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Beyond core java

- by Paul

Coming to the end of the first year of my CS degree, we've done some Java but just the core stuff; manipulating strings and arrays, inheritance, implementing logic etc. I visit this website daily and I see so much stuff that is beyond me; using frameworks; managing databases etc. It makes me feel like I've just learned the syntax of Java, and there is so much more to do with it. My question is though, how do I get there? I don't think I'm advanced enough to join an open source project, which seems to be suggested often (though I'd love to) and I've looked at other similar questions on here (like this one) but even then I don't think that'd work for me.. firstly, could somebody try give me some commonly used frameworks etc and how and what they are used for? Where would be a good place to start? How did you get started in using the things you do? Or perhaps you think I'm going down the wrong route. Should I learn another language, and just wait until the moment occurs where it's clear what I should be doing? I'm only in the first year of my degree, so far we've lightly covered Haskell and Java, and I've done a little HTML and CSS in my free time. I know that next year we cover python, so perhaps I should just wait till then and see if I prefer that? I feel like I also risk learning something in depth and then never using it... I suppose I'm also asking for personal experiences; was there a point where you felt you'd exceeded the basic grasp of a language (does not necessarily have to be Java related) and reach a more "advanced" level? I guess I'll put subjective tag on this, but really I just want to know how to get beyond the basic understanding of a language.

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Getting the highlighted text inside selected element only.

- by ashays

My goal is to be able to get the highlighted text within a document, but only if that text is within a given section, and then apply a certain style to that selected text after clicking a div tag. I'll explain what I mean: So, having looked at window.getSelection() and document.selection.createRange().text, I attempted to use elmnt.getSelection() or elmnt.selection.createRange().text for some HTML element, elmnt. However, it doesn't seem to work, so that idea seems pretty null. This means I can't use this idea to determine the text that is highlighted within a given location. In case this doesn't make sense, essentially, I want html code that looks like this: <body> <div id="content">Stuff here will not be effected</div> <div id="highlightable">Stuff here can be effected when highlighted</div> <div id="morecontent">Stuff here will also not be effected</div> </body> So that whenever I've highlighted text, clicking on a specified div will apply the proper CSS. Now, on to the div tags. Basically, here's what I've got on that: $('.colorpicker').click( function(e) { console.log(getSelectedText()); } Eventually, all I want this to highlight the selected text and have the div tag change the color of the selected text to that of the respective div tag that I've selected. Neither of these seems to be working right now, and my only guess for the reason of the div tag is that it unhighlights whatever I've got selected whenever I click on the div tag. Fallbacks: If there is more than one time that 'abc' is found on the page and I highlight to color 'abc', I would like that only that copy of 'abc' be highlighted. I know this is a lot in one question, but even if I could get a little head start on this idea, my next personal project would be going a lot more smoothly. Thanks. :)

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How to generate an ear file from a maven-archetype-webapp artifact?

- by Mike

I currently have a project built with maven-archetype-webapp artifact. The default packaging for this project is war. Is it possible for me to insert the maven-ear-plugin in this webapp pom.xml generate an ear file that contains this project war? I tried that, but the war file doesn't get embedded in the generated ear file. It has everything except the war file. I read many Maven related articles, and perhaps I could use maven-archetype-j2ee-simple artifact. However, I'm reluctant to this use for 2 reasons:- This artifact handles ejbs and all the extra features that I don't use. It makes my project looks bloated. Second, it seems like it requires me to install the web module into the repository first before I can create the ear file. Is this the preferred way to create an ear file? How do I create an ear file that contains the war file using maven-ear-plugin from my webapp's pom.xml? If this way is not possible, what's the preferred way? I'm sorry if my questions sound a little novice, I realized I have whole lot more to learn about Maven. Thanks much.

