Search Results

Search found 10527 results on 422 pages for 'ccnet config'.

Page 387/422 | < Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >

  • Can output from OutputDebugString be viewed in VisualStudio's output window

    - by wageoghe
    I am using C# and VS2010. When I use OutputDebugString to write debug information, should it show up in the output window? I can see the output from OutputDebugString in DebugView, but I thought I would see it in Visual Studio's Output window. I have looked under Tools-Options-Debugging-General and the output is NOT being redirected to the Immediate window. I have also looked under Tools-Options-Debugging-Output Window and all General Output Settings are set to "On". Finally, I have used the drop-down list in the Output window to specify that Debug messages should appear. If I change Tools-Options-Debugging-General to redirect the output to the Immediate window, the OutputDebugString messages do not appear in the immediate window. Here is my entire test program: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; using System.Diagnostics; namespace OutputDebugString { class Program { [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] public static extern void OutputDebugString(string message); static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("Main - Enter - Console.WriteLine"); Debug.WriteLine("Main - Enter - Debug.WriteLine"); OutputDebugString("Main - Enter - OutputDebugString"); OutputDebugString("Main - Exit - OutputDebugString"); Debug.WriteLine("Main - Exit - Debug.WriteLine"); Console.WriteLine("Main - Exit - Console.WriteLine"); } } } If I run within the debugger, the Debug.WriteLine output does show up in the output window, but the OutputDebugString output does not. If I run from a console window, both Debug.WriteLine and OutputDebugString show up in DebugView. Why doesn't the OutputDebugString output ever show up in the output window? Ultimately, my intent is not to write a lot of debug output with OutputDebugString, rather I will use System.Diagnostics or NLog or something similar. I am just trying to find out, if I configure a logging platform to write to OutputDebugString, will the output be visible from within the debugger. Edit: I went back to my original program (not the simple test above) which uses TraceSources and TraceListeners configured via the app.config file. If I configure the trace sources to write to the System.Diagnostics.DefaultTraceListener (which is documented as writing to OutputDebugString), then the trace source output DOES go to the debug window. However, lines that write directly with OutputDebugString (such as in my simple example) DO NOT go to the debug window. Also, if I use a different TraceListener that writes to OutputDebugString (I got one from Ukadc.Diagnostics at codeplex), that output DOES NOT go to the debug window. Note that I have seen these questions but they did not provide a working solution: here and here

    Read the article

  • Streaming binary data to WCF rest service gives Bad Request (400) when content length is greater than 64k

    - by Mikey Cee
    I have a WCF service that takes a stream: [ServiceContract] public class UploadService : BaseService { [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(BodyStyle=WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, Method=WebRequestMethods.Http.Post)] public void Upload(Stream data) { // etc. } } This method is to allow my Silverlight application to upload large binary files, the easiest way being to craft the HTTP request by hand from the client. Here is the code in the Silverlight client that does this: const int contentLength = 64 * 1024; // 64 Kb var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://localhost:8732/UploadService/"); request.AllowWriteStreamBuffering = false; request.Method = WebRequestMethods.Http.Post; request.ContentType = "application/octet-stream"; request.ContentLength = contentLength; using (var outputStream = request.GetRequestStream()) { outputStream.Write(new byte[contentLength], 0, contentLength); outputStream.Flush(); using (var response = request.GetResponse()); } Now, in the case above, where I am streaming 64 kB of data (or less), this works OK and if I set a breakpoint in my WCF method, and I can examine the stream and see 64 kB worth of zeros - yay! The problem arises if I send anything more than 64 kB of data, for instance by changing the first line of my client code to the following: const int contentLength = 64 * 1024 + 1; // 64 kB + 1 B This now throws an exception when I call request.GetResponse(): The remote server returned an error: (400) Bad Request. In my WCF configuration I have set maxReceivedMessageSize, maxBufferSize and maxBufferPoolSize to 2147483647, but to no avail. Here are the relevant sections from my service's app.config: <service name="UploadService"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingName="StreamedRequestWebBinding" contract="UploadService" behaviorConfiguration="webBehavior"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8732/UploadService/" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> <bindings> <webHttpBinding> <binding name="StreamedRequestWebBinding" bypassProxyOnLocal="true" useDefaultWebProxy="false" hostNameComparisonMode="WeakWildcard" sendTimeout="00:05:00" openTimeout="00:05:00" receiveTimeout="00:05:00" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxBufferPoolSize="2147483647" transferMode="StreamedRequest"> <readerQuotas maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647" /> </binding> </webHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="webBehavior"> <webHttp /> </behavior> <endpointBehaviors> </behaviors> How do I make my service accept more than 64 kB of streamed post data?

    Read the article

  • Stuck on an ASP.NET/WCF WSDL Parsing Error

    - by Vaccano
    I have a WCF Web Service that my ASP.NET app uses. It has been working fine for quite some time. I just added in a Dev Express Grid (and the Dev Express DLLs) and a new page that uses them and now I am getting parsing errors on the WSDL. But the weird part is that it works fine on my machine but fails on the web server machine. (Both are connecting to the same web services WSDL.) Here is the error message I am getting: Server Error in '/MyWebAppWebDev' Application. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Reference.svcmap: Failed to generate code for the service reference 'MyWebAppService'. Cannot import wsdl:portType Detail: An exception was thrown while running a WSDL import extension: System.ServiceModel.Description.DataContractSerializerMessageContractImporter Error: Referenced type 'WebClientApp.MyWebAppService.ReferenceUpdatesDataContract, WebClientApp, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' with data contract name 'ReferenceUpdatesDataContract' in namespace 'http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/MyWebAppServiceLibrary.DataContracts' cannot be used since it does not match imported DataContract. Need to exclude this type from referenced types. XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:portType[@name='IMyWebAppReferenceDataServiceLib'] Cannot import wsdl:binding Detail: There was an error importing a wsdl:portType that the wsdl:binding is dependent on. XPath to wsdl:portType: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:portType[@name='IMyWebAppReferenceDataServiceLib'] XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:binding[@name='MyWebAppServicesDefaultEndpoint'] Cannot import wsdl:port Detail: There was an error importing a wsdl:binding that the wsdl:port is dependent on. XPath to wsdl:binding: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:binding[@name='MyWebAppServicesDefaultEndpoint'] XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:service[@name='MyWebAppReferenceDataServiceLib']/wsdl:port[@name='MyWebAppServicesDefaultEndpoint'] Source Error: [No relevant source lines] Source File: /MyWebAppWebDev/App_WebReferences/MyWebAppService/ Line: 1 I am completely stumped on this. I have checked my web.config endpoint address and it is spot on (and notably is not in the error message above). Any ideas would be welcomed. Things I have tried: Giving permissions to C:\Windows\temp to my Website user name Giving permissions to C:\Windows\temp to my App pool user name Checking to see that none of my data contracts are generic and have IsReference=true in them.

