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  • General ORM design question

    - by Calvin
    Suppose you have 2 classes, Person and Rabbit. A person can do a number of things to a rabbit, s/he can either feed it, buy it and become its owner, or give it away. A rabbit can have none or at most 1 owner at a time. And if it is not fed for a while, it may die. Class Person { Void Feed(Rabbit r); Void Buy(Rabbit r); Void Giveaway(Person p, Rabbit r); Rabbit[] rabbits; } Class Rabbit { Bool IsAlive(); Person pwner; } There are a couple of observations from the domain model: Person and Rabbit can have references to each other Any actions on 1 object can also change the state of the other object Even if no explicit actions are invoked, there can still be a change of state in the objects (e.g. Rabbit can be starved to death, and that causes it to be removed from the Person.rabbits array) As DDD is concerned, I think the correct approach is to synchronize all calls that may change the states in the domain model. For instance, if a Person buys a Rabbit, s/he would need to acquire a lock in Person to make a change to the rabbits array AND also another lock in Rabbit to change its owner before releasing the first one. This would prevent a race condition where 2 Persons claim to be the owner of the little Rabbit. The other approach is to let the database to handle all these synchronizations. Who makes the first call wins, but then the DB needs to have some kind of business logics to figure out if it is a valid transaction (e.g. if a Rabbit already has an owner, it cannot change its owner unless the Person gives it away). There are both pros/cons in either approach, and I’d expect the “best” solution would be somewhere in-between. How would you do it in real life? What’s your take and experience? Also, is it a valid concern that there can be another race condition the domain model has committed its change but before it is fully committed in the database? And for the 3rd observation (i.e. state change due to time factor). How will you do it?

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  • How come my South migrations doesn't work for Django?

    - by TIMEX
    First, I create my database. create database mydb; I add "south" to installed Apps. Then, I go to this tutorial: http://south.aeracode.org/docs/tutorial/part1.html The tutorial tells me to do this: $ py manage.py schemamigration wall --initial >>> Created 0001_initial.py. You can now apply this migration with: ./manage.py migrate wall Great, now I migrate. $ py manage.py migrate wall But it gives me this error... django.db.utils.DatabaseError: (1146, "Table 'fable.south_migrationhistory' doesn't exist") So I use Google (which never works. hence my 870 questions asked on Stackoverflow), and I get this page: http://groups.google.com/group/south-users/browse_thread/thread/d4c83f821dd2ca1c Alright, so I follow that instructions >> Drop database mydb; >> Create database mydb; $ rm -rf ./wall/migrations $ py manage.py syncdb But when I run syncdb, Django creates a bunch of tables. Yes, it creates the south_migrationhistory table, but it also creates my app's tables. Synced: > django.contrib.admin > django.contrib.auth > django.contrib.contenttypes > django.contrib.sessions > django.contrib.sites > django.contrib.messages > south > fable.notification > pagination > timezones > fable.wall > mediasync > staticfiles > debug_toolbar Not synced (use migrations): - (use ./manage.py migrate to migrate these) Cool....now it tells me to migrate these. So, I do this: $ py manage.py migrate wall The app 'wall' does not appear to use migrations. Alright, so fine. I'll add wall to initial migrations. $ py manage.py schemamigration wall --initial Then I migrate: $ py manage.py migrate wall You know what? It gives me this BS: _mysql_exceptions.OperationalError: (1050, "Table 'wall_content' already exists") Sorry, this is really pissing me off. Can someone help ? thanks. How do I get South to work and sync correctly with everything?

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  • jquery 1.4.1 breaks my slideshow

    - by JMC Creative
    After toying with the jquery slideshow extension, I created my own that better suited my purposes ( I didn't like that all the images needed to load at the beginning for instance). Now, upon upgrading to jQuery 1.4.2 (I know I'm late), the slideshow loads the first image fine ( from the line$('div#slideshow img#ssone').fadeIn(1500); towards the bottom), but doesn't do anything beyond that. Does anyone have any idea which jquery construct is killing my script? The live page is at lplonline.org which is using 1.3.2 for the time being. Thanks in advance. Array.prototype.random = function( r ) { var i = 0, l = this.length; if( !r ) { r = this.length; } else if( r > 0 ) { r = r % l; } else { i = r; r = l + r % l; } return this[ Math.floor( r * Math.random() - i ) ]; }; jQuery(function($){ var imgArr = new Array(); imgArr[1] = "wp-content/uploads/rotator/Brbrshop4-hrmnywkshp72006.jpg"; imgArr[2] = "wp-content/uploads/rotator/IMGA0125.JPG"; //etc, etc, about 30 of these are created dynamically from a db function randImgs () { var randImg = imgArr.random(); var img1 = $('div#slideshow img#ssone'); var img2 = $('div#slideshow img#sstwo'); if(img1.is(':visible') ) { img2.fadeIn(1500); img1.fadeOut(1500,function() { img1.attr({src : randImg}); }); } else { img1.fadeIn(1500); img2.fadeOut(1500,function() { img2.attr({src : randImg}); }); } } setInterval(randImgs,9000); // 9 SECONDS $('div#slideshow img#ssone').fadeIn(1500); }); </script> <div id="slideshow"> <img id="ssone" style="display:none;" src="wp-content/uploads/rotator/quote-investments.png" alt="" /> <img id="sstwo" style="display:none;" src="wp-content/uploads/rotator/quote-drugs.png" alt="" /> </div>

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  • translating specifications into query predicates