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GitHub solution for personal repo

- by Luke Maurer

So I've got my private SVN repo on my home server, and it has maybe 30 different modules thrown together in it, ranging from abortive throw-away larks to a few endeavors that might actually go somewhere someday. But a recent filesystem failure (BTW, never ever EVER use XFS without a battery-backed hardware RAID) has me spooked and thinking of using a DVCS for all that. I've also just had quite the swig of the Git koolaid, and I've been working with GitHub of late, so that's where I'm looking right now. Of course, it would be silly to shell out major cash for a separate private Git repo for every little project, and I don't want to have to be selective about what I throw up there (I love all my children :-D ), so I'll have to be somewhat creative about this. I can happily use SSH to my home box to use Git the way I've been using SVN, and I'm thinking from there I could amalgamate everything into, say, a big project with 30 submodules, which I then push to GitHub. What'd be a sane way to set this up? Does using submodules sound feasible? How do I sync it all to my private GitHub repo? Cron job? Git hook? I'd love to hear it if anyone's done something similar. I'm not really married to Git or GitHub, so a sufficiently compelling feature of another solution might sway me. But if your answer does involve a different system (especially a different VCS), be advised it'll be a tougher sell :-)

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Setting attributes of a class during construction from **kwargs

- by Carson Myers

Python noob here, Currently I'm working with SQLAlchemy, and I have this: from __init__ import Base from sqlalchemy.schema import Column, ForeignKey from sqlalchemy.types import Integer, String from sqlalchemy.orm import relationship class User(Base): __tablename__ = "users" id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) username = Column(String, unique=True) email = Column(String) password = Column(String) salt = Column(String) openids = relationship("OpenID", backref="users") User.__table__.create(checkfirst=True) #snip definition of OpenID class def create(**kwargs): user = User() if "username" in kwargs.keys(): user.username = kwargs['username'] if "email" in kwargs.keys(): user.username = kwargs['email'] if "password" in kwargs.keys(): user.password = kwargs['password'] return user This is in /db/users.py, so it would be used like: from db import users new_user = users.create(username="Carson", password="1234") new_user.email = "[email protected]" users.add(new_user) #this function obviously not defined yet but the code in create() is a little stupid, and I'm wondering if there's a better way to do it that doesn't require an if ladder, and that will fail if any keys are added that aren't in the User object already. Like: for attribute in kwargs.keys(): if attribute in User: user.__attribute__[attribute] = kwargs[attribute] else: raise Exception("blah") that way I could put this in its own function (unless one hopefully already exists?) So I wouldn't have to do the if ladder again and again, and so I could change the table structure without modifying this code. Any suggestions?

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Strange Problem with Webservice and IIS

- by Rene

Hello there, I have a Problem which confuses me a little bit, resp. where I don't have any Idea about what it could be. The System I'm using is Windows Vista, IIS 7.0, VS2008, Windows Software Factory, Entity Framework, WCF. The Binding for all Webservices is wshttpbinding. I'm using a Webservice hosted in IIS. This Webservice uses/calls another Webservice (also installed in the IIS). If I use a client calling the first Webservice (which calls the second Webservice) it works fine for about 4-10 Times. And then (it is repeatable to get this Problem, but sometimes it happens after 4, sometimes after 10 Time, but it always will happen), the Service and the IIS gets stuck. Stuck means, that this Webservice isn't callable anymore and generates an timeout after 1 minute. Even increasing Timeout doesn't change anything. If i try to restart the IIS I get an timeout error. So the IIS is also "stuck" (it is not really stuck, but I can't restart it). Only if I kill the w3wp.exe IIS is restartable and the Webservice will work again (until i again call this service several times). The logfiles (i'm no expert in things like logging or where to find/enable such logs, so to say : i'm a newbie) like http-logging, Event Viewer or WCF-Message Logging don't show any hints upon the source of the problem. I don't have this problem when I'm using a Webservice which doesn't call another Service. Calling a Webservice is done by Service Reference (I'm using no Proxy-Classes), but I think this should be no Problem. I have no idea of what is happening, nor how to solve this Problem. Regards Rene

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Capistrano fails for multiple host deployments

- by morris082

I be at a loss here, and after scouring the seas (read: internet) for solutions I am left with none other than to hit up the stack. any help appreciated. I have capistrano running locally for deployments onto several different environments. (I'm on windows 7, fwiw). All was well until I needed to deploy to multiple :app servers during a single deployment. Usually I'm prompted for my ssh passphrase once when I call 'cap deploy'. I have ssh-agent running (git never pesters for my pass) but despite this Capistrano has always bugged me once each deployment. Regardless, it always worked when deploying to ONE host. Now, when I attempt to deploy to multiple servers at once, it asks for my passphrase what appears to be multiple times: (ips removed by ME) servers: ["redacted", "redacted"]<br /> Enter passphrase for ~/.ssh/id_rsa: Enter passphrase for ~/.ssh/id_rsa: So with the above I enter my passphrase but this doesn't work. It waits as little while, then spits out this error: connection failed for: <one of the server ips> (NoMethodError: undefined method `overwrite' for nil:NilClass) And that's the end of that. I can "passwordless" ssh into the servers I'm deploying on just fine. I'm pretty certain the ssh-agent is running since I can hit Git w/out entering my passphrase every time Using 'forward_agent' setting in cap deploy did not work. This is my role: role :app, "ip 1 removed", "ip 2 removed" If i set default_run_options[:max_hosts] = 1, it works OK but it asks for my passphrase for every single connection to each host I'm deploying to.. which ends up being a lot. Essentially I'm looking for any of the below (but not limited to): - "You're never going to fix that on windows" - "This is how you get REAL passwordless deployment in capistrano" - "Have you overlooked this setting/feature?" - "I have a rock that can fix anything, you may borrow it" Thanks!