    Read the article

  • Multiple WCF windows services on the same box - endpoint configuration

    - by David Belanger
    Hi, I have 2 windows services installed on a machine with different service names, they install and start fine. What's happening is that they're both listening to the same endpoints and thus competing for messages. I've tried to change the baseAddress to be different for both services without success. Here's my service host config: <configuration> <appSettings> <add key="ServiceName" value="Service - Service Host 1"/> </appSettings> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="NoSecurityBinding"> <security mode="None"> <message establishSecurityContext="false"/> <transport clientCredentialType="None"/> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="NoSecurityBinding"> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="None"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <services> <service name="Lib.Interface.Service" behaviorConfiguration="Lib.Interface.ServiceBehavior"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8000/Service"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="NoSecurityBinding" contract="Lib.Interface.IService"/> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="Lib.Interface.ServiceBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="True" policyVersion="Policy12"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="False"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> Any idea how I could set up the services (other than unique service names) so they're not conflicting with one another? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • PHP max_execution_time not timing out

    - by Joey Ezekiel
    This is not one of the regular questions if sleep is counted for timeout or stuff like that. Ok, here's the problem: I've set the max_execution_time for PHP as 15 seconds and ideally this should time out when it crosses the set limit, but it doesn't. Apache has been restarted after the change to the php.ini file and an ini_get('max_execution_time') is all fine. Sometimes the script runs for upto 200 seconds which is crazy. I have no database communication whatsoever. All the script does is looking for files on the unix filesystem and in some cases re-directing to another JSP page. There is no sleep() on the script. I calculate the total execution time of the PHP script like this: At the start of the script I set : $_mtime = microtime(); $_mtime = explode(" ",$_mtime); $_mtime = $_mtime[1] + $_mtime[0]; $_gStartTime = $_mtime; and the end time($_gEndTime) is calculated similarly. The total time is calculated in a shutdown function that I've registered: register_shutdown_function('shutdown'); ............. function shutdown() { .............. .............. $_total_time = $_gEndTime - $_gStartTime; .............. switch (connection_status ()) { case CONNECTION_NORMAL: .... break; .... case CONNECTION_TIMEOUT: .... break; ...... } } Note: I cannot use $_SERVER['REQUEST_TIME'] because my PHP version is incompatible. That sucks - I know. 1) Well, my first question obviously is is why is my PHP script executing even after the set timeout limit? 2) Apache has the Timeout directive which is 300 seconds but the PHP binary does not read the Apache config and this should not be a problem. 3) Is there a possibility that something is sending PHP into a sleep mode? 4) Am I calculating the execution time in a wrong way? Is there a better way to do this? I'm stumped at this point. PHP Wizards - please help.

    Read the article

  • Android - OPENGL cube is NOT in the display

    - by Marc Ortiz
    I'm trying to display a square on my display and i can't. Whats my problem? How can I display it on the screen (center of the screen)? I let my code below! Here's my render class: public class GLRenderEx implements Renderer { private GLCube cube; Context c; GLCube quad; // ( NEW ) // Constructor public GLRenderEx(Context context) { // Set up the data-array buffers for these shapes ( NEW ) quad = new GLCube(); // ( NEW ) } // Call back when the surface is first created or re-created. @Override public void onSurfaceCreated(GL10 gl, EGLConfig config) { // NO CHANGE - SKIP } // Call back after onSurfaceCreated() or whenever the window's size changes. @Override public void onSurfaceChanged(GL10 gl, int width, int height) { // NO CHANGE - SKIP } // Call back to draw the current frame. @Override public void onDrawFrame(GL10 gl) { // Clear color and depth buffers using clear-values set earlier gl.glClear(GL10.GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL10.GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); gl.glLoadIdentity(); // Reset model-view matrix ( NEW ) gl.glTranslatef(-1.5f, 0.0f, -6.0f); // Translate left and into the // screen ( NEW ) // Translate right, relative to the previous translation ( NEW ) gl.glTranslatef(3.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); quad.draw(gl); // Draw quad ( NEW ) } } And here is my square class: public class GLCube { private FloatBuffer vertexBuffer; // Buffer for vertex-array private float[] vertices = { // Vertices for the square -1.0f, -1.0f, 0.0f, // 0. left-bottom 1.0f, -1.0f, 0.0f, // 1. right-bottom -1.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f, // 2. left-top 1.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f // 3. right-top }; // Constructor - Setup the vertex buffer public GLCube() { // Setup vertex array buffer. Vertices in float. A float has 4 bytes ByteBuffer vbb = ByteBuffer.allocateDirect(vertices.length * 4); vbb.order(ByteOrder.nativeOrder()); // Use native byte order vertexBuffer = vbb.asFloatBuffer(); // Convert from byte to float vertexBuffer.put(vertices); // Copy data into buffer vertexBuffer.position(0); // Rewind } // Render the shape public void draw(GL10 gl) { // Enable vertex-array and define its buffer gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); gl.glVertexPointer(3, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, vertexBuffer); // Draw the primitives from the vertex-array directly gl.glDrawArrays(GL10.GL_TRIANGLE_STRIP, 0, vertices.length / 3); gl.glDisableClientState(GL10.GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); } } Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • Inserting newlines into a GtkTextView widget (GTK+ programming)

