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  • java template design

    - by Sean Nguyen
    Hi, I have this class: public class Converter { private Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(Converter.class); public String convert(String s){ if (s == null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("input can't be null"); logger.debug("Input = " + s); String r = s + "abc"; logger.debug("Output = " + s); return r; } public Integer convert(Integer s){ if (s == null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("input can't be null"); logger.debug("Input = " + s); Integer r = s + 10; logger.debug("Output = " + s); return r; } } The above 2 methods are very similar so I want to create a template to do the similar things and delegate the actual work to the approriate class. But I also want to easily extends this frame work without changing the template. So for example: public class ConverterTemplate { private Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(Converter.class); public Object convert(Object s){ if (s == null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("input can't be null"); logger.debug("Input = " + s); Object r = doConverter(); logger.debug("Output = " + s); return r; } protected abstract Object doConverter(Object arg); } public class MyConverter extends ConverterTemplate { protected String doConverter(String str) { String r = str + "abc"; return r; } protected Integer doConverter(Integer arg) { Integer r = arg + 10; return r; } } But that doesn't work. Can anybody suggest me a better way to do that? I want to achieve 2 goals: 1. A template that is extensible and does all the similar work for me. 2. I ant to minimize the number of extended class. Thanks,

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  • A question of long-running and disruptive branches

    - by Matt Enright
    We are about to begin prototyping a new application that will share some existing infrastructure assemblies with an existing application, and also involve a significant subset of the existing domain model. Parts of the domain model will likely undergo some serious changes for this new application, and the endgame for all of this, once the new application has been fully specified and is launch-ready is that we would like to re-unify the models of the two applications (as well as share a database, link functionality, etc.), but for the duration of development, prototyping, etc, we will be using a separate database so that we can change things without worrying about impact to development or use of the existing application. Since it is a prototype, there will be a pretty long window during which serious changes or rearchitecturing can occur as product management experiments with different workflows, different customer bases are surveyed, and we try and keep up. We have already made a Subversion branch, so as to not impact concurrent development on the mature application, and are toying with 2 potential ways of moving forward with this: Use the svn branch as the sole mechanism of separation. Make our changes to the existing domain models, and evaluate their impact on the existing application (and make requisite changes to ProjectA) when we have established that our long-running side branch is stable enough for re-entry to trunk. "Fork" the shared code (temporarily): Copy ProjectA.Entities to NewProject.Entities, and treat all of the NewProject code as self-contained. When all of the perturbations around the model have died down and we feel satisfied, manually re-integrate the changes (as granular or sweeping as warranted) back into ProjectA.Entities, updating ProjectA to use the improved models at each step (this can take place either before or after the subversion merge has occurred). The subversion merge will then not handle recombination of any of the heavy changes here. Note: the "fork" method only applies to the code we see significant changes in store for, and whose modification will break ProjectA - shared infrastructure stuff for example, we would just modify in place (on our branch) and let the merge sort out. Development is hard, go shopping. Naturally, after not coming to an agreement, we're turning it over to the oracle of power that is SO. Any experience with any of these methods, pain points to watch out for, something new entirely?

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  • Java Equivalent of C++ .dll?

    - by Matt D
    So, I've been programming for a while now, but since I haven't worked on many larger, modular projects, I haven't come across this issue before. I know what a .dll is in C++, and how they are used. But every time I've seen similar things in Java, they've always been packaged with source code. For instance, what would I do if I wanted to give a Java library to someone else, but not expose the source code? Instead of the source, I would just give a library as well as a Javadoc, or something along those lines, with the public methods/functions, to another programmer who could then implement them in their own Java code. For instance, if I wanted to create a SAX parser that could be "borrowed" by another programmer, but (for some reason--can't think of one in this specific example lol) I don't want to expose my source. Maybe there's a login involved that I don't want exploited--I don't know. But what would be the Java way of doing this? With C++, .dll files make it much easier, but I have never run into a Java equivalent so far. (I'm pretty new to Java, and a pretty new "real-world" programmer, in general as well)