    - by Jeroen
    I'm trying to find a nice and elegant way to query database content based on DDD "specifications". In domain driven design, a specification is used to check if some object, also known as the candidate, is compliant to a (domain specific) requirement. For example, the specification 'IsTaskDone' goes like: class IsTaskDone extends Specification<Task> { boolean isSatisfiedBy(Task candidate) { return candidate.isDone(); } } The above specification can be used for many purposes, e.g. it can be used to validate if a task has been completed, or to filter all completed tasks from a collection. However, I want to re-use this, nice, domain related specification to query on the database. Of course, the easiest solution would be to retrieve all entities of our desired type from the database, and filter that list in-memory by looping and removing non-matching entities. But clearly that would not be optimal for performance, especially when the entity count in our db increases. Proposal So my idea is to create a 'ConversionManager' that translates my specification into a persistence technique specific criteria, think of the JPA predicate class. The services looks as follows: public interface JpaSpecificationConversionManager { <T> Predicate getPredicateFor(Specification<T> specification, Root<T> root, CriteriaQuery<?> cq, CriteriaBuilder cb); JpaSpecificationConversionManager registerConverter(JpaSpecificationConverter<?, ?> converter); } By using our manager, the users can register their own conversion logic, isolating the domain related specification from persistence specific logic. To minimize the configuration of our manager, I want to use annotations on my converter classes, allowing the manager to automatically register those converters. JPA repository implementations could then use my manager, via dependency injection, to offer a find by specification method. Providing a find by specification should drastically reduce the number of methods on our repository interface. In theory, this all sounds decent, but I feel like I'm missing something critical. What do you guys think of my proposal, does it comply to the DDD way of thinking? Or is there already a framework that does something identical to what I just described?

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  • Large number of UPDATE queries slowing down page

    - by Bryan Lewis
    I am reading and validating large fixed-width text files (range from 10-50K lines) that are submitted via our ASP.net website (coded in VB.Net). I do an initial scan of the file to check for basic issues (line length, etc). Then I import each row into a MS SQL table. Each DB rows basically consists of a record_ID (Primary, auto-incrementing) and about 50 varchar fields. After the insert is done, I run a validation function on the file that checks each field in each row based on a bunch of criteria (trimmed length, isnumeric, range checks, etc). If it finds an error in any field, it inserts a record into the Errors table, which has an error_ID, the record_ID and an error message. In addition, if the field fails in a particular way, I have to do a "reset" on that field. A reset might consist of blanking the entire field, or simply replacing the value with another value (e.g. replacing the string with a new one that has all illegals chars taken out). I have a 5,000 line test file. The upload, initial check, and import takes about 5-6 seconds. The detailed error check and insert into the Errors table takes about 5-8 seconds (this file has about 1200 errors in it). However, the "resets" part takes about 40-45 seconds for 750 fields that need to be reset. When I comment out the resets function (returning immediately without actually calling the UPDATE stored proc), the process is very fast. With the resets turned on, the pages take 50 seconds to return. My UPDATE stored proc is using some recommended code from http://sommarskog.se/dynamic_sql.html, whereby it uses CASE instead of dynamic SQL: UPDATE dbo.Records SET dbo.Records.file_ID = CASE @field_name WHEN 'file_ID' THEN @field_value ELSE file_ID END, . . (all 50 varchar field CASE statements here) . WHERE dbo.Records.record_ID = @record_ID Is there any way I can help my performance here. Can I somehow group all of these UPDATE calls into a single transaction? Should I be reworking the UPDATE query somehow? Or is it just sheer quantity of 750+ UPDATEs and things are just slow (it's a quad proc server with 8GB ram). Any suggestions appreciated.

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  • How to perform duplicate key validation using entlib (or DataAnnotations), MVC, and Repository pattern

    - by olivehour
    I have a set of ASP.NET 4 projects that culminate in an MVC (3 RC2) app. The solution uses Unity and EntLib Validation for cross-cutting dependency injection and validation. Both are working great for injecting repository and service layer implementations. However, I can't figure out how to do duplicate key validation. For example, when a user registers, we want to make sure they don't pick a UserID that someone else is already using. For this type of validation, the validating object must have a repository reference... or some other way to get an IQueryable / IEnumerable reference to check against other rows already in the DB. What I have is a UserMetadata class that has all of the property setters and getters for a user, along with all of the appropriate DataAnnotations and EntLib Validation attributes. There is also a UserEntity class implemented using EF4 POCO Entity Generator templates. The UserEntity depends on UserMetadata, because it has a MetadataTypeAttribute. I also have a UserViewModel class that has the same exact MetadataType attribute. This way, I can apply the same validation rules, via attributes, to both the entity and viewmodel. There are no concrete references to the Repository classes whatsoever. All repositories are injected using Unity. There is also a service layer that gets dependency injection. In the MVC project, service layer implementation classes are injected into the Controller classes (the controller classes only contain service layer interface references). Unity then injects the Repository implementations into the service layer classes (service classes also only contain interface references). I've experimented with the DataAnnotations CustomValidationAttribute in the metadata class. The problem with this is the validation method must be static, and the method cannot instantiate a repository implementation directly. My repository interface is IRepository, and I have only one single repository implementation class defined as EntityRepository for all domain objects. To instantiate a repository explicitly I would need to say new EntityRepository(), which would result in a circular dependency graph: UserMetadata [depends on] DuplicateUserIDValidator [depends on] UserEntity [depends on] UserMetadata. I've also tried creating a custom EntLib Validator along with a custom validation attribute. Here I don't have the same problem with a static method. I think I could get this to work if I could just figure out how to make Unity inject my EntityRepository into the validator class... which I can't. Right now, all of the validation code is in my Metadata class library, since that's where the custom validation attribute would go. Any ideas on how to perform validations that need to check against the current repository state? Can Unity be used to inject a dependency into a lower-layer class library?