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running .net application over a network

- by Marlon

Hello, I need some advice please. I need to enable a .Net application to run over a network share, the problem is that this will be on clients network shares and so the path will not be identical. I've had a quick look at ClickOnce and the publish options in VS2008 but it wants a specific network share location - and I'm assuming this location gets stored somewhere when it does its thing. At the moment the job is being done with a old VB6 application and so gets around all these security issues, but that application is poorly written and almost impossible to maintain so it really needs to go. Is it possible for the domain controller to be set up to allow this specific .Net application to execute? Any other options would be welcomed as I want to get this little application is very business critical. I aught to say that the client networks are schools, and thus are often quite locked down as are the client machines, so manually adding exceptions to each client machine is a big no no. Marlon --Edit-- Apologies, I forgot to mention we're restricted to .net 2.0 for the moment, we are planning to upgrade this to 4.0 but that won't be immediate.

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Python socket error on UDP data receive. (10054)

- by Charles

I currently have a problem using UDP and Python socket module. We have a server and clients. The problem occurs when we send data to a user. It's possible that user may have closed their connection to the server through a client crash, disconnect by ISP, or some other improper method. As such, it is possible to send data to a closed socket. Of course with UDP you can't tell if the data really reached or if it's closed, as it doesn't care (atleast, it doesn't bring up an exception). However, if you send data and it is closed off, you get data back somehow (???), which ends up giving you a socket error on sock.recvfrom. [Errno 10054] An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host. Almost seems like an automatic response from the connection. Although this is fine, and can be handled by a try: except: block (even if it lowers performance of the server a little bit). The problem is, I can't tell who this is coming from or what socket is closed. Is there anyway to find out 'who' (ip, socket #) sent this? It would be great as I could instantly just disconnect them and remove them from the data. Any suggestions? Thanks.

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Drag/drop problem (draggable in position:relative parent)

- by MackDaddy

Here's the scenario, I'm using prototype and scriptaculous, but I believe jquery would have the same issue. I have a list draggable images in a relatively positioned div. The problem is I can't drag the images out of the parent div... well... you can, they're just not visible. If you remove the position:relative on the parent div, it works just fine, I can drag items out of the div perfectly. However because of this little IE7 bug: http://snook.ca/archives/html%5Fand%5Fcss/position%5Frelative%5Foverflow%5Fie/ that position:relative is required. IS there another work around to this bug that does not require setting position? I've tried playing with z-index and everything I can think of to no avail. Here's the CSS for the box: #products{ width: 680px; height: 400px; border: 1px solid gray; /*background-color: #66FF00;*/ overflow-y: scroll; overflow-x: hidden; font-family:"Helvetica Neue","Helvetica"; font-size:12px; font-weight:bold; position: relative; } If you would like to see this bug in action, you can visit it here: http://twinmed-dev.com/template%5Fadd.php. Try searching for an item like "gloves" then adding it to the cart below. Thanks for any help.