    - by Mark Roberts
    I've got a button which when clicked copies and appends the text from a GtkEntry widget into a GtkTextView widget. (This code is a modified version of an example found in the "The Text View Widget" chapter of Foundations of GTK+ Development.) I'm looking to insert a newline character before the text which gets copied and appended, such that each line of text will be on its own line in the GtkTextView widget. How would I do this? I'm brand new to GTK+. Here's the code sample: #include <gtk/gtk.h> typedef struct { GtkWidget *entry, *textview; } Widgets; static void insert_text (GtkButton*, Widgets*); int main (int argc, char *argv[]) { GtkWidget *window, *scrolled_win, *hbox, *vbox, *insert; Widgets *w = g_slice_new (Widgets); gtk_init (&argc, &argv); window = gtk_window_new (GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL); gtk_window_set_title (GTK_WINDOW (window), "Text Iterators"); gtk_container_set_border_width (GTK_CONTAINER (window), 10); gtk_widget_set_size_request (window, -1, 200); w->textview = gtk_text_view_new (); w->entry = gtk_entry_new (); insert = gtk_button_new_with_label ("Insert Text"); g_signal_connect (G_OBJECT (insert), "clicked", G_CALLBACK (insert_text), (gpointer) w); scrolled_win = gtk_scrolled_window_new (NULL, NULL); gtk_container_add (GTK_CONTAINER (scrolled_win), w->textview); hbox = gtk_hbox_new (FALSE, 5); gtk_box_pack_start_defaults (GTK_BOX (hbox), w->entry); gtk_box_pack_start_defaults (GTK_BOX (hbox), insert); vbox = gtk_vbox_new (FALSE, 5); gtk_box_pack_start (GTK_BOX (vbox), scrolled_win, TRUE, TRUE, 0); gtk_box_pack_start (GTK_BOX (vbox), hbox, FALSE, TRUE, 0); gtk_container_add (GTK_CONTAINER (window), vbox); gtk_widget_show_all (window); gtk_main(); return 0; } /* Insert the text from the GtkEntry into the GtkTextView. */ static void insert_text (GtkButton *button, Widgets *w) { GtkTextBuffer *buffer; GtkTextMark *mark; GtkTextIter iter; const gchar *text; buffer = gtk_text_view_get_buffer (GTK_TEXT_VIEW (w->textview)); text = gtk_entry_get_text (GTK_ENTRY (w->entry)); mark = gtk_text_buffer_get_insert (buffer); gtk_text_buffer_get_iter_at_mark (buffer, &iter, mark); gtk_text_buffer_insert (buffer, &iter, text, -1); } You can compile this command (assuming the file is named file.c): gcc file.c -o file `pkg-config --cflags --libs gtk+-2.0` Thanks everybody!

    Read the article

  • How can I configure a Factory with the possible providers?

    - by Jonathas Costa
    I have three assemblies: "Framework.DataAccess", "Framework.DataAccess.NHibernateProvider" and "Company.DataAccess". Inside the assembly "Framework.DataAccess", I have my factory (with the wrong implementation of discovery): public class DaoFactory { private static readonly object locker = new object(); private static IWindsorContainer _daoContainer; protected static IWindsorContainer DaoContainer { get { if (_daoContainer == null) { lock (locker) { if (_daoContainer != null) return _daoContainer; _daoContainer = new WindsorContainer(new XmlInterpreter()); // THIS IS WRONG! THIS ASSEMBLY CANNOT KNOW ABOUT SPECIALIZATIONS! _daoContainer.Register( AllTypes.FromAssemblyNamed("Company.DataAccess") .BasedOn(typeof(IReadDao<>)).WithService.FromInterface(), AllTypes.FromAssemblyNamed("Framework.DataAccess.NHibernateProvider") .BasedOn(typeof(IReadDao<>)).WithService.Base()); } } return _daoContainer; } } public static T Create<T>() where T : IDao { return DaoContainer.Resolve<T>(); } } This assembly also defines the base interface for data access IReadDao: public interface IReadDao<T> { IEnumerable<T> GetAll(); } I want to keep this assembly generic and with no references. This is my base data access assembly. Then I have the NHibernate provider's assembly, which implements the above IReadDao using NHibernate's approach. This assembly references the "Framework.DataAccess" assembly. public class NHibernateDao<T> : IReadDao<T> { public NHibernateDao() { } public virtual IEnumerable<T> GetAll() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } At last, I have the "Company.DataAccess" assembly, which can override the default implementation of NHibernate provider and references both previously seen assemblies. public interface IProductDao : IReadDao<Product> { Product GetByName(string name); } public class ProductDao : NHibernateDao<Product>, IProductDao { public override IEnumerable<Product> GetAll() { throw new NotImplementedException("new one!"); } public Product GetByName(string name) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } I want to be able to write... IRead<Product> dao = DaoFactory.Create<IRead<Product>>(); ... and then get the ProductDao implementation. But I can't hold inside my base data access any reference to specific assemblies! My initial idea was to read that from a xml config file. So, my question is: How can I externally configure this factory to use a specific provider as my default implementation and my client implementation?

    Read the article

  • Failed to obtain JDBC Driver for MySQL under Tomcat environment

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: I've been trying to obtain the Driver class for JDBC connection to MySQL. The workstation is running on Linux, Fedora 10. I have manually set up the classpath variable for Java by CLI like this: bash-3.2$ echo $CLASSPATH /home/cmao/public_html/jsp/mysql-connector-java-5.1.12-bin.jar This shows that I've added the lastest mysql connection jar archive to my CLASSPATH variable. I've created a test JSP page which can be found here And source code for this page is: <%@page language="java"%> <%@page import="java.sql.*"%> <%@page import="java.util.*"%> <html> <head> <title>UTS JDBC MySQL connection test page</title> </head> <body> <% Connection con = null; out.print("Java version is : " + System.getProperty("java.version") + "<br />"); out.print("Tomcat version is : " + application.getServerInfo() + "<br />"); out.print("Servlet version is: " + application.getMajorVersion() + "<br />"); out.print("JSP version is : " + JspFactory.getDefaultFactory().getEngineInfo().getSpecificationVersion() +"<br />"); //out.print("Java classpath is : " + System.getProperty("java.class.path")+ "<br />"); //out.print("JSP classpath is : " + appliaction.getAttribute("org.apache.catalina.jsp_classpath") + "<br />"); //out.print("Tomcat classpath is : " + System.getProperty("org.apache.tomcat.common.classpath") + "<br />"); try { Class c = Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"); } catch(Exception e) { out.println("Error! Failed to obtain JDBC driver for MySQL... Missing class \"com.mysql.jdbc.Driver\"<br />"); } %> </body> </html> None of those commented out line would work, various Jsper Expetions would be thrown. You can check those Error pages from the following links: classpath Error page catalina Error page tomcat Error page It seems, from my limited knowledge of JSP and Servlet, the Tomcat environment "ignores" my Java CLASSPATH? In which case I cannot configure the MySQL JDBC package to let my Servlets(a JSP is but a Servlet anyway) work. I am not sure how to fix this issue. would it be better if I use an IDE like Eclipse or NetBeans and create a real Java "web app" so that everything can be "self-configured" by the usage of a web.config XML configuration file? So that I can certainly bypass this Tomcat environment restriction? Many thanks for the suggestions in advance.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET 2.0 and 4.0 seem to treat the root url differently in Forms Authentication