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  • Strange problems with PHP SOAP (private variable not persist + variables passed from client not work

    - by Tamas Gal
    I have a very strange problems in a PHP Soap implementation. I have a private variable in the Server class which contains the DB name for further reference. The private variable name is "fromdb". I have a public function on the soap server where I can set this variable. $client-setFromdb. When I call it form my client works perfectly and the fromdb private variable can be set. But a second soap client call this private variable loses its value... Here is my soap server setup: ini_set('soap.wsdl_cache_enabled', 0); ini_set('session.auto_start', 0); ini_set('always_populate_raw_post_data', 1); global $config_dir; session_start(); /*if(!$HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA){ $HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA = file_get_contents('php://input'); }*/ $server = new SoapServer("{$config_dir['template']}import.wsdl"); $server-setClass('import'); $server-setPersistence(SOAP_PERSISTENCE_SESSION); $server-handle(); Problem is that I passed this to the server: $client = new SoapClient('http://import.ingatlan.net/wsdl', array('trace' = 1)); $xml=''; $xml.=''; $xml.=''; $xml.=''; $xml.='Valaki'; $xml.=''; $xml.=''; $xml.=''; $xml.=''; $tarray = array("type" = 1, "xml" = $xml); try{ $s = $client-sendXml( $tarray ); print "$s"; } catch( SOAPFault $exception){ print "--- SOAP exception :{$exception}---"; print "LAST REQUEST :"; var_dump($client-_getLastRequest()); print "---"; print "LAST RESPONSE :".$client-_getLastResponse(); } So passed an Array of informations to the server. Then I got this exception: LAST REQUEST : <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"><SOAP-ENV:Body><type>Array</type><xml/></SOAP-ENV:Body></SOAP-ENV:Envelope> Can you see the Array word between the type tag? Seems that the client only passed a reference or something like this. So I totaly missed :(

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  • Symfony2 Entity to array

    - by Adriano Pedro
    I'm trying to migrate my flat php project to Symfony2, but its coming to be very hard. For instance, I have a table of Products specification that have several specifications and are distinguishables by its "cat" attribute in that Extraspecs DB table. Therefore I've created a Entity for that table and want to make an array of just the specifications with "cat" = 0... I supose the code is this one.. right? $typeavailable = $this->getDoctrine() ->getRepository('LabsCatalogBundle:ProductExtraspecsSpecs') ->findBy(array('cat' => '0')); Now how can i put this in an array to work with a form like this?: form = $this ->createFormBuilder($product) ->add('specs', 'choice', array('choices' => $typeavailableArray), 'multiple' => true) Thank you in advance :) # Thank you all.. But now I've came across with another problem.. In fact i'm building a form from an existing object: $form = $this ->createFormBuilder($product) ->add('name', 'text') ->add('genspec', 'choice', array('choices' => array('0' => 'None', '1' => 'General', '2' => 'Specific'))) ->add('isReg', 'choice', array('choices' => array('0' => 'Material', '1' => 'Reagent', '2' => 'Antibody', '3' => 'Growth Factors', '4' => 'Rodents', '5' => 'Lagomorphs'))) So.. in that case my current value is named "extraspecs", so i've added this like: ->add('extraspecs', 'entity', array( 'label' => 'desc', 'empty_value' => ' --- ', 'class' => 'LabsCatalogBundle:ProductExtraspecsSpecs', 'property' => 'specsid', 'query_builder' => function(EntityRepository $er) { return $er ->createQueryBuilder('e'); But "extraspecs" come from a relationship of oneToMany where every product has several extraspecs... Here is the ORM: Labs\CatalogBundle\Entity\Product: type: entity table: orders__regmat id: id: type: integer generator: { strategy: AUTO } fields: name: type: string length: 100 catnumber: type: string scale: 100 brand: type: integer scale: 10 company: type: integer scale: 10 size: type: decimal scale: 10 units: type: integer scale: 10 price: type: decimal scale: 10 reqcert: type: integer scale: 1 isReg: type: integer scale: 1 genspec: type: integer scale: 1 oneToMany: extraspecs: targetEntity: ProductExtraspecs mappedBy: product Labs\CatalogBundle\Entity\ProductExtraspecs: type: entity table: orders__regmat__extraspecs fields: extraspecid: id: true type: integer unsigned: false nullable: false generator: strategy: IDENTITY regmatid: type: integer scale: 11 spec: type: integer scale: 11 attrib: type: string length: 20 value: type: string length: 200 lifecycleCallbacks: { } manyToOne: product: targetEntity: Product inversedBy: extraspecs joinColumn: name: regmatid referencedColumnName: id HOw should I do this? Thank you!!!

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  • Is Delete cascade possible in ravendb

    - by user1811801
    Still just a starter in ravendb. I have a doubt whether raven db supports some kind of referential integrity. Here is my doubt and work.. I have document type screens as below public class Screens { public String Id { get; set; } public String ScreenName { get; set; } } And Another document named RightsDeclaration as below public class RightsDeclaration { public RightsDeclaration() { _screenrights = new List<ScreenRight>(); } public String Id { get; set; }// Role Name List<ScreenRight> _screenrights; public List<ScreenRight> ScreenRights { get { return _screenrights; } set { _screenrights = value; } } } Now the screen rights class looks like below with the screen name field as below public class ScreenRight : { public String ScreenName { get; set; } public Boolean Create { get; set; } public Boolean Read { get; set; } public Boolean Update { get; set; } public Boolean Delete { get; set; } public Boolean Approve { get; set; } public Boolean Access { get; set; } public Boolean Print { get; set; } public Boolean Email { get; set; } } Now first i will create some list of screens and then i assign rights for each role with mentioning what is the screen name and list of rights. up to this point everything goes fine. Now in a scenario where if i would delete the screen name in screens class but then the screen rights for that screen still exists in the rights declaration. is it possible to delete the corresponding screen rights from userrights document too? if so please mention the query or idea to do the above.. Thanks in advance..

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  • How to fine tune FluentNHibernate's auto mapper?