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  • finding the maximum in series

    - by peril brain
    I need to know a code that will automatically:- search a specific word in excel notes it row or column number (depends on data arrangement) searches numerical type values in the respective row or column with that numeric value(suppose a[7][0]or a[0][7]) it compares all other values of respective row or column(ie. a[i][0] or a[0][i]) sets that value to the highest value only if IT HAS GOT NO FORMULA FOR DERIVATION i know most of coding but at a few places i got myself stuck... i'm writing a part of my program upto which i know: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using System.Threading; using Microsoft.Office.Interop; using Excel = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel; Excel.Application oExcelApp; namespace a{ class b{ static void main(){ try { oExcelApp = (Excel.Application)System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.GetActiveObject("Excel.Application"); ; if(oExcelApp.ActiveWorkbook != null) {Excel.Workbook xlwkbook = (Excel.Workbook)oExcelApp.ActiveWorkbook; Excel.Worksheet ws = (Excel.Worksheet)xlwkbook.ActiveSheet; Excel.Range rn; rn = ws.Cells.Find("maximum", Type.Missing, Excel.XlFindLookIn.xlValues, Excel.XlLookAt.xlPart,Excel.XlSearchOrder.xlByRows, Excel.XlSearchDirection.xlNext, false, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); }}} now ahead of this i only know tat i have to use cell.value2 ,cell.hasformula methods..... & no more idea can any one help me with this..

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  • Python: Calling method A from class A within class B?

    - by Tommo
    There are a number of questions that are similar to this, but none of the answers hits the spot - so please bear with me. I am trying my hardest to learn OOP using Python, but i keep running into errors (like this one) which just make me think this is all pointless and it would be easier to just use methods. Here is my code: class TheGUI(wx.Frame): def __init__(self, title, size): wx.Frame.__init__(self, None, 1, title, size=size) # The GUI is made ... textbox.TextCtrl(panel1, 1, pos=(67,7), size=(150, 20)) button1.Bind(wx.EVT_BUTTON, self.button1Click) self.Show(True) def button1Click(self, event): #It needs to do the LoadThread function! class WebParser: def LoadThread(self, thread_id): #It needs to get the contents of textbox! TheGUI = TheGUI("Text RPG", (500,500)) TheParser = WebParser TheApp.MainLoop() So the problem i am having is that the GUI class needs to use a function that is in the WebParser class, and the WebParser class needs to get text from a textbox that exists in the GUI class. I know i could do this by passing the objects around as parameters, but that seems utterly pointless, there must be a more logical way to do this that doesn't using classes seem so pointless? Thanks in advance!

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  • Is it good practise to blank out inherited functionality that will not be used?

    - by Timo Kosig
    I'm wondering if I should change the software architecture of one of my projects. I'm developing software for a project where two sides (in fact a host and a device) use shared code. That helps because shared data, e.g. enums can be stored in one central place. I'm working with what we call a "channel" to transfer data between device and host. Each channel has to be implemented on device and host side. We have different kinds of channels, ordinary ones and special channels which transfer measurement data. My current solution has the shared code in an abstract base class. From there on code is split between the two sides. As it has turned out there are a few cases when we would have shared code but we can't share it, we have to implement it on each side. The principle of DRY (don't repeat yourself) says that you shouldn't have code twice. My thought was now to concatenate the functionality of e.g. the abstract measurement channel on the device side and the host side in an abstract class with shared code. That means though that once we create an actual class for either the device or the host side for that channel we have to hide the functionality that is used by the other side. Is this an acceptable thing to do: public abstract class MeasurementChannelAbstract { protected void MethodUsedByDeviceSide() { } protected void MethodUsedByHostSide() { } } public class DeviceMeasurementChannel : MeasurementChannelAbstract { public new void MethodUsedByDeviceSide() { base.MethodUsedByDeviceSide(); } } Now, DeviceMeasurementChannel is only using the functionality for the device side from MeasurementChannelAbstract. By declaring all methods/members of MeasurementChannelAbstract protected you have to use the new keyword to enable that functionality to be accessed from the outside. Is that acceptable or are there any pitfalls, caveats, etc. that could arise later when using the code?