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Double Click and Resize on an Ipad

- by Luke

Thanks to the great post at OranLooney.com I was able to get a java/icefaces web-app to resize nicely on the ipad, however the code provided for double click doesn't seem to work without further customization. Has anybody had any experience with getting this to work? there seems to be little documentation on google. the donnothing(); in the window.orientationchange is there as it seems sometimes without it the resize will (sometimes) not work // a function to parse the user agent string; useful for // detecting lots of browsers, not just the iPad. function checkUserAgent(vs) { var pattern = new RegExp(vs, 'i'); return !!pattern.test(navigator.userAgent); } if ( checkUserAgent('iPad') ) { // iPad specific stuff here window.onorientationchange = function() { donnothing(); }; document.body.addEventListener('touchstart', function(e) { touch = e.touches[0]; if ( !touch ) return; var me = document.createEvent("MouseEvents"); me.initMouseEvent('dblclick', true, true, window, 1, // detail / mouse click count touch.screenX, touch.screenY, touch.clientX, touch.clientY, false, false, false, false, // key modifiers 0, // primary mouse button null // related target not used for dblclick event ); touch.target.dispatchEvent(me); }); }

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android & libgdx - disable blurry images rendering

- by android developer

i'm trying out libgdx as an opengl wrapper , and i have some issues with its graphical rendering : for some reason , all images (textures) on android device look a little blurred using libgdx . this also includes text (font) . however, for normal images , even though i show the entire image , i expect it to look as sharp as i see it on a computer , especially if i have such a good screen on the device (it's galaxy nexus) . i've tried to set the anti-aliasing off , by using the next code : final AndroidApplicationConfiguration androidApplicationConfiguration=new AndroidApplicationConfiguration(); androidApplicationConfiguration.numSamples=0; //tried the value of 1 too. ... i've also tried to set the scaling method to various methods , but with no luck. example: texture.setFilter(TextureFilter.Nearest,TextureFilter.Nearest); as a test , i've found a sharp image that is exactly the same as the seen resolution on the device (720x1184 for galaxy nexus , because of the buttons bar) , and i've put it to be on the background of the libgdx app . of course , i had to add extra blank space in order for the texute to be loaded , so the final size of the image (which will include content and empty space) is still a power of 2 for both width and height (1024x2048 in my case) . on the desktop app , it look ok . on the device , it looked blurred. a weird thing that i've noticed is that when i change the device's orientation (horizontal <= vertical) , for the very short time before the rotating animation starts , i see both the image and the text very well . can anyone please help me?

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Optimizing C# code in MVC controller

- by cc0

I am making a number of distinct controllers, one relating to each stored procedure in a database. These are only used to read data and making them available in JSON format for javascripts. My code so far looks like this, and I'm wondering if I have missed any opportunities to re-use code, maybe make some help classes. I have way too little experience doing OOP, so any help and suggestions here would be really appreciated. Here is my generalized code so far (tested and works); using System; using System.Configuration; using System.Web.Mvc; using System.Data; using System.Text; using System.Data.SqlClient; using Prototype.Models; namespace Prototype.Controllers { public class NameOfStoredProcedureController : Controller { char[] lastComma = { ',' }; String oldChar = "\""; String newChar = """; StringBuilder json = new StringBuilder(); private String strCon = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["SomeConnectionString"].ConnectionString; private SqlConnection con; public StoredProcedureController() { con = new SqlConnection(strCon); } public string do_NameOfStoredProcedure(int parameter) { con.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("NameOfStoredProcedure", con)) { cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@parameter", parameter); using (SqlDataReader reader = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { while (reader.Read()) { json.AppendFormat("[{0},\"{1}\"],", reader["column1"], reader["column2"]); } } con.Close(); } if (json.Length.ToString().Equals("0")) { return "[]"; } else { return "[" + json.ToString().TrimEnd(lastComma) + "]"; } } //http://host.com/NameOfStoredProcedure?parameter=value public ActionResult Index(int parameter) { return new ContentResult { ContentType = "application/json", Content = do_NameOfStoredProcedure(parameter) }; } } }

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ldap_bind_s returning LDAP_SUCCESS with wrong credentials

- by rezna

Hi guys, I have this little problem. I want to authenticate user against LDAP (Windows Active Directory), everything works OK, but the combination (good user, good password, wrong domain). LDAP* ldap = ldap_init(L"myserver", 389); ULONG ldap_version = 3; ULONG ret = LDAP_SUCCESS; ret = ldap_set_option(ldap, LDAP_OPT_PROTOCOL_VERSION, (void*)&ldap_version); ret = ldap_connect(ldap, NULL); SEC_WINNT_AUTH_IDENTITY ai; ai.Domain = (unsigned short*)BAD_DOMAIN; ai.DomainLength = wcslen(BAD_DOMAIN); ai.User = (unsigned short*)OK_USER; ai.UserLength = wcslen(OK_USER); ai.Password = (unsigned short*)OK_PASS; ai.PasswordLength = wcslen(OK_PASS); ai.Flags = SEC_WINNT_AUTH_IDENTITY_UNICODE; ret = ldap_bind_s(ldap, NULL, (PWCHAR) &ai, LDAP_AUTH_NTLM); // !!! HERE !!! ret = ldap_unbind_s(ldap); On the line marke '!!! HERE !!!' I'd expect 0x31 or any other error returned. Instead I get LDAP_SUCCESS :( Any suggestions? Thx, Milan

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How to nest joins with CakePHP?