    - by Venemo
    Okay, so yesterday I managed to get the latest trunk builds of NHibernate and FluentNHibernate to work with my latest little project. (I'm working on a bug tracking application.) I created a nice data access layer using the Repository pattern. I decided that my entities are nothing special, and also that with the current maturity of ORMs, I don't want to hand-craft the database. So, I chose to use FluentNHibernate's auto mapping feature with NHibernate's "hbm2ddl.auto" property set to "create". It really works like a charm. I put the NHibernate configuration in my app domain's config file, set it up, and started playing with it. (For the time being, I created some unit tests only.) It created all tables in the database, and everything I need for it. It even mapped my many-to-many relationships correctly. However, there are a few small glitches: All of the columns created in the DB allow null. I understand that it can't predict which properties should allow null and which shouldn't, but at least I'd like to tell it that it should allow null only for those types for which null makes sense in .NET (eg. non-nullable value types shouldn't allow null). All of the nvarchar and varbinary columns it created, have a default length of 255. I would prefer to have them on max instead of that. Is there a way to tell the auto mapper about the two simple rules above? If the answer is no, will it work correctly if I modify the tables it created? (So, if I set some columns not to allow null, and change the allowed length for some other, will it correctly work with them?) EDIT: I managed to achieve the above by using Fluent NHibernate's convention API. Thanks to everyone who helped! However, there is one more thing: after checking out the convention API, I really would like my IDs to be calld "ID", not "Id", but it seems to me that the PrimaryKey.Name.Is(x => "ID") is not working at all. If I add it to the conventions collection and rewrite my entities' properties to "ID" instead of "Id", it throws an exception that there is no primary key mapped. Any thoughts on this?

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  • Using mcrypt to pass data across a webservice is failing

    - by adam
    Hi I'm writing an error handler script which encrypts the error data (file, line, error, message etc) and passes the serialized array as a POST variable (using curl) to a script which then logs the error in a central db. I've tested my encrypt/decrypt functions in a single file and the data is encrypted and decrypted fine: define('KEY', 'abc'); define('CYPHER', 'blowfish'); define('MODE', 'cfb'); function encrypt($data) { $td = mcrypt_module_open(CYPHER, '', MODE, ''); $iv = mcrypt_create_iv(mcrypt_enc_get_iv_size($td), MCRYPT_RAND); mcrypt_generic_init($td, KEY, $iv); $crypttext = mcrypt_generic($td, $data); mcrypt_generic_deinit($td); return $iv.$crypttext; } function decrypt($data) { $td = mcrypt_module_open(CYPHER, '', MODE, ''); $ivsize = mcrypt_enc_get_iv_size($td); $iv = substr($data, 0, $ivsize); $data = substr($data, $ivsize); if ($iv) { mcrypt_generic_init($td, KEY, $iv); $data = mdecrypt_generic($td, $data); } return $data; } echo "<pre>"; $data = md5(''); echo "Data: $data\n"; $e = encrypt($data); echo "Encrypted: $e\n"; $d = decrypt($e); echo "Decrypted: $d\n"; Output: Data: d41d8cd98f00b204e9800998ecf8427e Encrypted: ê÷#¯KžViiÖŠŒÆÜ,ÑFÕUW£´Œt?†÷>c×åóéè+„N Decrypted: d41d8cd98f00b204e9800998ecf8427e The problem is, when I put the encrypt function in my transmit file (tx.php) and the decrypt in my recieve file (rx.php), the data is not fully decrypted (both files have the same set of constants for key, cypher and mode). Data before passing: a:4:{s:3:"err";i:1024;s:3:"msg";s:4:"Oops";s:4:"file";s:46:"/Applications/MAMP/htdocs/projects/txrx/tx.php";s:4:"line";i:80;} Data decrypted: Mª4:{s:3:"err";i:1024@7OYªç`^;g";s:4:"Oops";s:4:"file";sôÔ8F•Ópplications/MAMP/htdocs/projects/txrx/tx.php";s:4:"line";i:80;} Note the random characters in the middle. My curl is fairly simple: $ch = curl_init($url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, 'data=' . $data); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); $output = curl_exec($ch); Things I suspect could be causing this: Encoding of the curl request Something to do with mcrypt padding missing bytes I've been staring at it too long and have missed something really really obvious If I turn off the crypt functions (so the transfer tx-rx is unencrypted) the data is received fine. Any and all help much appreciated! Thanks, Adam

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  • JQuery Menu plugins under ASP.NET MVC seem to only work in Chrome, but not in IE & FireFox

    - by Antony
    Recently, I was trying to prototype some jQuery-based menu into ASP.NET MVC. Just to name two examples here: plugins.jquery.com/project/columnview www.filamentgroup.com/lab/jquery_ipod_style_and_flyout_menus/ Their demo page looks great, but when I integrate their sample code into MVC, the script no longer works in IE and FireFox, but it seems to work just fine under Google Chrome. Can someone kindly enough to point out what I missed? I will be honest here. I am still new to JavaScript, so it is still a learning phase to me, so any help is highly appreciated. I have placed a copy of my VS2010 solution zip file @ http://db.tt/0UNDkN Here is what I did. In the Site.Master, I have something like <body> <div class="page">{truncated...}</div> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.min.js" type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"></script> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="ScriptContent" runat="server" /> </body> And inside View file, I have the following <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <div id="original"> {some demo block, copied from javascript demo} </div> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ScriptContent" runat="server"> <script type="text/javascript" src="<%= Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.columnview.js") %>" /> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#original').columnview(); }); </script> </asp:Content> Compiled the code and ran it under IE. Ideally, it should work like the demo in www.christianyates.com/blog/jquery/finder-column-view-hierarchical-lists-jquery, but in reality, it only displays unordered list in plain view. (If you download the solution file and run it, you should be able to repro this as well). Next, tried with FireFox, not working either, same result as IE. Finally, when I try it under Google Chrome 4.1 (lastest version), and the script displays just fine. Really puzzling here :-/ Thank you for reading :D

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  • How to find the one Label in DataList that is set to True

