrintDocument" class and then position those images appropriately two to a page in the OnPrintPage method. I think this would be a lot more efficient and scalable in my case. But I'm not a professional programmer and can't figure out if I'm barking up the wrong tree here. I think the Graphics.BeginContainer and Graphics.Save methods might be relevant, but can't figure out how to implement or if there is a better way. Any pointers would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • In mysql, is "explain ..." always safe?

    - by tye
    If I allow a group of users to submit "explain $whatever" to mysql (via Perl's DBI using DBD::mysql), is there anything that a user could put into $whatever that would make any database changes, leak non-trivial information, or even cause significant database load? If so, how? I know that via "explain $whatever" one can figure out what tables / columns exist (you have to guess names, though) and roughly how many records are in a table or how many records have a particular value for an indexed field. I don't expect one to be able to get any information about the contents of unindexed fields. DBD::mysql should not allow multiple statements so I don't expect it to be possible to run any query (just explain one query). Even subqueries should not be executed, just explained. But I'm not a mysql expert and there are surely features of mysql that I'm not even aware of. In trying to come up with a query plan, might the optimizer actual execute an expression in order to come up with the value that an indexed field is going to be compared against? explain select * from atable where class = somefunction(...) where atable.class is indexed and not unique and class='unused' would find no records but class='common' would find a million records. Might 'explain' evaluate somefunction(...)? And then could somefunction(...) be written such that it modifies data?

    Read the article

  • Looking for Simplified Overview of EJB3

    - by sdoca
    Hi I'm looking for a simplified overview of EJB3 components. I seem to understand most of the pieces of the puzzle, but can't quite get them to fit together in my brain as a full picture. I've developed numerous web applications (wars) that have been deployed on Tomcat before, but not a full-fledged EE application (ear). I would like the overview to be as generic as possible. I'm not looking for a tutorial on how to set up EJB3 on Glassfish built in NetBeans or some other vendor specific tutorial that's more about the IDE than the technology. I keep reading about Java, ejb-jar, web and ear modules but am not clear on what these different modules contain and how to use them to put together my app. In my case, I want to write a simple database CRUD web application. The first step is simple; create entity classes that model the database tables my app will be using. I plan on using annotations. Should I create a jar that contains just these enity classes? Is this the ejb-jar module (sometimes referred to as the Java module)? Next, I'll need some business logic classes that make use of the entity classes. These are the session beans (stateless or stateful) correct? Should these be packaged in the same jar as the entity classes or a separate jar? Finally, I'll need some sort of web interface (I'll be creating a JSF portlet) application that makes use of the both the session and entity beans. Together with the above jar(s), this will be my war? Assuming the above to be correct, what is involved in creating an ear? Forgive me if this post is vague, but I'm having a hard time defining what it is I don't understand. Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net MVC - how can I easily serialize query results to a database?

    - by Mortanis
    I've been working on a little property search engine while I learn ASP.Net MVC. I've gotten the results from various property database tables and sorted them into a master generic property response. The search form is passed via Model Binding and works great. Now, I'd like to add pagination. I'm returning the chunk of properties for the current page with .Skip() and .Take(), and that's working great. I have a SearchResults model that has the paged result set and various other data like nextPage and prevPage. Except, I no longer have the original form of course to pass to /Results/2. Previously I'd have just hidden a copy of the form and done a POST each time, but it seems inelegant. I'd like to serialize the results to my MS SQL database and return a unique key for that results set - this also helps with a "Send this query to a friend!" link. Killing two birds with one stone. Is there an easy way to take an IQueryable result set that I have, serialize it, stick it into the DB, return a unique key and then reverse the process with said key? I'm using Linq to SQL currently on a MS SQL Express install, though in production it'll be on MS SQL 2008.

    Read the article

  • MySQL - What is wrong with this query or my database? Terrible performance.

    - by Moss
    SELECT * from `employees` a LEFT JOIN (SELECT phone1 p1, count(*) c, FROM `employees` GROUP BY phone1) b ON a.phone1 = b.p1; I'm not sure if it is this query in particular that has the problem. I have been getting terrible performance in general with this database. The table in question has 120,000 rows. I have tried this particular query remotely and locally with the MyISAM and InnoDB engines, with different types of joins, and with and without an index on phone1. I can get this to complete in about 4 minutes on a 10,000 row table successfully but performance drops exponentially with larger tables. Remotely it will lose connection to the server and locally it brings my system to its knees and seems to go on forever. This query is only a smaller step I was trying to do when a larger query couldn't complete. Maybe I should explain the whole scenario. I have one big flat ugly table that lists a bunch of people and their contact info and the info of the companies they work for. I'm trying to normalize the database and intelligently determine which phone numbers apply to individual people and which apply to an office location. My reasoning is that if a phone number occurs multiple times and the number of occurrence equals the number of times that the street address it is attached to occurs then it must be an office number. So the first step is to count each phone number grouping by phone number. Normally if you just use COUNT()...GROUP BY it will only list the first record it finds in that group so I figured I have to join the full table to the count table where the phone number matches. This does work but as I said I can't successfully complete it on any table much larger than 10,000 rows. This seems pathetic and this doesn't seem like a crazy query to do. Is there a better way to achieve what I want or do I have to break my large table into 12 pieces or is there something wrong with the table or db?