- by Daren Thomas

I'm trying to behave. So, instead of using following SQL syntax: select * from tableA INNER JOIN tableB on tableA.id = tableB.tableA_id LEFT OUTER JOIN ( tableC INNER JOIN tableD on tableC.tableD_id = tableD.id) on tableC.tableA_id = tableA.id I'd like to use the CakePHP model->find(). This will let me use the Paginator too, since that will not work with custom SQL queries as far as I understand (unless you hardcode one single pagination query to the model which seems a little inflexible to me). What I've tried so far: /* inside tableA_controller.php, inside an action, e.g. "view" */ $this->paginate['recursive'] = -1; # suppress model associations for now $this->paginate['joins'] = array( array( 'table' => 'tableB', 'alias' => 'TableB', 'type' => 'inner', 'conditions' => 'TableB.tableA_id = TableA.id', ), array( 'table' => 'tableC', 'alias' => 'TableC', 'type' => 'left', 'conditions' => 'TableC.tableA_id = TableA.id', 'joins' = array( # this would be the obvious way to do it, but doesn't work array( 'table' => 'tableD', 'alias' => 'TableD', 'type' => 'inner', 'conditions' => 'TableC.tableD_id = TableD.id' ) ) ) ) That is, nesting the joins into the structure. But that doesn't work (CakePHP just ignores the nested 'joins' element which was kind of what I expected, but sad. I have seen hints in comments on how to do subqueries (in the where clause) using a statement builder. Can a similar trick be used here?

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Is there a Post-Build Extensible Installer System

- by Will Hughes

We have a product that we need to create an installer for. It has a number of components which can be installed or not as the situation demands. When we ship our installation package, we want to be able to have that include any number of additional components to be installed. For example, Foo Manager Pro contains: Foo Manager Console Foo Manager Database Foo Manager Services That might be shipped as something like: FooManagerInstaller.exe FMPConsole.pkg FMPDatabase.pkg FMPServices.pkg A package might consist of something like: Manifest Files to be deployed Additional scripts to be executed (eg find file foo.config, do some XML Manipulation) If a client wants to add custom skins and a series of plugins as part of the install, they create their own packages: FMPConsoleSkins.pkg ClientWebservices.pkg If that client then ships it to someone else who wants to add more customisation - they can do so in the same way. We can build this from scratch - but wanted to check if this sort of install system already exists. We already have a set of NAnt scripts which do something not too far from this. But they're difficult to maintain, and quite complex. They don't offer any of the 'niceties' that we'd expect from an installer (like tracking deployed files and removing them if the install fails). We've been looking a little bit at NSIS and building MSIs using WiX, but it's not clear that these can offer us the capability for downstream to provide additional packages, without inventing our own installer language.

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Weird .net 4.0 exception when running unit tests

- by vdh_ant

Hi guys I am receiving the following exception when trying to run my unit tests using .net 4.0 under VS2010 with moq 3.1. Attempt by security transparent method 'SPPD.Backend.DataAccess.Test.Specs_for_Core.When_using_base.Can_create_mapper()' to access security critical method 'Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.UnitTesting.Assert.IsNotNull(System.Object)' failed. Assembly 'SPPD.Backend.DataAccess.Test, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' is marked with the AllowPartiallyTrustedCallersAttribute, and uses the level 2 security transparency model. Level 2 transparency causes all methods in AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers assemblies to become security transparent by default, which may be the cause of this exception. The test I am running is really straight forward and looks something like the following: [TestMethod] public void Can_create_mapper() { this.SetupTest(); var mockMapper = new Moq.Mock<IMapper>().Object; this._Resolver.Setup(x => x.Resolve<IMapper>()).Returns(mockMapper).Verifiable(); var testBaseDa = new TestBaseDa(); var result = testBaseDa.TestCreateMapper<IMapper>(); Assert.IsNotNull(result); //<<< THROWS EXCEPTION HERE Assert.AreSame(mockMapper, result); this._Resolver.Verify(); } I have no idea what this means and I have been looking around and have found very little on the topic. The closest reference I have found is this http://dotnetzip.codeplex.com/Thread/View.aspx?ThreadId=80274 but its not very clear on what they did to fix it... Anyone got any ideas?