    - by Doug
    In my .aspx page I have my DataList: <asp:DataList ID="DataList1" runat="server" DataKeyField="ProductSID" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1" onitemcreated="DataList1_ItemCreated" RepeatColumns="3" RepeatDirection="Horizontal" Width="1112px"> <ItemTemplate> ProductSID: <asp:Label ID="ProductSIDLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ProductSID") %>' /> <br /> ProductSKU: <asp:Label ID="ProductSKULabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ProductSKU") %>' /> <br /> ProductImage1: <asp:Label ID="ProductImage1Label" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ProductImage1") %>' /> <br /> ShowLive: <asp:Label ID="ShowLiveLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ShowLive") %>' /> <br /> CollectionTypeID: <asp:Label ID="CollectionTypeIDLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("CollectionTypeID") %>' /> <br /> CollectionHomePage: <asp:Label ID="CollectionHomePageLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("CollectionHomePage") %>' /> <br /> <br /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:DataList> And in my code behind using the ItemCreated event to find and set the label.backcolor property. (Note:I'm using a recursive findControl class) protected void DataList1_ItemCreated(object sender, DataListItemEventArgs e) { foreach (DataListItem item in DataList1.Items) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.Item || e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.AlternatingItem) { Label itemLabel = form1.FindControlR("CollectionHomePageLabel") as Label; if (itemLabel !=null || itemLabel.Text == "True") { itemLabel.BackColor = System.Drawing.Color.Yellow; } } When I run the page, the itemLabel is found, and the color shows. But it sets the itemLabel color to the first instance of the itemLabel found in the DataList. Of all the itemLabels in the DataList, only one will have it's text = True - and that should be the label picking up the backcolor. Also: The itemLabel is picking up a column in the DB called "CollectionHomePage" which is True/False bit data type. I must be missing something simple... Thanks for your ideas.

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  • CSS Collapsing/Hiding divs with no data in <span>

    - by Chance
    I am trying to display an address which includes the following information: Title, division, address1, address2, town/state/zip, and country (5 seperate lines worth of data). The problem is sometimes the company may only have the title, address1, and town/state/zip yet other times it may be all but address2. This is determined upon a db record request server side. Therefore how can I make my output look proper when some of my labels will be blank? I would like div's that contain an empty span to be essentially collapsed/removed. My only idea of how was to use jquery and a selector to find all divs with blank spans (since thats all an asp.net label really is) and then remove those divs however this seems like such bad form. Is there any way to do this with css? Possible Code would be something like: $('span:empty:only-child').parent('div').remove(); Picture Examples (Ignore spacing/indentation issues which I will fix) Missing Division, Address2, and Country All Possible Fields The Html <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddressHeader" CssClass="lblBillingAddressHeader" Text="Billing Address:" /> <div style="position:relative; top:150px; left: 113px;"> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingDivision" CssClass="lblBillingShippingDivisionFont" /> </div> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddress" CssClass="lblBillingShippingFont" /> </div> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddress2" CssClass="lblBillingShippingFont" /> </div> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddress3" CssClass="lblBillingShippingFont" /> </div> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddress4" CssClass="lblBillingShippingFont" /> </div> </div> The CSS .test { position: relative; top: 0px; left: 0px; height: 12px; width: 300px; } .lblBillingShippingDivisionFont { font-size: small; font-weight: bold; } .lblBillingShippingFont { font-size: 10.6px; }

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  • Neo4j 1.9.4 (REST Server,CYPHER) performance issue

    - by user2968943
    I have Neo4j 1.9.4 installed on 24 core 24Gb ram (centos) machine and for most queries CPU usage spikes goes to 200% with only few concurrent requests. Domain: some sort of social application where few types of nodes(profiles) with 3-30 text/array properties and 36 relationship types with at least 3 properties. Most of nodes currently has ~300-500 relationships. Current data set footprint(from console): LogicalLogSize=4294907 (32MB) ArrayStoreSize=1675520 (12MB) NodeStoreSize=1342170 (10MB) PropertyStoreSize=1739548 (13MB) RelationshipStoreSize=6395202 (48MB) StringStoreSize=1478400 (11MB) which is IMHO really small. most queries looks like this one(with more or less WITH .. MATCH .. statements and few queries with variable length relations but the often fast): START targetUser=node({id}), currentUser=node({current}) MATCH targetUser-[contact:InContactsRelation]->n, n-[:InLocationRelation]->l, n-[:InCategoryRelation]->c WITH currentUser, targetUser,n, l,c, contact.fav is not null as inFavorites MATCH n<-[followers?:InContactsRelation]-() WITH currentUser, targetUser,n, l,c,inFavorites, COUNT(followers) as numFollowers RETURN id(n) as id, n.name? as name, n.title? as title, n._class as _class, n.avatar? as avatar, n.avatar_type? as avatar_type, l.name as location__name, c.name as category__name, true as isInContacts, inFavorites as isInFavorites, numFollowers it runs in ~1s-3s(for first run) and ~1s-70ms (for consecutive and it depends on query) and there is about 5-10 queries runs for each impression. Another interesting behavior is when i try run query from console(neo4j) on my local machine many consecutive times(just press ctrl+enter for few seconds) it has almost constant execution time but when i do it on server it goes slower exponentially and i guess it somehow related with my problem. Problem: So my problem is that neo4j is very CPU greedy(for 24 core machine its may be not an issue but its obviously overkill for small project). First time i used AWS EC2 m1.large instance but over all performance was bad, during testing, CPU always was over 100%. Some relevant parts of configuration: neostore.nodestore.db.mapped_memory=1280M wrapper.java.maxmemory=8192 note: I already tried configuration where all memory related parameters where HIGH and it didn't worked(no change at all). Question: Where to digg? configuration? scheme? queries? what i'm doing wrong? if need more info(logs, configs) just ask ;)

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  • How change Castor mapping to remove "xmlns:xsi" and "xsi:type" attributes from element in XML output