    - by Kev
    If have the following web.config: <configuration> <system.web> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="MembershipCookie" loginUrl="Login.aspx" protection="All" timeout="525600" slidingExpiration="true" enableCrossAppRedirects="true" path="/" /> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> <location path="Default.aspx"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> </configuration> The application is an ASP.NET 2.0 application running on Windows 2008R2/IIS7.5. If the site's application pool is configured to run ASP.NET 2.0 and I browse to http://example.com then Default.aspx is rendered as you'd expect from the rules above. However if the application pool is set to run ASP.NET 4.0 I am redirected to the login page. If I explicitly specify http://example.com/default.aspx then all is good and default.aspx renders. I've tried rewriting / -> /default.aspx (using IIS UrlRewriter 2.0) but the result is still the same, I get kicked to the login page. I've also tried this with an ASP.NET 4.0 application with the same result (which is where the problem initially arose). The reason I tried this with a 2.0 application was to see if there was a change in behaviour, and it seems that / is handled differently in 4.0. So to summarise, using the configuration above the following is observed: ASP.NET Version Url Behaviour ------------------------------------------------------------------------- 2.0 http://example.com Renders Default.aspx 2.0 http://example.com/Default.aspx Renders Default.aspx 4.0 http://example.com Redirects to Login.aspx 4.0 http://example.com/Default.aspx Renders Default.aspx Is this a bug/breaking change or have I missed something glaringly obvious?

    Read the article

  • WCF service under https environment

    - by Budda
    I've created and tested WCF service, everything works fine. When I deployed to TEST environment and tried to open https://my.site/myapp/EnrollmentService.svc I've got the error message: Could not find a base address that matches scheme http for the endpoint with binding MetadataExchangeHttpBinding. Registered base address schemes are [https]. Internet showed me that I need to add some more configuration options: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/WCF/7stepsWCF.aspx I've added some settings to service web.config file. Now it looks like in the following way: <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="McActivationApp.EnrollmentService" behaviorConfiguration="McActivationApp.EnrollmentServicBehavior"> <endpoint address="https://my.site/myapp/EnrollmentService.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TransportSecurity" contract="McActivationApp.IEnrollmentService"/> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="McActivationApp.IEnrollmentService" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="McActivationApp.EnrollmentServicBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="True"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="False" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="TransportSecurity"> <security mode="Transport"> <transport clientCredentialType="None" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> </system.serviceModel> Actually, I've added "bindings" section and specified it for my endpoint. But this changed nothing... Please advise, what I need to do. Thanks a lot! P.S. Are there any differences in WCF service consuming from https and http resources?

    Read the article

  • How to customize android analog clock widget through configuration screen

    - by michJ
    I'm trying to develop my own analog clock widget on the home screen. It's based on the stock ICS analog clock widget, but when added to the homescreen, my widget opens a configuration screen first. On this screen you can choose the color you want the clock to be (through a colorpicker dialog). You also see a preview of the clock in the chosen color on this screen. (See picture). My problem is changing the color of the widget on the home screen to the chosen color (when you hit the apply button). I have three .png files that I use for the dial, hour hand and minute hand. I color them using this code in my widgetconfig class: Drawable dial = getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.clockbackground); dial.setColorFilter(color, PorterDuff.Mode.MULTIPLY); //hour Drawable hour = getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.hourhand); hour.setColorFilter(color, PorterDuff.Mode.MULTIPLY); //minute Drawable min = getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.minutehand); min.setColorFilter(color, PorterDuff.Mode.MULTIPLY); // clock AnalogClock clockpreview = (AnalogClock) findViewById(R.id.ACconfig); clockpreview.setBackgroundDrawable(dial); This works fine because I can find the AnalogClock since it's in the layout xml file of the configuration screen, which I set in the OnCreate() through setContentView(). The problem is that for the clock widget on my screen I have to use RemoteViews. So I tried setting the new background of the clock widget through RemoteViews. But RemoteViews seems too limited to do this. I need something like setTextViewText() but then for the background of my analog clock widget, like for example: RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.clockwidget); views.setAnalogClockBackgroundDrawable(dial); The clock widget background seems sort of unchangeable. How can I recolor my clockwidget on homescreen in widgetconfig class? There must be a way because it seems so easy to do at first... My project consists of the widget config class and clockwidget class, widgetconfig.xml, clockwidget.xml, and widget_info.xml (for appwidgetprovider).

    Read the article

  • bundler/capistrano is not installing gems with correct ruby version

    - by Douglas
    I'm trying to deploy my first app on a server with Capistrano, and I'm a bit lost with managing gemsets and ruby version. These are my (server and workstation) versions : Rails 3.2.8 RVM 1.16.17 Gem 1.8.24 Bundler 1.2.1 pg gem 0.14.1 My gemset are : Gemsets for ruby-1.9.3-p194 (found in /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194) (default) global = rail3dev20120606 I set the default gemset with : rvm use 1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606 --default --passenger When I run a : cap bundle:install The task end with success, but when I do a : gem list There are many missing gems though they are present in my Gemfile. When I go to check my gems in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/ I find a folder called 1.9.1 and in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/gems/ I can fond all of my needed gems (specified in Gemfile). I'm sure there is a problem with ruby version, but how do I solve this ? At the moment, if I do any rake command, I got a ruby crash [Bug] Segmentation fault, as it try to access the db and using postgresql_adapter. I think as many gems are missing there must have some gem dependencies not verified, and maybe a gem is using an incompatible ruby version 1.9.1 though it expect a 1.9.3. I think the issue is around managing ruby versions and gems. I'm certainly doing some mix with gemset and my capistrano deployement. I'm missing experience and info. Could anybody advise me how to handle this on the server ? What are the best practices ? How am I suppose to update my ruby version ? with Capistrano deploy.rb ? manually ? with/without rvm ? I saw a new version of ruby 1.9.3-p327 has just released. Should I use gemset or not ? What about the :rvm_ruby_string in my deploy.rb. Is it correctly spelled or should I remove the p194 part ? Should I Remove the :rvm_ruby_string ? Keep it ? Use a .rvmrc file ??? I'm really lost and some kind help would be welcome. This is my config/deploy.rb in any case : require 'bundler/capistrano' require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'deploy') + '/capistrano_database' set :rvm_type, :system set :rvm_ruby_string, 'ruby-1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606' require 'rvm/capistrano' set :application, 'opf' set :deploy_to, '/var/www/opf' set :rails_env, 'production' set :user, 'the_user' set :use_sudo, false set :group_writable, false set :scm, :git set :repository, '[email protected]:user/opf.git' set :branch, 'master' default_run_options[:pty] = true set :deploy_via, :remote_cache server '192.168.5.200', :web, :app, :db, :primary => true # If you are using Passenger mod_rails uncomment this: namespace :deploy do task :start do ; end task :stop do ; end task :restart, :roles => :app, :except => { :no_release => true } do run "#{try_sudo} touch #{File.join(current_path,'tmp','restart.txt')}" end end Thanks for any help