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What does 'postMessage()' do when called on an object tag?

- by Stephano

I was recently searching for a way to call the print function on a PDF I was displaying in adobe air. I solved this problem with a little help from this fellow, and by calling postMessage on my PDF like so: //this is the HTML I use to view my PDF <object id="PDFObj" data="test.pdf" type="application/pdf"/> ... //this actionscript lives in my air app var pdfObj:Object = htmlLoader.window.document.getElementById("PDFObj"); pdfObj.postMessage([message]); I've tried this in JavaScript as well, just to be sure it wasn't adobe sneaking in and helping me out... var obj = document.getElementById("PDFObj"); obj.postMessage([message]); Works well in JavaScript and in ActionScript. I looked up what the MDC had to say about postMessage, but all I found was window.postMessage. Now, the code works like a charm, and postMessage magically sends my message to my PDF's embedded JavaScript. However, I'm still not sure how I'm doing this. Any ideas?

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If the address of a function can not be resolved during deduction, is it SFINAE or a compiler error?

- by Faisal Vali

In C++0x SFINAE rules have been simplified such that any invalid expression or type that occurs in the "immediate context" of deduction does not result in a compiler error but rather in deduction failure (SFINAE). My question is this: If I take the address of an overloaded function and it can not be resolved, is that failure in the immediate-context of deduction? (i.e is it a hard error or SFINAE if it can not be resolved)? Here is some sample code: struct X { // template T* foo(T,T); // lets not over-complicate things for now void foo(char); void foo(int); }; template struct S { template struct size_map { typedef int type; }; // here is where we take the address of a possibly overloaded function template void f(T, typename size_map::type* = 0); void f(...); }; int main() { S s; // should this cause a compiler error because 'auto T = &X::foo' is invalid? s.f(3); } Gcc 4.5 states that this is a compiler error, and clang spits out an assertion violation. Here are some more related questions of interest: Does the FCD-C++0x clearly specify what should happen here? Are the compilers wrong in rejecting this code? Does the "immediate-context" of deduction need to be defined a little better? Thanks!

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How can I implement a volume meter for a song currently playing? (iPhone OS 3.1.3)

- by Adam

Hi i'm very new to core audio and I just would like some help in coding up a little volume meter for whatever's being outputted through headphones or built-in speaker. Like a dB meter. I have the following code, and have been trying to go through the apple source project "SpeakHere", but it's a nightmare trying to go through all that, without knowing how it works first... Could anyone shed some light? Here's the code I have so far... (void)displayWaveForm { while (musicIsPlaying == YES { NSLog(@"%f",sizeof(AudioQueueLevelMeterState)); } } (IBAction)playMusic { if (musicIsPlaying == NO) { NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@/track7.wav",[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath]]]; NSError *error; music = [[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url error:&error]; music.numberOfLoops = -1; music.volume = 0.5; [music play]; musicIsPlaying = YES; [self displayWaveForm]; } else { [music pause]; musicIsPlaying = NO; } }

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Reuse, Rewrite, or Refactor?

- by Jon Purdy

At work I inherited development of a PHP-based Web site after the consultant who originally produced it bailed out and left without a trace. Literally half of the code is ripped from online tutorials, and there are thousands of lines of cruft that, being incomplete, do precious little. Hardly any of it actually works. I've been trying to pull out the usable components, such as the layout (cleverly intermixed with code), session management (delicately seasoned with unescaped, unvalidated SQL queries), and a few other things, but it's very difficult to force all of this junk into place. Further, I don't speak idiomatic PHP, being more of a Perl user, and I'm supposed to be on this project principally for maintenance, so rewriting everything seems like it would take just as long as wrestling the existing monster back into place. As an aside, I have literally never seen anything as badly written as this. Welcome me to the world of working with other people's code, I guess, but I do hope it's not this common in the real world to have such gems as these: // WHY IS THIS NOT WORKING // I know this is bad but were going for working stuff right now... // This is a PHP code outputing Javascript code outputting HTML...do not go further // Not userful I'm looking for the best advice I can get here. What would you do if you were in my position?