    - by Derek Mahar
    How do I change the Castor mapping <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE mapping PUBLIC "-//EXOLAB/Castor Mapping DTD Version 1.0//EN" "http://castor.org/mapping.dtd"> <mapping> <class name="java.util.ArrayList" auto-complete="true"> <map-to xml="ArrayList" /> </class> <class name="com.db.spgit.abstrack.ws.response.UserResponse"> <map-to xml="UserResponse" /> <field name="id" type="java.lang.String"> <bind-xml name="id" node="element" /> </field> <field name="deleted" type="boolean"> <bind-xml name="deleted" node="element" /> </field> <field name="name" type="java.lang.String"> <bind-xml name="name" node="element" /> </field> <field name="typeId" type="java.lang.Integer"> <bind-xml name="typeId" node="element" /> </field> <field name="regionId" type="java.lang.Integer"> <bind-xml name="regionId" node="element" /> </field> <field name="regionName" type="java.lang.String"> <bind-xml name="regionName" node="element" /> </field> </class> </mapping> to suppress the xmlns:xsi and xsi:type attributes in the element of the XML output? For example, instead of the output XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <ArrayList> <UserResponse xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:type="UserResponse"> <name>Tester</name> <typeId>1</typeId> <regionId>2</regionId> <regionName>US</regionName> </UserResponse> </ArrayList> I'd prefer <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <ArrayList> <UserResponse> <name>Tester</name> <typeId>1</typeId> <regionId>2</regionId> <regionName>US</regionName> </UserResponse> </ArrayList> such that the element name implies the xsi:type.

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  • How to retrieve parent container ID after sorting using Jquery sortable??

    - by user187580
    Hello I have following markup and javascript to sort some items. Items can be sorted within a block or across other blocks. It works but I have a problem in retrieving correct block ID after an item is moved from one block to another. For example, if I move item 1 within "Block 1", I get "I am in Block= block_1" but if I move Item 1 to Block 2 I still get I am in Block 1. But I want to make the block 2 as its parent container. I need to retrieve this id so that I can do some ajax and update the db accordingly. Can you please help me correct this?? <div id="blocks_sortable"> <div id="block_1"> <h2>Block 1</h2> <div class="items_sortable connectedSortable"> <div id="item_1"> <span>Item 1</span></div> <div id="item_2"> <span>Item 2</span></div> <div id="item_3"> <span>Item 3</span></div> </div> </div> <div id="block_2"> <h2>Block 2</h2> <div class="items_sortable connectedSortable"> <div id="item_4"> <span>Item 4</span></div> <div id="item_5"> <span>Item 5</span></div> <div id="item_6"> <span>Item 6</span></div> </div> </div> </div> <script> $("#blocks_sortable").sortable({ }); $(".items_sortable").sortable({ connectWith: '.connectedSortable' , forcePlaceholderSize: true , stop : function(event, ui){ alert("I am in block = "+$(this).parent().attr("id")); } }).disableSelection(); </script> Thank you.

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  • How to Work Around Limitations in Generic Type Constraints in C#?

    - by Jose
    Okay I'm looking for some input, I'm pretty sure this is not currently supported in .NET 3.5 but here goes. I want to require a generic type passed into my class to have a constructor like this: new(IDictionary<string,object>) so the class would look like this public MyClass<T> where T : new(IDictionary<string,object>) { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { return new T(values); } } But the compiler doesn't support this, it doesn't really know what I'm asking. Some of you might ask, why do you want to do this? Well I'm working on a pet project of an ORM so I get values from the DB and then create the object and load the values. I thought it would be cleaner to allow the object just create itself with the values I give it. As far as I can tell I have two options: 1) Use reflection(which I'm trying to avoid) to grab the PropertyInfo[] array and then use that to load the values. 2) require T to support an interface like so: public interface ILoadValues { void LoadValues(IDictionary values); } and then do this public MyClass<T> where T:new(),ILoadValues { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { T obj = new T(); obj.LoadValues(values); return obj; } } The problem I have with the interface I guess is philosophical, I don't really want to expose a public method for people to load the values. Using the constructor the idea was that if I had an object like this namespace DataSource.Data { public class User { protected internal User(IDictionary<string,object> values) { //Initialize } } } As long as the MyClass<T> was in the same assembly the constructor would be available. I personally think that the Type constraint in my opinion should ask (Do I have access to this constructor? I do, great!) Anyways any input is welcome.

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  • Thin & Sinatra not taking port

    - by NekoNova
    I'm having problems settig up my application using Thin and Sinatra. I have created a development-config.ru file that contains the following settings: # This is a rack configuration file to fire up the Sinatra application. # This allows better control and configuration as we are using the modular # approach here for controlling our application. # # Extend the Ruby load path with the root of the API and the lib folder # so that we can automatically include all our own custom classes. This makes # the requiring of files a bit cleaner and easier to maintain. # This is basically what rails does as well. # We also store the root of the API in the ENV settings to ensure we have # always access to the root of the API when building paths. ENV['API_ROOT'] = File.dirname(__FILE__) $:.unshift ENV['API_ROOT'] $:.unshift File.expand_path(File.join(ENV['API_ROOT'], 'lib')) $:.unshift File.expand_path(File.join(ENV['API_ROOT'], 'db')) # Now we can require all the gems used for the entire API by simpling requiring # them here. We can also include the classes that we have defined inside the lib # folder. require 'rubygems' require 'bundler' # Run Bundler to setup our gems properly. This will install all the missing gems on # the system and ensure that the deployment environment is ready to run. Bundler.require # To make the loading easier for the application, we will now automatically load all # models that have been defined inside the lib folder. This ensures that we do not need # to load them anymore anywhere else in our application, as the models will be known to # ruby everywhere. Dir.glob(File.join(ENV['API_ROOT'], 'lib', '**', '*.rb')).each{|file| require file} # Now we will configure the Sinatra application so that we can fire up the entire API. # This requires some detailed settings like whether logging is allowed, the port to be # used and some folder locations. require 'sinatra' require 'app' set :logging, true set :dump_errors, true set :port, 3001 set :views, "#{ENV['API_ROOT']}/views" set :public_folder, "#{ENV['API_ROOT']}/public" set :environment, :test # Start up the Sinatra application with all the settings that we have defined. run App.new This is based upon the information I found on the Sinatra website. However, the problem is that I cannot get the application running on port 3001. If I use thin start -R development-config.ru it runs on port 3000. If I use rackup config-development.ru it runs on port 9696. However I never see Sinatra kick in or run over port 3000. My application looks like this: # Author : Arne De Herdt # Email : # This is the actuall application that will be running under Sinatra # to serve the requests for the billing middleware API. # We use the modular approach here to allow control when deploying # the application using Capistrano. require 'sinatra/base' require 'logger' require 'savon' require 'billcrux' class App < Sinatra::Base # This action responds to POST requests on the URI '/billcrux/register' # and is responsible for handeling registration requests with the # BillCrux payment system. # The post "/billcrux/register" do # do stuff end end Can someone tell me what I am doing wrong?