    Read the article

  • How would a php or java client authenticate if I'm using WCF w/ forms auth?

    - by Toran Billups
    I have a generic proof of concept WCF service that is using forms authentication to secure access. All works great when my client is .NET (vb code below) Dim client As SupplierServiceClient = New SupplierServiceClient() client.ClientCredentials.UserName.UserName = "[email protected]" client.ClientCredentials.UserName.Password = "password" Dim SupplierList As List(Of Supplier) = client.GetSuppliers() but as I want this to interop w/ anyone who can do SOAP 1.1/1.2 - how would a PHP or Java client connect? My WCF web.config is listed below (fyi) <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.SupplierService" behaviorConfiguration="NorthwindBehavior"> <endpoint address="" name="wsHttpSupplierService" contract="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.ISupplierService" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="wsHttp"/> <endpoint address="https://server/SampleApplicationWCF/SupplierService.svc/Basic" name="basicHttpSupplierService" contract="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.ISupplierService" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="basicHttp"/> <endpoint contract="IMetadataExchange" binding="mexHttpBinding" address="mex"/> </service> </services> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="wsHttp"> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <transport/> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" negotiateServiceCredential="false" establishSecurityContext="true"/> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="basicHttp"> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <transport/> <message clientCredentialType="UserName"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="NorthwindBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceAuthorization principalPermissionMode="UseAspNetRoles"/> <serviceCredentials> <userNameAuthentication userNamePasswordValidationMode="MembershipProvider"/> </serviceCredentials> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel>

    Read the article

  • NewBie Question, jQuery: How can we implement if...else logic and call function

    - by Rachel
    I am new to jQuery and so don't mind this question if it sounds stupid but here is something that I am trying to do : I have 3 functions like: AddToCart Function which adds item to the shopping cart: //offer_id is the offer which we are trying to add to cart. addToCart: function(offer_id) { this.submit({action: 'add', 'offer_id': offer_id}, {'app_server_url': this.app_server_url}); }, RemoveFromCart which removes data from the cart //target is link clicked and event is the click event. removeFromCart: function(target, event) { this.uniqueElmt('cart_table').find('.sb_item_remove').unbind('click'); var offer_id = $(target).parent().find('.offer_id').html(); this.submit({action: 'remove', 'offer_id': offer_id, 'next_action': this.config.current_action}, {'app_server_url': this.app_server_url}); }, Get the current state of the cart //return string which represents current state of cart. getCartItems: function() { return this.contents; } Now I am trying to do 3 things: if there is no content in cart and addToCart is called than some action, so basically here we need to check the current state of cart and that is obtained by calling getCartItems and if it is Null and than if addToCart is called than we perform some action if there is content in the cart and addToCart is called than some action,so basically here we need to check the current state of cart and that is obtained by calling getCartItems and check if it is Null or not and than if addToCart is called than we perform some action if we had some content in the cart. if there is content in the cart and removeFromCart is called some action, so basically here we need to check the current state of cart and that is obtained by calling getCartItems and if it is not Null and if removeFromCart is called than we perform some action Pseudocode of what I am trying to do: if there is no content in cart and addToCart is called than $(document).track( { 'module' : 'Omniture', 'event' : 'instant', 'args' : { 'linkTrackVars' : 'products,events', 'linkTrackEvents' : 'scAdd,scOpen', 'linkType' : 'o', 'linkName' : 'Cart : First Product Added' // could be blank, but can include event name as added feature 'svalues' : { 'products' : ';OFFERID1[,;OFFERID2]', 'events' : 'scAdd,scOpen', }, } 'defer' : '0' } ); if there is content in the cart and addToCart is called than $(document).track( { 'module' : 'Omniture', 'event' : 'instant', 'args' : { 'linkTrackVars' : 'products,events', 'linkTrackEvents' : 'scAdd', 'linkType' : 'o', 'linkName' : 'Cart : Product Added' // could be blank, but can include event name as added feature 'svalues' : { 'products' : ';OFFERID1[,;OFFERID2]', 'events' : 'scAdd', }, }, 'defer' : '0' } ); if there is content in the cart and removeFromCart is called $(document).track( { 'module' : 'Omniture', 'event' : 'instant', 'args' : { 'linkTrackVars' : 'products,events', 'linkTrackEvents' : 'scRemove', 'linkType' : 'o', 'linkName' : 'Cart : Product Removed' // could be blank, but can include event name as added feature 'svalues' : { 'products' : ';OFFERID1[,;OFFERID2]', 'events' : 'scRemove', }, } 'defer' : '0' } ); My basic concern is that am complete newbie to jQuery and JavaScript and so am not sure how can I implement if...else logic and how can I call a funtion using jQuery/JavaScript.

    Read the article

  • NonUniqueObjectException during DAO integration test?