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What is a Windows scripting language that: does not rely on .NET and offers the most OOP support and

- by jJack

What is a Windows scripting language that: does not rely on .NET and offers the most OOP support and has simplest deployment? It doesn't necessarily need to be a scripting language; It can be in the form of a compiled executable, however it needs to be self contained--only ONE file, no DLL's and it cannot be declared to "include" other files. I cannot rely on the user having any .NET installed and it needs to be able to run on Windows 7 64 bit. By "most OOP support", I basically mean anything that has better OOP support than VBScript. A little context: Everything I have done thus far is in VBScript and writes a bunch of data into an .html file, which in the end is to be viewed by Internet Explorer. It also zips up a bunch of directories and files. It heavily relies on accessing the registry, file-system, and WMI (I can probably do without accessing WMI though, as long as I have good registry access). I can bring myself to code in any language so long as it meets me ridonkulous requirements stated above. I look forward to some good answers from those more experienced than I.

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Sending items in a LINQ sequence to a method that returns void

- by generalt

Hello all. Often while I'm dealing with LINQ sequences, I want to send each item to a method returning void, avoiding a foreach loop. However, I haven't found an elegant way to do this. Today, I wrote the following code: private StreamWriter _sw; private void streamToFile(List<ErrorEntry> errors) { if (_sw == null) { _sw = new StreamWriter(Path.Combine (Path.GetDirectoryName(_targetDatabasePath), "errors.txt")); } Func<ErrorEntry, bool> writeSelector = (e) => { _sw.WriteLine(getTabDelimititedLine(e)); return true; }; errors.Select(writeSelector); _sw.Flush(); } As you can see, I write a lambda function that just returns true, and I realize that the Select method will return a sequence of booleans- I'll just ignore that sequence. However, this seems a little bit noobish and jank. Is there any elegant way to do this? Or am I just misapplying LINQ? Thanks.

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javascript plugin - singleton pattern?

- by Adam Kiss

intro Hello, I'm trying to develop some plugin or/*and* object in javascript, which will control some properties over some object. It will also use jQuery, to ease development. idea This is in pseudocode to give you an idea, since I can't really describe it in english with the right words, it's impossible to go and use google to find out what I want to use (and learn). I will have plugin (maybe object?) with some variables and methods: plugin hideshow(startupconfig){ var c, //collection add: function(what){ c += what; }, do: function(){ c.show().hide().stop(); //example code } } and I will use it this way (or sort-of): var p = new Plugin(); p .add($('p#simple')) .add($('p#simple2')) .do(); note I'm not really looking for jQuery plugin tutorials - it's more like usage of singleton pattern in document in javascript, jQuery is mentione only because it will be used to modify dom and simplify selectors, jQuery plugin maybe just for that one little function add. I'm looking for something, that will sit on top of my document and call functions from itselft based on timer, or user actions, or whatever. problems I don't really know where to start with construction of this object/plugin I'm not really sure how to maintain one variable, which is collection of jQuery objects (something like $('#simple, #simple2');) I would maybe like to extedn jQuery with $.fn.addToPlugin to use chaining of objects, but that should be simple (really just each( p.add($(this)); )) I hope I make any sense, ideas, links or advices appreciated.

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ruby comma operator and step question

- by ryan_m

so, i'm trying to learn ruby by doing some project euler questions, and i've run into a couple things i can't explain, and the comma ?operator? is in the middle of both. i haven't been able to find good documentation for this, maybe i'm just not using the google as I should, but good ruby documentation seems a little sparse . . . 1: how do you describe how this is working? the first snippet is the ruby code i don't understand, the second is the code i wrote that does the same thing only after painstakingly tracing the first: #what is this doing? cur, nxt = nxt, cur + nxt #this, apparently, but how to describe the above? nxt = cur + nxt cur = nxt - cur 2: in the following example, how do you describe what the line with 'step' is doing? from what i can gather, the step command works like (range).step(step_size), but this seems to be doing (starting_point).step(ending_point, step_size). Am i right with this assumption? where do i find good doc of this? #/usr/share/doc/ruby1.9.1-examples/examples/sieve.rb # sieve of Eratosthenes max = Integer(ARGV.shift || 100) sieve = [] for i in 2 .. max sieve[i] = i end for i in 2 .. Math.sqrt(max) next unless sieve[i] (i*i).step(max, i) do |j| sieve[j] = nil end end puts sieve.compact.join(", ")

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