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  • What to name 2 methods with same signatures

    - by coffeeaddict
    Initially I had a method in our DL that would take in the object it's updating like so: internal void UpdateCash(Cash Cash) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set captureID = @captureID, ac_code = @acCode, captureDate = @captureDate, errmsg = @errorMessage, isDebit = @isDebit, SourceInfoID = @sourceInfoID, PayPalTransactionInfoID = @payPalTransactionInfoID, CreditCardTransactionInfoID = @CreditCardTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", cash.CaptureID); conn.AddParam("@acCode", cash.ActionCode); conn.AddParam("@captureDate", cash.CaptureDate); conn.AddParam("@errorMessage", cash.ErrorMessage); conn.AddParam("@isDebit", cyberCash.IsDebit); conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", cash.PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@CreditCardTransactionInfoID", cash.CreditCardTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@sourceInfoID", cash.SourceInfoID); conn.AddParam("@cashID", cash.Id); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } My boss felt that creating an object every time just to update one or two fields is overkill. But I had a couple places in code using this. He recommended using just UpdateCash and sending in the ID for CAsh and field I want to update. Well the problem is I have 2 places in code using my original method. And those 2 places are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table. Before I was just able to get the existing Cash record and shove it into a Cash object, then update the properties I wanted to be updated in the DB, then send back the cash object to my method above. I need some advice on what to do here. I have 2 methods and they have the same signature. I'm not quite sure what to rename these because both are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table: internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int paypalCaptureID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set CaptureID = @paypalCaptureID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", paypalCaptureID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int PayPalTransactionInfoID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set PaymentSourceID = @PayPalTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } So I thought hmm, maybe change the names to these so that they are now unique and somewhat explain what field its updating: UpdateCashOrderID UpdateCashTransactionInfoID ok but that's not really very good names. And I can't go too generic, for example: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID) What if we have different types of transactionIDs that the cash record holds besides just the paypalTransactionInfoID? such as the creditCardInfoID? Then what? Transaction doesn't tell me what kind. And furthermore what if you're updating 2 fields so you have 2 params next to the cashID param: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID, someOtherFieldIWantToUpdate) see my frustration? what's the best way to handle this is my boss doesn't like my first route?

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  • Getting instance crashes on IntelliJ IDEA with scala plugin.

    - by egervari
    I am building a scala web project using scala test, lift, jpa, hibernate, mercurial plugin, etc. I am getting instant crashes, where the ide just bombs, the window shuts down, and it gives no error messages whatsoever when I am doing any amount of copy/pasting of code. This started happening once my project got to about 100 unit tests. This problem is incredibly annoying, because when the crash happens, 30-60 seconds of activity is not saved. Even IDEA will forget which files were last opened and will forget where the cursor was, which makes it really hard to continue where you left off after the crash. A lot can happen in 60 seconds! Now, I've given up, because it seems like all sorts of things cause the IntelliJ IDEA to crash over and over. For example, if I were to copy and paste this code, to write a similar test for another collection type, it would crash shortly after: it should "cascade save and delete status messages" in { val statusMessage = new StatusMessage("message") var user = userDao.find(1).get user.addToStatusMessages(statusMessage) userDao.save(user) statusMessage.isPersistent should be (true) userDao.delete(user) statusMessageDao.find(statusMessage.id) should equal (None) } There is nothing special about this piece of code. It's code that is working just fine. However, IDEA bombs shortly after I paste something like this. For example, I might change StatusMessage to the new class I want to test cascading on... and then have to import that class into the test... and BOOM... it crashed. On windows 7, the IDEA window literally just minimizes and crashes with no warning. The next time I startup IDEA, it has no memory of what happened. Now, I've had this problem before. I posted it way back on IDEA's YouTrack. I was told to invalidate my caches. That never fixed it then, and it's not fixing it now. Please help. This error is fairly random, but it's happening constantly now. I could program for hours and not see it before... and the fact that my work just gets destroyed and I can't remember what I did during the last minute causes me to swear at my monitor at a db level higher than my stereo can go.

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  • how get xml responce using JAX-WS SOAP handler

    - by khris
    I have implemented web service: @WebServiceClient(//parameters//) @HandlerChain(file = "handlers.xml") public class MyWebServiceImpl {...} Also I have implemented ObjectFactory with list of classes for creating my requests and responses. For Example class Test. I need to get xml of response. I try to use JAX-WS SOAP handler, so I add this @HandlerChain(file = "handlers.xml") anotation. My handlers.xml looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <handler-chains xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee"> <handler-chain> <handler> <handler-class>java.com.db.crds.ws.service.LoggingHandler</handler-class> </handler> </handler-chain> </handler-chains> My LoggingHandler class is: import java.io.PrintWriter; import java.util.Set; import javax.xml.namespace.QName; import javax.xml.soap.SOAPMessage; import javax.xml.ws.handler.MessageContext; import javax.xml.ws.handler.soap.SOAPMessageContext; public class LoggingHandler implements javax.xml.ws.handler.soap.SOAPHandler<SOAPMessageContext> { public void close(MessageContext messagecontext) { } public Set<QName> getHeaders() { return null; } public boolean handleFault(SOAPMessageContext messagecontext) { return true; } public boolean handleMessage(SOAPMessageContext smc) { Boolean outboundProperty = (Boolean) smc.get (MessageContext.MESSAGE_OUTBOUND_PROPERTY); if (outboundProperty.booleanValue()) { System.out.println("\nOutbound message:"); } else { System.out.println("\nInbound message:"); } SOAPMessage message = smc.getMessage(); try { PrintWriter writer = new PrintWriter("soap_responce" + System.currentTimeMillis(), "UTF-8"); writer.println(message); writer.close(); message.writeTo(System.out); System.out.println(""); // just to add a newline } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception in handler: " + e); } return outboundProperty; } } I have test class which creates request, here are part of code: MyWebServiceImpl impl = new MyWebServiceImpl(url, qName); ws = impl.getMyWebServicePort(); Test req = new Test(); I suppose to get xml response in file "soap_responce" + System.currentTimeMillis(). But such file isn't even created. Please suggest how to get xml response, I'm new to web services and may do something wrong. Thanks