    - by HDave
    I have a JPA/Hibernate application and am trying to get it to run against H2 and MySQL. Currently I am using Atomikos for transactions and C3P0 for connection pooling. Despite my best efforts my DAO integration tests are failing with org.hibernate.NonUniqueObjectException. I do tend to re-use the same object (same ID even) over and over for all the different tests and I am sure that is the cause, but I can see in the logs that Spring Test and Atomikos are clearly rolling back the transaction associated with each test method. I would have thought the rollback would have also cleared the persistence context too. On a hunch, I added an a call to dao.clear() at the beginning of the faulty test methods and the problem went away!! Rollback doesn't clear the persistence context...hmmm.... Not sure if this is relevant, but I see a possible autocommit setting problem in the log file: [20100613 23:06:34] DEBUG [main] SessionFactoryImpl.(242) | instantiating session factory with properties: .....edited for brevity.... hibernate.connection.autocommit=true, ....more stuff follows Because I am using connection pooling, I figure that Hibernate is where I'll have to indicate I want autocommit off. I found the autocommit property documented here and I put it in my EntityManagerFactory config as follows: <bean id="myappTestLocalEmf" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="myapp-core" /> <property name="persistenceUnitPostProcessors"> <bean class="com.myapp.core.persist.util.JtaPersistenceUnitPostProcessor"> <property name="jtaDataSource" ref="myappPersistTestJdbcDataSource" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <property name="database" value="$DS{hibernate.database}" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="$DS{hibernate.dialect}" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.AtomikosJTATransactionFactory</prop> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.manager_lookup_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.TransactionManagerLookup</prop> <prop key="hibernate.connection.autocommit">false</prop> <prop key="hibernate.format_sql">true"</prop> <prop key="hibernate.use_sql_comments">true</prop> </property> </bean>

    Read the article

  • MVC3/Razor Client Validation Not firing

    - by Jason Gerstorff
    I am trying to get client validation working in MVC3 using data annotations. I have looked at similar posts including this MVC3 Client side validation not working for the answer. I'm using an EF data model. I created a partial class like this for my validations. [MetadataType(typeof(Post_Validation))] public partial class Post { } public class Post_Validation { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Title is required")] [StringLength(5, ErrorMessage = "Title may not be longer than 5 characters")] public string Title { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Text is required")] [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] public string Text { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Publish Date is required")] [DataType(DataType.DateTime)] public DateTime PublishDate { get; set; } } My cshtml page includes the following. <h2>Create</h2> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.ValidationSummary(true) Post <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Title) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Title) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Title) </div> <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Text) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Text) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Text) Web Config: <appSettings> <add key="ClientValidationEnabled" value="true" /> <add key="UnobtrusiveJavaScriptEnabled" value="true" /> Layout: <head> <title>@ViewBag.Title</title> <link href="@Url.Content("~/Content/Site.css")" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> So, the Multiline Text annotation works and creates a text area. But none of the validations work client side. I don't know what i might be missing. Any ideas?? i can post more information if needed. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How do I integrate a new MVC C# Project with an existing Web Forms VB.NET Web Application Project?

    - by Jordan Rieger
    We have a corporate website with a large amount of dynamic business application pages (e.g. Shopping Cart, Helpdesk, Product/Service management, Reporting, etc.) The site was built as an ASP.Net Web Application Project (WAP). Our systems have evolved over the years to use .NET 4.5 and various custom business logic DLLs (written in a mix of C# and VB.NET). However, the site itself is still using VB.NET Web Forms. We now have done a few side projects in MVC 4 using Razor/C#, and we want to use this framework for new pages on the main corporate site going forward. What would be the easiest way to achieve this? I found this nice list of steps to integrate MVC 4 into an existing Web Forms app. The problem is that because our existing app is a VB.NET WAP, it compiles into a single DLL, and .NET allows only one language per DLL. The site is way too big for us to contemplate converting it to C# all at once (yes, I've looked at the conversion tools, and they're good, but even 99% accuracy would leave us a huge amount of cleanup work.) I thought about converting the existing WAP into a Web Site Project (WSP) which does allow mixing languages and then following the steps above, but after a few pages of Google results, I couldn't find any steps for converting a WAP to WSP. (Plenty of sites offer the reverse steps: converting a WSP to a WAP.) Another idea I had was to create a completely separate MVC project, and then somehow squish them together into the same folder structure, where they would share the bin folder but compile to separate DLL's. I have no idea if this is possible, because certain files would collide (e.g. Global.asax, web.config, etc.) Finally, I can imagine a compromise solution where we keep all the MVC stuff in its own separate application under a subfolder of the main solution. We already use our own custom session state solution, so it wouldn't be difficult to pass data between the old site to the new pages. Which of the ideas above do you think makes the most sense for us? Is there another solution that I'm missing?

    Read the article

  • Internet Explorer buggy when accessing a custom weblogic provider

    - by James
    I've created a custom Weblogic Security Authentication Provider on version 10.3 that includes a custom login module to validate users. As part of the provider, I've implemented the ServletAuthenticationFilter and added one filter. The filter acts as a common log on page for all the applications within the domain. When we access any secured URLs by entering them in the address bar, this works fine in IE and Firefox. But when we bookmark the link in IE an odd thing happens. If I click the bookmark, you will see our log on page, then after you've successfully logged into the system the basic auth page will display, even though the user is already authenticated. This never happens in Firefox, only IE. It's also intermittent. 1 time out of 5 IE will correctly redirect and not show the basic auth window. Firefox and Opera will correctly redirect everytime. We've captured the response headers and compared the success and failures, they are identical. final boolean isAuthenticated = authenticateUser(userName, password, req); // Send user on to the original URL if (isAuthenticated) { res.sendRedirect(targetURL); return; } As you can see, once the user is authenticated I do a redirect to the original URL. Is there a step I'm missing? The authenticateUser() method is taken verbatim from an example in Oracle's documents. private boolean authenticateUser(final String userName, final String password, HttpServletRequest request) { boolean results; try { ServletAuthentication.login(new CallbackHandler() { @Override public void handle(Callback[] callbacks) throws IOException, UnsupportedCallbackException { for (Callback callback : callbacks) { if (callback instanceof NameCallback) { NameCallback nameCallback = (NameCallback) callback; nameCallback.setName(userName); } if (callback instanceof PasswordCallback) { PasswordCallback passwordCallback = (PasswordCallback) callback; passwordCallback.setPassword(password.toCharArray()); } } } }, request); results = true; } catch (LoginException e) { results = false; } return results; I am asking the question here because I don't know if the issue is with the Weblogic config or the code. If this question is more suited to ServerFault please let me know and I will post there. It is odd that it works everytime in Firefox and Opera but not in Internet Explorer. I wish that not using Internet Explorer was an option but it is currently the company standard. Any help or direction would be appreciated. I have tested against IE 6 & 8 and deployed the custom provider on 3 different environments and I can still reproduce the bug.