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  • OS-independent Inter-program communication between Python and C

    - by Gyppo
    I have very little idea what I'm doing here, I've never done anything like this before, but a friend and I are writing competing chess programs and they need to be able to communicate to each other. He'll be writing mainly in C, the bulk of mine will be in Python, and I can see a few options: Alternately write to a temp file, or successive temp files. As the communication won't be in any way bulky this could work, but seems like an ugly work-around to me, the programs will have to keep checking for change/new files, it just seems ugly. Find some way of manipulating pipes i.e. mine.py| ./his . This seems like a bit of a dead end. Use sockets. But I don't know what I'd be doing, so could someone give me a pointer to some reading material? I'm not sure if there are OS-independent, language independent methods. Would there have to be some kind of supervisor server program to administrate? Use some kind of HTML protocol, which seems like overkill. I don't mind the programs having to run on the same machine. What do people recommend, and where can I start reading?

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  • Two references to the same domain/entity model

    - by Sbossb
    Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

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  • mutableCopyWithZone updating a property value.

    - by Jim
    I have a Class that I need to copy with the ability to make changes the value of a variable on both Classes. Simply put the classes need to remain clones of each other at all times. My understanding of the documentation is that I can do this using a shallow copy of the Class which has also been declared mutable. By shallow copying the pointer value for the variable will be cloned so that it is an exact match in both classes. So when I update the variable in the original the copy will be updated simultaneously. Is this right? As you can see below I have used mutableCopyWithZone in the class I want to copy. I have tried both NSCopyObject and allocWithZone methods to get this to work. Although I'm able to copy the class and it appears as intended, when updating the variable it is not changing value in the copied Class. - (id)mutableCopyWithZone:(NSZone *)zone { //ReviewViewer *copy = NSCopyObject(self, 0, zone); ReviewViewer *copy = [[[self class] allocWithZone:zone] init]; copy->infoTextViews = [infoTextViews copy]; return copy; } infoTextViews is a property declared as nonatomic, retain in the header file of the class being copied. I have also implemented the NSMutableCopying protocol accordingly. Any help would be great.

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  • Call from a singleton class to a function which in turn calls that class's method

    - by dare2be
    Hello, I am still looking for a way to phrase it properly (I'm not a native speaker...). So I have this class SQL which implements the singleton pattern (for obvious reasons) and I also have this function, checkUsr(), which queries the database using one of SQL's methods. Everything works fine as long as I don't call checkUsr() from within the SQL class. When I do so, the scripts just exits and a blank page is displayed - no errors are returned, no exception is thrown... What's happening? And how do I work around this problem? EDIT: class SQL { public static function singleton() { static $instance; if(!isset($instance)) $instance = new SQL; return $instance; } public function tryLoginAuthor( $login, $sha1 ) { (...) } } function checkUsr() { if (!isset($_SESSION['login']) || !isset($_SESSION['sha1'])) throw new Exception('Not logged in', 1); $SQL = SQL::singleton(); $res = $SQL->tryLoginAuthor($_SESSION['login'], $_SESSION['sha1']); if (!isset($res[0])) throw new Exception('Not logged in', 1); }

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  • Can a Java HashMap's size() be out of sync with its actual entries' size ?