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  • Migrating from hand-written persistence layer to ORM

    - by Sergey Mikhanov
    Hi community, We are currently evaluating options for migrating from hand-written persistence layer to ORM. We have a bunch of legacy persistent objects (~200), that implement simple interface like this: interface JDBC { public long getId(); public void setId(long id); public void retrieve(); public void setDataSource(DataSource ds); } When retrieve() is called, object populates itself by issuing handwritten SQL queries to the connection provided using the ID it received in the setter (this usually is the only parameter to the query). It manages its statements, result sets, etc itself. Some of the objects have special flavors of retrive() method, like retrieveByName(), in this case a different SQL is issued. Queries could be quite complex, we often join several tables to populate the sets representing relations to other objects, sometimes join queries are issued on-demand in the specific getter (lazy loading). So basically, we have implemented most of the ORM's functionality manually. The reason for that was performance. We have very strong requirements for speed, and back in 2005 (when this code was written) performance tests has shown that none of mainstream ORMs were that fast as hand-written SQL. The problems we are facing now that make us think of ORM are: Most of the paths in this code are well-tested and are stable. However, some rarely-used code is prone to result set and connection leaks that are very hard to detect We are currently squeezing some additional performance by adding caching to our persistence layer and it's a huge pain to maintain the cached objects manually in this setup Support of this code when DB schema changes is a big problem. I am looking for an advice on what could be the best alternative for us. As far as I know, ORMs has advanced in last 5 years, so it might be that now there's one that offers an acceptable performance. As I see this issue, we need to address those points: Find some way to reuse at least some of the written SQL to express mappings Have the possibility to issue native SQL queries without the necessity to manually decompose their results (i.e. avoid manual rs.getInt(42) as they are very sensitive to schema changes) Add a non-intrusive caching layer Keep the performance figures. Is there any ORM framework you could recommend with regards to that?

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  • Generic Type constraint in .net

    - by Jose
    Okay I'm looking for some input, I'm pretty sure this is not currently supported in .NET 3.5 but here goes. I want to require a generic type passed into my class to have a constructor like this: new(IDictionary<string,object>) so the class would look like this public MyClass<T> where T : new(IDictionary<string,object>) { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { return new T(values); } } But the compiler doesn't support this, it doesn't really know what I'm asking. Some of you might ask, why do you want to do this? Well I'm working on a pet project of an ORM so I get values from the DB and then create the object and load the values. I thought it would be cleaner to allow the object just create itself with the values I give it. As far as I can tell I have two options: 1) Use reflection(which I'm trying to avoid) to grab the PropertyInfo[] array and then use that to load the values. 2) require T to support an interface like so: public interface ILoadValues { void LoadValues(IDictionary values); } and then do this public MyClass<T> where T:new(),ILoadValues { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { T obj = new T(); obj.LoadValues(values); return obj; } } The problem I have with the interface I guess is philosophical, I don't really want to expose a public method for people to load the values. Using the constructor the idea was that if I had an object like this namespace DataSource.Data { public class User { protected internal User(IDictionary<string,object> values) { //Initialize } } } As long as the MyClass<T> was in the same assembly the constructor would be available. I personally think that the Type constraint in my opinion should ask (Do I have access to this constructor? I do, great!) Anyways any input is welcome.

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  • Django: Grouping by Dates and Servers

    - by TheLizardKing
    So I am trying to emulate google app's status page: http://www.google.com/appsstatus#hl=en but for backups for our own servers. Instead of service names on the left it'll be server names but the dates and hopefully the pagination will be there too. My models look incredibly similar to this: from django.db import models STATUS_CHOICES = ( ('UN', 'Unknown'), ('NI', 'No Issue'), ('IS', 'Issue'), ('NR', 'Not Running'), ) class Server(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=32) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class Backup(models.Model): server = models.ForeignKey(Server) created = models.DateField(auto_now_add=True) modified = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) status = models.CharField(max_length=2, choices=STATUS_CHOICES, default='UN') issue = models.TextField(blank=True) def __unicode__(self): return u'%s: %s' % (self.server, self.get_status_display()) My issue is that I am having a hell of a time displaying the information I need. Everyday a little after midnight a cron job will run and add a row for each server for that day, defaulting on status unknown (UN). My backups.html: {% extends "base.html" %} {% block content %} <table> <tr> <th>Name</th> {% for server in servers %} <th>{{ created }}</th> </tr> <tr> <td>{{ server.name }}</td> {% for backup in server.backup_set.all %} <td>{{ backup.get_status_display }}</td> {% endfor %} </tr> {% endfor %} </table> {% endblock content %} This actually works but I do not know how to get the dates to show. Obviously {{ created }} doesn't do anything but the servers don't have create dates. Backups do and because it's a cron job there should only be X number of rows with any particular date (depending on how many servers we are following for that day). Summary I want to create a table, X being server names, Y being dates starting at today while all the cells being the status of a backup. The above model and template should hopefully give you an idea what my thought process but I am willing to alter anything. Basically I am create a fancy excel spreadsheet.

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