    Read the article

  • If Then Statement Condition Being Ignored With Optimisations On

    - by Matma
    I think im going mad but can some show me what im missing, it must be some stupidly simple i just cant see the wood for the trees. BOTH side of this if then else statement are being executed? Ive tried commenting out the true side and moving the condition to a seperate variable with the same result. However if i explicitly set the condition to 1=0 or 1=1 then the if then statement is operating as i would expect. i.e. only executing one side of the equation... The only time ive seen this sort of thing is when the compiler has crashed and is no longer compiling (without visible indication that its not) but ive restarted studio with the same results, ive cleaned the solution, built and rebuilt with no change? please show me the stupid mistake im making using vs2005 if it matters. Dim dset As DataSet = New DataSet If (CboCustomers.SelectedValue IsNot Nothing) AndAlso (CboCustomers.SelectedValue <> "") Then Dim Sql As String = "Select sal.SalesOrderNo As SalesOrder,cus.CustomerName,has.SerialNo, convert(varchar,sal.Dateofpurchase,103) as Date from [dbo].[Customer_Table] as cus " & _ " inner join [dbo].[Hasp_table] as has on has.CustomerID=cus.CustomerTag " & _ " inner join [dbo].[salesorder_table] as sal On sal.Hasp_ID =has.Hasp_ID Where cus.CustomerTag = '" & CboCustomers.SelectedValue.ToString & "'" Dim dap As SqlDataAdapter = New SqlDataAdapter(Sql, FormConnection) dap.Fill(dset, "dbo.Customer_Table") DGCustomer.DataSource = dset.Tables("dbo.Customer_Table") Else Dim erm As String = "wtf" End If EDIT: i have found that this is something to do with the release config settings im using, i guesing its the optimisations bit. does anyone know of any utils/addons for vs that show if a line has been optimised out. delphi, my former language showed blue dots in the left margin to show that it was a compiled line, no dot meaning it wasnt compiled in, is there anything like that for vs? alternatively can someone explain how optimisations would affect this simple if statement causeing it to run both sides? EDIT2: using this thread as possible causes/solutions : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2135509/bug-only-occurring-when-compile-optimization-enabled. It does the same with release = optimisations on, x86, x64 and AnyCPU Goes away with optimisations off. Im using V2005 on a x64 win7 machine, if that matters. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Timer in a Windows service - not really working?

    - by marc_s
    I have a Windows NT Service in C# which basically wakes up every x seconds, checks to see if any mail notifications need to be sent out, and then goes back to sleep. It looks something like this (the Timer class is from the System.Threading namespace): public partial class MyService : ServiceBase { private Timer _timer; private int _timeIntervalBetweenRuns = 10000; public MyService() { InitializeComponent(); } protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { // when NT Service starts - create timer to wake up every 10 seconds _timer = new Timer(OnTimer, null, _timeIntervalBetweenRuns, Timeout.Infinite); } protected override void OnStop() { // on stop - stop timer by freeing it _timer = null; } private void OnTimer(object state) { // when the timer fires, e.g. when 10 seconds are over // stop the timer from firing again by freeing it _timer = null; // check for mail and sent out notifications, if required - works just fine MailHandler handler = new MailHandler(); handler.CheckAndSendMail(); // once done, re-enable the timer by creating it from scratch _timer = new Timer(OnTimer, null, _timeIntervalBetweenRuns, _timeIntervalBetweenRuns); } } Sending the mail and all works just fine, and the service also wakes up every 10 seconds (in reality, this is a setting from a config file - simplified for this example). However, at times, the service seems to wake up too quickly.... 2010-04-09 22:50:16.390 2010-04-09 22:50:26.460 2010-04-09 22:50:36.483 2010-04-09 22:50:46.500 2010-04-09 22:50:46.537 ** why again after just 37 milliseconds...... ?? 2010-04-09 22:50:56.507 Works fine to 22:50:45.500 - why does it log another entry just 37 milliseconds later?? Here, it seems it's totally out of whack.... seems to wake up twice or even three times every time 10 seconds are over.... 2010-04-09 22:51:16.527 2010-04-09 22:51:26.537 2010-04-09 22:51:26.537 2010-04-09 22:51:36.543 2010-04-09 22:51:36.543 2010-04-09 22:51:46.553 2010-04-09 22:51:46.553 2010-04-09 22:51:56.577 2010-04-09 22:51:56.577 2010-04-09 22:52:06.590 2010-04-09 22:52:06.590 2010-04-09 22:52:06.600 2010-04-09 22:52:06.600 Any ideas why?? It's not a huge problem, but I'm concerned it might start to put too much load on the server, if the interval I configure (10 seconds, 30 seconds - whatever) seems to be ignored more and more, the longer the service runs. Have I missed something very fundamental in my service code?? Am I ending up with multiple timers, or something?? I can't seem to really figure it out..... have I picked the wrong timer (System.Threading.Timer) ? There's at least 3 Timer classes in .NET - why?? :-)

    Read the article

  • jboss connection pooling

    - by Web
    I have a question related to Prepared Steatement pooling (across all connections). Here's the config file <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>JNDI-NAME</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:mysql://<server_name>/<database_name>?useServerPrepStmts=true</connection-url> <driver-class>com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</driver-class> <user-name>xxx</user-name> <password>xxxxx</password> <min-pool-size>10</min-pool-size> <max-pool-size>20</max-pool-size> <idle-timeout-minutes>20</idle-timeout-minutes> <exception-sorter-class-name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.MySQLExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <valid-connection-checker-class-name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.MySQLValidConnectionChecker</valid-connection-checker-class-name> <background-validation>true</background-validation> <background-validation-minutes>5</background-validation-minutes> <prepared-statement-cache-size>100</prepared-statement-cache-size> <share-prepared-statements>true</share-prepared-statements> <!-- sql to call when connection is created <new-connection-sql>some arbitrary sql</new-connection-sql> --> <!-- sql to call on an existing pooled connection when it is obtained from pool - MySQLValidConnectionChecker is preferred for newer drivers <check-valid-connection-sql>some arbitrary sql</check-valid-connection-sql> --> <!-- corresponding type-mapping in the standardjbosscmp-jdbc.xml --> <metadata> <type-mapping>mySQL</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> It seems that this line: <background-validation-minutes>5</background-validation-minutes> doesn't cause any problems with Prepared Statements, but: <idle-timeout-minutes>20</idle-timeout-minutes> causes that all connections are removed and re-created if there was no traffic for the last 20 minutes. Because of that existing Prepared Statements are removed from the pool of cached Prepared Statements. How to overcome this issue? I have to use idle-timeout-minutes because MySQL server closes the connection after 8h