    - by trix
    I have a Java HashMap called statusCountMap. Calling size() results in 30. But if I count the entries manually, it's 31 This is in one of my TestNG unit tests. These results below are from Eclipse's Display window (type code - highlight - hit Display Result of Evaluating Selected Text). statusCountMap.size() (int) 30 statusCountMap.keySet().size() (int) 30 statusCountMap.values().size() (int) 30 statusCountMap (java.util.HashMap) {40534-INACTIVE=2, 40526-INACTIVE=1, 40528-INACTIVE=1, 40492-INACTIVE=3, 40492-TOTAL=4, 40513-TOTAL=6, 40532-DRAFT=4, 40524-TOTAL=7, 40526-DRAFT=2, 40528-ACTIVE=1, 40524-DRAFT=2, 40515-ACTIVE=1, 40513-DRAFT=4, 40534-DRAFT=1, 40514-TOTAL=3, 40529-DRAFT=4, 40515-TOTAL=3, 40492-ACTIVE=1, 40528-TOTAL=4, 40514-DRAFT=2, 40526-TOTAL=3, 40524-INACTIVE=2, 40515-DRAFT=2, 40514-ACTIVE=1, 40534-TOTAL=3, 40513-ACTIVE=2, 40528-DRAFT=2, 40532-TOTAL=4, 40524-ACTIVE=3, 40529-ACTIVE=1, 40529-TOTAL=5} statusCountMap.entrySet().size() (int) 30 What gives ? Anyone has experienced this ? I'm pretty sure statusCountMap is not being modified at this point. There are 2 methods (lets call them methodA and methodB) that modify statusCountMap concurrently, by repeatedly calling incrementCountInMap. private void incrementCountInMap(Map map, Long id, String qualifier) { String key = id + "-" + qualifier; if (map.get(key) == null) { map.put(key, 0); } synchronized (map) { map.put(key, map.get(key).intValue() + 1); } } methodD is where I'm getting the issue. methodD has a TestNG @dependsOnMethods = { "methodA", "methodB" } so when methodD is executing, statusCountMap is pretty much static already. I'm mentioning this because it might be a bug in TestNG. I'm using Sun JDK 1.6.0_24. TestNG is testng-5.9-jdk15.jar Hmmm ... after rereading my post, could it be because of concurrent execution of outside-of-synchronized-block map.get(key) == null & map.put(key,0) that's causing this issue ?

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  • UITableView populating EVERY OTHER launch

    - by Joshmattvander
    I am having a problem that I cant seem to get to the bottom of. In my view did load code, I am creating an array and attempting to populate the table. For some reason it only populates the data on EVERY OTHER time the app is run. I put logs in viewDidLoad which runs as does viewWillAppear and outputs the correct count for the array. Also, the UITableView specicic methods get called when it works and they just don't get called when it doesnt work. I cant figure out the root of this problem. Again this occurrence happens exactly 50% of the time. Theres no dynamic data that could be tripping up or anything. #import "InfoViewController.h" @implementation InfoViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { NSLog(@"Info View Loaded"); // This runs infoList = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; //Set The Data //Theres 8 similar lines [infoList addObject :[[NSMutableDictionary alloc] initWithObjectsAndKeys: @"Scrubbed", @"name", @"scrubbed", @"url", nil]]; NSLog(@"%d", [infoList count]); // This shows the count correctly every time [super viewDidLoad]; } -(void) viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { NSLog(@"Info Will Appear"); // This Runs } - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { // This WILL NOT RUN when it doesnt work, and DOES show the count when it does run NSLog(@"Counted in numberOfRowsInSection %d", [infoList count]); return [infoList count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSLog(@"ROW"); static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"infoCell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; cell.textLabel.text = [[infoList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"name"]; return cell; } @end

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  • How do I call C++/CLI (.NET) DLLs from standard, unmanaged non-.NET applications?

    - by tronjohnson
    In the unmanaged world, I was able to write a __declspec(dllexport) or, alternatively, use a .DEF file to expose a function to be able to call a DLL. (Because of name mangling in C++ for the __stdcall, I put aliases into the .DEF file so certain applications could re-use certain exported DLL functions.) Now, I am interested in being able to expose a single entry-point function from a .NET assembly, in unmanaged-fashion, but have it enter into .NET-style functions within the DLL. Is this possible, in a simple and straight-forward fashion? What I have is a third-party program that I have extended through DLLs (plugins) that implement some complex mathematics. However, the third-party program has no means for me to visualize the calculations. I want to somehow take these pre-written math functions, compile them into a separate DLL (but using C++/CLI in .NET), but then add hooks to the functions so I can render what's going on under the hood in a .NET user control. I'm not sure how to blend the .NET stuff with the unmanaged stuff, or what to Google to accomplish this task. Specific suggestions with regard to the managed/unmanaged bridge, or alternative methods to accomplish the rendering in the manner I have described would be helpful. Thank you.

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  • How to call a method after asynchronous task is complete

    - by doctordoder
    I have a class called WikiWebView which is a subclass of UIWebView which loads Wikipedia subjects and is designed to fetch all the links of the webpage, in order to create a sort of site map for the subject. My problem is that I can only create the links once the web page has loaded, but the loading isn't done right after [self loadRequest:requestObj] is called. - (void)loadSubject:(NSString *)subject { // load the actual webpage NSString *wiki = @"http://www.wikipedia.org/wiki/"; NSString *fullURL = [wiki stringByAppendingString:subject]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:fullURL]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [self loadRequest:requestObj]; // [self createLinks]; // need this to be called after the view has loaded } - (void)createLinks { NSString *javascript = @"var string = \"\";" "var arr = document.getElementsByClassName(\"mw-redirect\");" "for (var i = 0; i < arr.length; ++i)" "{" "var redirectLink = arr[i].href;" "string = string + redirectLink + \" \";" "}" "string;"; NSString *links = [self stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:javascript]; self.links = [links componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; } I tried the normal delegation technique, which lead to this code being added: - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { self.delegate = self; // weird } return self; } #pragma mark - UIWebViewDelegate - (void)webViewDidStartLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { ++_numProcesses; } - (void)webView:(UIWebView *)webView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error { --_numProcesses; } - (void)webViewDidFinishLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { --_numProcesses; if (_numProcesses == 0) { [self createLinks]; } } However, the delegate methods are never called.. I've seen similar questions where the answers are to use blocks, but how would I do that in this case?

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  • Python: Behavior of object in set operations

    - by Josh Arenberg
    I'm trying to create a custom object that behaves properly in set operations. I've generally got it working, but I want to make sure I fully understand the implications. In particular, I'm interested in the behavior when there is additional data in the object that is not included in the equal / hash methods. It seems that in the 'intersection' operation, it returns the set of objects that are being compared to, where the 'union' operations returns the set of objects that are being compared. To illustrate: class MyObject: def __init__(self,value,meta): self.value = value self.meta = meta def __eq__(self,other): if self.value == other.value: return True else: return False def __hash__(self): return hash(self.value) a = MyObject('1','left') b = MyObject('1','right') c = MyObject('2','left') d = MyObject('2','right') e = MyObject('3','left') print a == b # True print a == c # False for i in set([a,c,e]).intersection(set([b,d])): print "%s %s" % (i.value,i.meta) #returns: #1 right #2 right for i in set([a,c,e]).union(set([b,d])): print "%s %s" % (i.value,i.meta) #returns: #1 left #3 left #2 left Is this behavior documented somewhere and deterministic? If so, what is the governing principle?

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  • Conditional compilation hackery in C# - is there a way to pull this off?

    - by Chris
    I have an internal API that I would like others to reference in their projects as a compiled DLL. When it's a standalone project that's referenced, I use conditional compilation (#if statements) to switch behavior of a key web service class depending on compilation symbols. The problem is, once an assembly is generated, it appears that it's locked into whatever the compilation symbols were when it was originally compiled - for instance, if this assembly is compiled with DEBUG and is referenced by another project, even if the other project is built as RELEASE, the assembly still acts as if it was in DEBUG as it doesn't need recompilation. That makes sense, just giving some background. Now I'm trying to work around that so I can switch the assembly's behavior by some other means, such as scanning the app/web config file for a switch. The problem is, some of the assembly's code I was switching between are attributes on methods, for example: #if PRODUCTION [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://prodServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://prodServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://prodServer")] #else [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://devServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://devServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://devServer")] #endif public string Service_Test() { // test service } Though there might be some syntactical sugar that allows me to flip between two attributes of the same type in another fashion, I don't know it. Any ideas? The alternative method would be to reference the entire project instead of the assembly, but I'd rather stick with just referencing the compiled DLL if I can. I'm also completely open to a whole new approach to solve the problem if that's what it takes.

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  • Overhead of calling tiny functions from a tight inner loop? [C++]

    - by John
    Say you see a loop like this one: for(int i=0; i<thing.getParent().getObjectModel().getElements(SOME_TYPE).count(); ++i) { thing.getData().insert( thing.GetData().Count(), thing.getParent().getObjectModel().getElements(SOME_TYPE)[i].getName() ); } if this was Java I'd probably not think twice. But in performance-critical sections of C++, it makes me want to tinker with it... however I don't know if the compiler is smart enough to make it futile. This is a made up example but all it's doing is inserting strings into a container. Please don't assume any of these are STL types, think in general terms about the following: Is having a messy condition in the for loop going to get evaluated each time, or only once? If those get methods are simply returning references to member variables on the objects, will they be inlined away? Would you expect custom [] operators to get optimized at all? In other words is it worth the time (in performance only, not readability) to convert it to something like: ElementContainer &source = thing.getParent().getObjectModel().getElements(SOME_TYPE); int num = source.count(); Store &destination = thing.getData(); for(int i=0;i<num;++i) { destination.insert(thing.GetData().Count(), source[i].getName(); } Remember, this is a tight loop, called millions of times a second. What I wonder is if all this will shave a couple of cycles per loop or something more substantial? Yes I know the quote about "premature optimisation". And I know that profiling is important. But this is a more general question about modern compilers, Visual Studio in particular.

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  • C++: Vector of objects vs. vector of pointers to new objects?

    - by metamemetics
    Hello, I am seeking to improve my C++ skills by writing a sample software renderer. It takes objects consisting of points in a 3d space and maps them to a 2d viewport and draws circles of varying size for each point in view. Which is better: class World{ vector<ObjectBaseClass> object_list; public: void generate(){ object_list.clear(); object_list.push_back(DerivedClass1()); object_list.push_back(DerivedClass2()); or... class World{ vector<ObjectBaseClass*> object_list; public: void generate(){ object_list.clear(); object_list.push_back(new DerivedClass1()); object_list.push_back(new DerivedClass2()); ?? Would be using pointers in the 2nd example to create new objects defeat the point of using vectors, because vectors automatically call the DerivedClass destructors in the first example but not in the 2nd? Are pointers to new objects necessary when using vectors because they handle memory management themselves as long as you use their access methods? Now let's say I have another method in world: void drawfrom(Viewport& view){ for (unsigned int i=0;i<object_list.size();++i){ object_list.at(i).draw(view); } } When called this will run the draw method for every object in the world list. Let's say I want derived classes to be able to have their own versions of draw(). Would the list need to be of pointers then in order to use the method selector (-) ?

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  • How to make 2 incompatible types, but with the same members, interchangeable?

    - by Quigrim
    Yesterday 2 of the guys on our team came to me with an uncommon problem. We are using a third-party component in one of our winforms applications. All the code has already been written against it. They then wanted to incorporate another third-party component, by the same vender, into our application. To their delight they found that the second component had the exact same public members as the first. But to their dismay, the 2 components have completely separate inheritance hierarchies, and implement no common interfaces. Makes you wonder... Well, makes me wonder. An example of the problem: public class ThirdPartyClass1 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass1"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass1 is doing its thing."); } } public class ThirdPartyClass2 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass2"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass2 is doing its thing."); } } Gladly they felt copying and pasting the code they wrote for the first component was not the correct answer. So they were thinking of assigning the component instant into an object reference and then modifying the code to do conditional casts after checking what type it was. But that is arguably even uglier than the copy and paste approach. So they then asked me if I can write some reflection code to access the properties and call the methods off the two different object types since we know what they are, and they are exactly the same. But my first thought was that there goes the elegance. I figure there has to be a better, graceful solution to this problem.

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  • Best way and problems when using ajax tabs with an MVC PHP project

    - by Jonathan
    Hi, I'm building an IMDB.com like website using PHP/jQuery and a MVC approach (no OOP). I have an index.php base controller to 'rule them all' :), a controllers folder with all the controllers, a models folder and a view folder. In some pages of the website I have tabbed navigation, when the visitor clicks on one of those tabs to get more information, jQuery gets that data using the $.post or $.get method and shows it on the tab container, obviously without refreshing the page. The problem is that those pages loaded by ajax are also generated using controllers, models, and views, and the things are getting a bit complicated for someone like me ( = 'no experience'). To dynamically get the data I some times need to include a model twice, include an include in an include in an include, send information multiple times, connect with the database again, and all sort of things like that and I'm sure there is a better and prettier way to do this. I'm searching for the best approach and common methods for this. I have no experience working with a big project like this. This is a personal project so I have full control and every answer is welcome. Thanks!!!

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  • Javascript append to onClick event

    - by John Hartsock
    Guys I have the following Code which I know doesnt work correctly. Yes I know how to do this in JQuery but In this case I cannot use jquery. Please no jquery answers. <form> <input type="text" name="input1" onclick="alert('hello')"> <input type="text" name="input2"> <input type="text" name="input3"> </form> <script type="text\javascript"> window.onload = function () { var currentOnClick; for (var i = 0; i < document.forms[0].elements.length; i++) { currentOnClick = document.forms[0].elements[i].onclick; document.forms[0].elements[i].onclick = function () { if (currentOnClick) { currentOnClick(); } alert("hello2"); } } } </script> What Im trying to do is iterate through the form's elements and add to the onclick function. But due to the fact that in my last iteration currentOnClick is null this does not run as expected. I want to preserve each of the elements onclick methods and play them back in the new fuction Im creating. What I want: When input1 is clicked, alert "hello" then alert "hello2" When Input2 is clicked, alert "hello2" When Input3 is clicked, alert "hello2"

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  • Building a calendar navigation in Rails (controller and view links)

    - by user532339
    Trying to get the next month when clicking the link_to. I've done the following in the view. <%= form_tag rota_days_path, :method => 'get' do %> <p> <%= hidden_field_tag(:next_month, @t1) %> <%= link_to 'Next Month', rota_days_path(:next_month => @next_month)%> </p> <% end %> class RotaDaysController < ApplicationController # GET /rota_days # GET /rota_days.json # load_and_authorize_resource respond_to :json, :html def index @rota_days = RotaDay.all @hospitals = Hospital.all @t1 = Date.today.at_beginning_of_month @t2 = Date.today.end_of_month @dates = (@t1..@t2) #Concat variable t1 + t2 together # @next_month = Date.today + 1.month(params[: ??? ] #Old if params[:next_month] # @next_month = Date.today >> 1 @next_month = params[:next_month] + 1.month @t1 = @next_month.at_beginning_of_month @t2 = @next_month.end_of_month @dates = (@t1..@t2) end @title = "Rota" respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render json: @rota_days } end end I have identified that the reason why this may not be working is in because of the following in my controller @next_month = params[:next_month] + 1.month the last two called methods is defined only on time/date objects. but not on fixnum/string objects. I understand I am missing something from this Update I have found that the actual issue is that the `params[:next_month] is a string and I am trying to add a date to to it. Which means I need to convert the string to a date/time object. Console output: Started GET "/rota_days" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-12-14 22:14:36 +0000 Processing by RotaDaysController#index as HTML User Load (0.0ms) SELECT `users`.* FROM `users` WHERE `users`.`id` = 1 LIMIT 1 RotaDay Load (0.0ms) SELECT `rota_days`.* FROM `rota_days` Hospital Load (1.0ms) SELECT `hospitals`.* FROM `hospitals` Rendered rota_days/index.html.erb within layouts/application (23.0ms) Role Load (0.0ms) SELECT `roles`.* FROM `roles` INNER JOIN `roles_users` ON `roles`.`id` = `roles_users`.`role_id` WHERE `roles_users`.`user_id` = 1 AND `roles`.`name` = 'Administrator' LIMIT 1 Completed 200 OK in 42ms (Views: 39.0ms | ActiveRecord: 1.0ms)

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  • Patterns and Libraries for working with raw UI values.

    - by ProfK
    By raw values, I mean the application level values provided by UI controls, such as the Text property on a TextBox. Too often I find myself writing code to check and parse such values before they get used as a business level value, e.g. PaymentTermsNumDays. I've mitigated a lot of the spade work with rough and ready extension methods like String.ToNullableInt, but we all know that just isn't right. We can't put the whole world on String's shoulders. Do I look at tasking my UI to provide business values, using a ruleset pushed out from the server app, or open my business objects up a bit to do the required sanitising etc. as they required? Neither of these approaches sits quite right with me; the first seems closer to ideal, but quite a bit of work, while the latter doesn't show much respect to the business objects' single responsibility. The responsibilities of the UI are a closer match. Between these extremes, I could also just implement another DTO layer, an IoC container with sanitising and parsing services, derive enhanced UI controls, or stick to copy and paste inline drudgery.

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  • IEnumerator seems to be effecting all objects, and not one at a time

    - by PFranchise
    Hey, I am trying to alter an attribute of an object. I am setting it to the value of that same attribute stored on another table. There is a one to many relationship between the two. The product end is the one and the versions is the many. Right now, both these methods that I have tried have set all the products returned equal to the final version object. So, in this case they are all the same. I am not sure where the issue lies. Here are my two code snipets, both yield the same result. int x = 1 IEnumerator<Product> ie = productQuery.GetEnumerator(); while (ie.MoveNext()) { ie.Current.RSTATE = ie.Current.Versions.First(o => o.VersionNumber == x).RSTATE; x++; } and foreach (var product in productQuery) { product.RSTATE = product.Versions.Single(o => o.VersionNumber == x).RSTATE; x++; } The versions table holds information for previous products, each is distinguished by the version number. I know that it will start at 1 and go until it reaches the current version, based on my query returning the proper number of products. Thanks for any advice.

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  • Iterate over defined elements of a JS array

    - by sibidiba
    I'm using a JS array to Map IDs to actual elements, i.e. a key-value store. I would like to iterate over all elements. I tried several methods, but all have its caveats: for (var item in map) {...} Does iterates over all properties of the array, therefore it will include also functions and extensions to Array.prototype. For example someone dropping in the Prototype library in the future will brake existing code. var length = map.lenth; for (var i = 0; i < length; i++) { var item = map[i]; ... } does work but just like $.each(map, function(index, item) {...}); They iterate over the whole range of indexes 0..max(id) which has horrible drawbacks: var x = []; x[1]=1; x[10]=10; $.each(x, function(i,v) {console.log(i+": "+v);}); 0: undefined 1: 1 2: undefined 3: undefined 4: undefined 5: undefined 6: undefined 7: undefined 8: undefined 9: undefined 10: 10 Of course my IDs wont resemble a continuous sequence either. Moreover there can be huge gaps between them so skipping undefined in the latter case is unacceptable for performance reasons. How is it possible to safely iterate over only the defined elements of an array (in a way that works in all browsers and IE)?

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