    Read the article

  • Advice on Linq to SQL mapping object design

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    I hope the title and following text are clear, I'm not very familiar with the correct terms so please correct me if I get anything wrong. I'm using Linq ORM for the first time and am wondering how to address the following. Say I have two DB tables: User ---- Id Name Phone ----- Id UserId Model The Linq code generator produces a bunch of entity classes. I then write my own classes and interfaces which wrap these Linq classes: class DatabaseUser : IUser { public DatabaseUser(User user) { _user = user; } public Guid Id { get { return _user.Id; } } ... etc } so far so good. Now it's easy enough to find a users phones from Phones.Where(p => p.User = user) but surely comsumers of the API shouldn't need to be writing their own Linq queries to get at data, so I should wrap this query in a function or property somewhere. So the question is, in this example, would you add a Phones property to IUser or not? In other words, should my interface specifically be modelling my database objects (in which case Phones doesn't belong in IUser), or are they actually simply providing a set of functions and properties which are conceptually associated with a User (in which case it does)? There seems drawbacks to both views, but I'm wondering if there is a standard approach to the problem. Or just any general words of wisdom you could share. My first thought was to use extension methods but in fact that doesn't work in this case.

    Read the article

  • Forming triangles from points and relations

    - by SiN
    Hello, I want to generate triangles from points and optional relations between them. Not all points form triangles, but many of them do. In the initial structure, I've got a database with the following tables: Nodes(id, value) Relations(id, nodeA, nodeB, value) Triangles(id, relation1_id, relation2_id, relation3_id) In order to generate triangles from both nodes and relations table, I've used the following query: INSERT INTO Triangles SELECT t1.id, t2.id , t3.id, FROM Relations t1, Relations t2, Relations t3 WHERE t1.id < t2.id AND t3.id > t1.id AND ( t1.nodeA = t2.nodeA AND (t3.nodeA = t1.nodeB AND t3.nodeB = t2.nodeB OR t3.nodeA = t2.nodeB AND t3.nodeB = t1.nodeB) OR t1.nodeA = t2.nodeB AND (t3.nodeA = t1.nodeB AND t3.nodeB = t2.nodeA OR t3.nodeA = t2.nodeA AND t3.nodeB = t1.nodeB) ) It's working perfectly on small sized data. (~< 50 points) In some cases however, I've got around 100 points all related to each other which leads to thousands of relations. So when the expected number of triangles is in the hundreds of thousands, or even in the millions, the query might take several hours. My main problem is not in the select query, while I see it execute in Management Studio, the returned results slow. I received around 2000 rows per minute, which is not acceptable for my case. As a matter of fact, the size of operations is being added up exponentionally and that is terribly affecting the performance. I've tried doing it as a LINQ to object from my code, but the performance was even worse. I've also tried using SqlBulkCopy on a reader from C# on the result, also with no luck. So the question is... Any ideas or workarounds?

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework not populating context

    - by stimms
    I'm just starting out with some entity framework exploration, I figured it was time to see what everybody was complaining about. I am running into an issue where the entities don't seem to be returning any of the object context. I generated the model from a database with three tables which link to one another. Courses Instructors CanTeach Relationships are as you would expect: a course can relate to multiple CanTeach entities and an instructor can also relate to multiple CanTeach entities. I also added an OData service to my project which also makes use of the same model. So I can run queries like from a in CanTeach where a.Instructor.FirstName == "Barry" select new { Name = a.Instructor.FirstName + " " + a.Instructor.LastName, Course = a.Course.Name} without issue against the OData endpoint using LINQPad. However when I do a simple query like public Instructor GetInstructorFromID(int ID) { return context.Instructors.Where(i => i.ID == ID).FirstOrDefault(); } The CanTeach list is empty. I know everything in EF is lazy loaded and it is possible that my context is out of scope by the time I look at the object context, however even trying to get the object context as soon as the query is run results in and empty object context. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate NamingStrategy implementation that maintains state between calls

    - by Robert Petermeier
    Hi, I'm working on a project where we use Hibernate and JBoss 5.1. We need our entity classes to be mapped to Oracle tables that follow a certain naming convention. I'd like to avoid having to specify each table and column name in annotations. Therefore, I'm currently considering implementing a custom implementation of org.hibernate.cfg.NamingStrategy. The SQL naming conventions require the name of columns to have a suffix that is equivalent to a prefix of the table name. If there is a table "T100_RESOURCE", the ID column would have to be named "RES_ID_T100". In order to implement this in a NamingStrategy, the implementation would have to maintain state, i.e. the current class name it is creating the mappings for. It would rely on Hibernate to always call classToTableName() before propertyToColumnName() and to determine all column names by calling propertyToColumnName() before the next call to classToTableName() Is it safe to do that or are there situations where Hibernate will mix things up? I am not thinking of problems through multiple threads here (which can be solved by keeping the last class name in a ThreadLocal) but also of Hibernate deliberately calling this out of order in certain circumstances. For example Hibernate asking for mappings of three properties of class A, then one of class B, then again more attributes of class A.

    Read the article

  • Exit and rollback everything in script on error

    - by Jan W.
    Hey guys ! I'm in a bit of a pickle here. I have a TSQL script that does a lot of database structure adjustments but it's not really safe to just let it go through when something fails. to make things clear: using MS SQL 2005 it's NOT a stored procedure, just a script file (.sql) what I have is something in the following order BEGIN TRANSACTION ALTER Stuff GO CREATE New Stuff GO DROP Old Stuff GO IF @@ERROR != 0 BEGIN PRINT 'Errors Found ... Rolling back' ROLLBACK TRANSACTION RETURN END ELSE PRINT 'No Errors ... Committing changes' COMMIT TRANSACTION just to illustrate what I'm working with ... can't go into specifics now, the problem ... When I introduce an error (to test if things get rolled back), I get a statement that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION could not find a corresponding BEGIN TRANSACTION. This leads me to believe that something when REALLY wrong and the transaction was already killed. what I also noticed is that the script didn't fully quit on error and thus DID try to execute every statement after the error occured. (I noticed this when new tables showed up when I wasn't expecting them because it should have rollbacked) any help in this department is welcome if more speficics are needed, ask! greetz

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392  | Next Page >