    Read the article

  • Tools to Help out with

    - by peter
    I am developing a C# .NET application. In the app.config file I add trace logging as shown, <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <configuration> <system.diagnostics> <trace autoflush="true" /> <sources> <source name="System.Net.Sockets" maxdatasize="1024"> <listeners> <add name="MyTraceFile"/> </listeners> </source> </sources> <sharedListeners> <add name="MyTraceFile" type="System.Diagnostics.TextWriterTraceListener" initializeData="System.Net.trace.log" /> </sharedListeners> <switches> <add name="System.Net" value="Verbose" /> </switches> </system.diagnostics> </configuration> Are there any good tools around to analyse the log file that is output? The output looks like this, System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] Data from Socket#8764489::Send DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 00000000 : 4D 49 4D 45 2D 56 65 72-73 69 6F 6E 3A 20 31 2E : MIME-Version: 1. DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 00000060 : 65 3A 20 37 20 41 70 72-20 32 30 31 30 20 31 35 : e: 7 Apr 2010 15 DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 00000070 : 3A 32 32 3A 34 30 20 2B-31 32 30 30 0D 0A 53 75 : :22:40 +1200..Su DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 00000080 : 62 6A 65 63 74 3A 20 5B-45 72 72 6F 72 5D 20 45 : bject: [Error] E DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 00000090 : 78 63 65 70 74 69 6F 6E-20 69 6E 20 53 79 6E 63 : xception in Sync DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 000000A0 : 53 65 72 76 69 63 65 20-28 32 30 30 38 2E 30 2E : Service (2008.0. DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 000000B0 : 33 30 34 2E 31 32 33 34-32 29 0D 0A 43 6F 6E 74 : 304.12342)..Cont DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z Is there anything that can take the output shown above (my output is a text file 100mb in size), group together packets, and help out with finding particular issues I would like to hear about it. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why does Module::Build's testcover gives me "use of uninitialized value" warnings?

    - by Kurt W. Leucht
    I'm kinda new to Module::Build, so maybe I did something wrong. Am I the only one who gets warnings when I change my dispatch from "test" to "testcover"? Is there a bug in Devel::Cover? Is there a bug in Module::Build? I probably just did something wrong. I'm using ActiveState Perl v5.10.0 with Module::Build version 0.31012 and Devel::Cover 0.64 and Eclipse 3.4.1 with EPIC 0.6.34 for my IDE. UPDATE: I upgraded to Module::Build 0.34 and the warnings are still output. *UPDATE: Looks like a bug in B::Deparse. Hope it gets fixed someday.* Here's my unit test build file: use strict; use warnings; use Module::Build; my $build = Module::Build->resume ( properties => { config_dir => '_build', }, ); $build->dispatch('test'); When I run this unit test build file, I get the following output: t\MyLib1.......ok t\MyLib2.......ok t\MyLib3.......ok All tests successful. Files=3, Tests=24, 0 wallclock secs ( 0.00 cusr + 0.00 csys = 0.00 CPU) But when I change the dispatch line to 'testcover' I get the following output which always includes a bunch of "use of uninitialized value in bitwise and" warning messages: Deleting database D:/Documents and Settings/<username>/My Documents/<SNIP>/cover_db t\MyLib1.......ok Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. t\MyLib2.......ok Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. t\MyLib3.......ok Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. All tests successful. Files=3, Tests=24, 0 wallclock secs ( 0.00 cusr + 0.00 csys = 0.00 CPU) Reading database from D:/Documents and Settings/<username>/My Documents/<SNIP>/cover_db ---------------------------- ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ File stmt bran cond sub pod time total ---------------------------- ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ .../lib/ActivePerl/Config.pm 0.0 0.0 0.0 0.0 0.0 n/a 0.0 ...l/lib/ActiveState/Path.pm 0.0 0.0 0.0 0.0 100.0 n/a 4.8 <SNIP> blib/lib/<SNIP>/MyLib2.pm 100.0 90.0 n/a 100.0 100.0 0.0 98.5 blib/lib/<SNIP>/MyLib3.pm 100.0 90.9 100.0 100.0 100.0 0.6 98.0 Total 14.4 6.7 3.8 18.3 20.0 100.0 11.6 ---------------------------- ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ Writing HTML output to D:/Documents and Settings/<username>/My Documents/<SNIP>/cover_db/coverage.html ... done.

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 4 CTP 5 POCO - Many-to-many configuration, insertion, and update?

    - by Saxman
    I really need someone to help me to fully understand how to do many-to-many relationship with Entity Framework 4 CTP 5, POCO. I need to understand 3 concepts: How to config my model to indicates some tables are many-to-many. How to properly do insert. How to properly do update. Here are my current models: public class MusicSheet { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string Title { get; set; } public string Key { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Author> Authors { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Tag> Tags { get; set; } } public class Author { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Bio { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<MusicSheet> MusicSheets { get; set; } } public class Tag { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string TagName { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<MusicSheet> MusicSheets { get; set; } } As you can see, the MusicSheet can have many Authors or Tags, and an Author or Tag can have multiple MusicSheets. Again, my questions are: What to do on the EntityTypeConfiguration to set the relationship between them as well as mapping to an table/object that associates with the many-to-many relationship. How to insert a new music sheets (where it might have multiple authors or multiple tags). How to update a music sheet. For example, I might set TagA, TagB to MusicSheet1, but later I need to change the tags to TagA and TagC. It seems like I need to first check to see if the tags already exists, if not, insert the new tag and then associate it with the music sheet (so that I doesn't re-insert TagA?). Or this is something already handled by the framework? Thank you very much. I really hope to fully understand it rather than just doing it without fully understand what's going on. Especially on #3.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >