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  • Preventing Flex application caching in browser (multiple modules)

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I have a Flex application with multiple modules. When I redeploy the application I was finding that modules (which are deployed as separate swf files) were being cached in the browser and the new versions weren't being loaded. So i tried the age old trick of adding ?version=xxx to all the modules when they are loaded. The value xxx is a global parameter which is actually stored in the host html page: var moduleSection:ModuleLoaderSection; moduleSection = new ModuleLoaderSection(); moduleSection.visible = false; moduleSection.moduleName = moduleName + "?version=" + MySite.masterVersion; In addition I needed to add ?version=xxx to the main .swf that was being loaded. Since this is done by HTML I had to do this by modifying my AC_OETags.js file as below : function AC_FL_RunContent(){ var ret = AC_GetArgs ( arguments, ".swf?mv=" + getMasterVersion(), "movie", "clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" , "application/x-shockwave-flash" ); AC_Generateobj(ret.objAttrs, ret.params, ret.embedAttrs); } This is all fine and works great. I just have a hard time believing that Adobe doesn't already have a way to handle this. Given that Flex is being targeted to design modular applications for business I find it especially surprising. What do other people do? I need to make sure my application reloads correctly even if someone has once per session selected for their 'browser cache checking policy'.

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  • Internet Explorer 8 64bit and Selenium Not working.

    - by chobo2
    I am trying to get selenium tests to run. Yet every time I try to run a tests that should run IE I get a error on line 863 of htmlutils.js It says that I should disable my popup blocker. The thing is I went to IE tools- turn of popup block. So it is disabled and I get this error. Is there something else I need to disable. I actually don't even know what version of Internet explorer it is running since I am using Windows 7 Pro 64bit version. So when I do use IE I use 64bit version but I am under the understanding if the site or something like that does not support 64bit it goes to 32bit. So not sure what I need to do it to make it work. This is the lines where it does function openSeparateApplicationWindow(url, suppressMozillaWarning) { // resize the Selenium window itself window.resizeTo(1200, 500); window.moveTo(window.screenX, 0); var appWindow = window.open(url + '?start=true', 'selenium_main_app_window'); if (appWindow == null) { var errorMessage = "Couldn't open app window; is the pop-up blocker enabled?" LOG.error(errorMessage); throw new Error("Couldn't open app window; is the pop-up blocker enabled?"); } Where is this log.error message stored? Maybe I can post that too.

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  • Traversing/Manipulating new window from parent window with jquery

    - by Anthony
    I found a question already with a possible solution, but I had already tried the method suggested before reading it, and it even says it's inconsistent. So I guess I'm wondering why this doesn't work: $("img").click(function() { var imgwindow = window.open('imgwin.html','','width=460,height=345'); alert(imgwindow.find("img").attr("src")); }); The goal is to set the new window's img to the same src as the image that the user clicked to open the new window. But in the above scenario, I'm just trying to tap into the new window to get what it's already-set src. I have imgwin.html already written with a default src for the image, so it should alert that url. Instead I just get undefined. I also tried the following (which should be identical on the back end), but with the same results: $("img").click(function() { var imgwindow = window.open('imgwin.html','','width=460,height=345'); alert($("img",imgwindow).attr("src")); }); I even tried variations of wrapping the imgwindow variable in $() in case somehow jquery wasn't picking up on the variable as a DOM element. The only thing I can guess is that since window.open() is a method, jquery doesn't treat it like a DOM element, even though all documentation from basic javascript tutorials treat the variable as both a method to open the window and the pointer to the window's inner DOM.

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  • InvalidOperationException (Lambda parameter not in scope) when trying to Compile a Lambda Expression

    - by Moshe Levi
    Hello, I'm writing an Expression Parser to make my API more refactor friendly and less error prone. basicaly, I want the user to write code like that: repository.Get(entity => entity.Id == 10); instead of: repository.Get<Entity>("Id", 10); Extracting the member name from the left side of the binary expression was straight forward. The problems began when I tried to extract the value from the right side of the expression. The above snippet demonstrates the simplest possible case which involves a constant value but it can be much more complex involving closures and what not. After playing with that for some time I gave up on trying to cover all the possible cases myself and decided to use the framework to do all the heavy lifting for me by compiling and executing the right side of the expression. the relevant part of the code looks like that: public static KeyValuePair<string, object> Parse<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> expression) { var binaryExpression = (BinaryExpression)expression.Body; string memberName = ParseMemberName(binaryExpression.Left); object value = ParseValue(binaryExpression.Right); return new KeyValuePair<string, object>(memberName, value); } private static object ParseValue(Expression expression) { Expression conversionExpression = Expression.Convert(expression, typeof(object)); var lambdaExpression = Expression.Lambda<Func<object>>(conversionExpression); Func<object> accessor = lambdaExpression.Compile(); return accessor(); } Now, I get an InvalidOperationException (Lambda parameter not in scope) in the Compile line. when I googled for the solution I came up with similar questions that involved building an expression by hand and not supplying all the pieces, or trying to rely on parameters having the same name and not the same reference. I don't think that this is the case here because I'm reusing the given expression. I would appreciate if someone will give me some pointers on this. Thank you.

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  • jQuery datepicker returns "inst is null" error when loaded via AJAX

    - by Robert
    I'm loading content via an AJAX call into a table row added to the DOM on the fly. I'm calling the datepicker functionality in my callback function and the calendar shows fine. However, when I click on the date, I get an error: inst is null. Here's my code: $(document).ready(function() { $(".edit").live("click", function() { //Delete previously loaded edit row $("#tempEditRow").remove(); //Get the record id of the row to be edited var recordID = $(this).parent("td").parent("tr").attr("id"); //Add the new row to the document $(this).parent("td").parent("tr").after("<tr id=\"tempEditRow\"><td id=\"tempEditCell\" colspan=\"100\"></td></tr>") //Get a reference to the new row var container = $("#tempEditCell"); //Populate the container populateContainer("/wpm/includes/ajax_editApplication.cfm?id=" + recordID, container); }); }); function populateContainer(ajaxUrl, container) { //Populate the container $.ajax({ url: ajaxUrl, cache: false, success: function(html){ $(container).html(html); $('.datepicker').datepicker(); } }); } I've tried deleting the hasDatepicker class, deleting any references to the datepicker, etc. but nothing is working. Thanks in advance for helping!

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  • How do I achieve a 'select or insert' task using LINQ to EF?

    - by ProfK
    I have an import process with regions, locations, and shifts, where a Shift object has a Location property, and a Location object has a Region property. If a region name does not exist, I create the region, and like wise a location. I thought I could neatly encapsulate the 'Select if exists, or create' logic into helper classes for Region and Location, but if I use local data contexts in these classes I run into attach and detach overheads that become unpleasent. If I include a data context dependency in these classes, my encapsulation feels broken. What is the ideal method for achieving this, or where is the ideal place to place this functionality? In my example I have leaned heavily on the foreign key crutch provided with .NET 4.0, and simply avoided using entities in favour of direct foreign key values, but this is starting to smell. Example: public partial class ActivationLocation { public static int GetOrCreate(int regionId, string name) { using (var ents = new PvmmsEntities()) { var loc = ents.ActivationLocations.FirstOrDefault(x => x.RegionId == regionId && x.Name == name); if (loc == null) { loc = new ActivationLocation {RegionId = regionId, Name = name}; ents.AddToActivationLocations(loc); ents.SaveChanges(SaveOptions.AcceptAllChangesAfterSave); } return loc.LocationId; } } }

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  • Custom jQuery Gallery Thumbnail Behavior

    - by steve
    I recently got some help on here from SLaks (thank you) on the behavior of my custom gallery. I'm now trying to fix the way the thumbnails function. I've been toying with it for about an hour but I can't get it to work. Live version of the code: http://www.studioimbrue.com . Currently the code is as follows: $('.thumbscontainer ul li a').click(function() { var li_index = $(this).parents('ul').children('li').index($(this).parent("li")); $(this).parents('.thumbscontainer').parent().find('.captions ul li').fadeOut(); $(this).parents('.thumbscontainer').parent().find('.captions ul li:eq('+li_index+')').fadeIn(); }); $('.container .captions li').click(function() { var nextLi = $(this).fadeOut().next().fadeIn(); if (nextLi.length === 0) //If we're the last one, nextLi = $(this).siblings(':first-child').fadeIn(); }); The only problem is that when the gallery image is clicked, it goes to the next image in the series, yet the thumbnails do not change to the next one in the list. You can take a look at my previous question to see our discussion. Thanks

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  • beginning oop php question: do constructors take the place of getter?

    - by Joel
    I'm working through this tutorial: http://www.killerphp.com/tutorials/object-oriented-php/php-objects-page-3.php At first he has you create a setter and getter method in the class: <?php class person{ var $name; function set_name($new_name){ $this->name=$new_name; } function get_name(){ return $this->name; } } php?> And then you create the object and echo the results: <?php $stefan = new person(); $jimmy = new person(); $stefan ->set_name("Stefan Mischook"); $jimmy ->set_name("Nick Waddles"); echo "The first Object name is: ".$stefan->get_name(); echo "The second Object name is: ".$jimmy->get_name(); ?> Works as expected, and I understand. Then he introduces constructors: class person{ var $name; function __construct($persons_name) { $this->name = $persons_name; } function set_name($new_name){ $this->name=$new_name; } function get_name(){ return $this->name; } } And returns like so: <?php $joel = new person("Joel"); echo "The third Object name is: ".$joel->get_name(); ?> This is all fine and makes sense. Then I tried to combine the two and got an error, so I'm curious-is a constructor always taking the place of a "get" function? If you have a constructor, do you always need to include an argument when creating an object? Gives errors: <?php $stefan = new person(); $jimmy = new person(); $joel = new person("Joel Laviolette"); $stefan ->set_name("Stefan Mischook"); $jimmy ->set_name("Nick Waddles"); echo "The first Object name is: ".$stefan->get_name(); echo "The second Object name is: ".$jimmy->get_name(); echo "The third Object name is: ".$joel->get_name(); ?>

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  • Why would Basic Auth not work with my WCF client to Java SOAP Web Service?

    - by orj
    I have a Java based web service that requires basic authentication to communicate with it. If I type the WSDL url into my browser I'm prompted for Basic Auth. Which I can get by entering the correct credentials. However using my WCF client doesn't work. I construct my WCF client like this: var binding = new BasicHttpBinding { MaxReceivedMessageSize = 2048 * 10240, Security = { Mode = BasicHttpSecurityMode.TransportCredentialOnly, Transport = { ClientCredentialType = HttpClientCredentialType.Basic, Realm = "MYREALM", ProxyCredentialType = HttpProxyCredentialType.None }, Message = { ClientCredentialType = BasicHttpMessageCredentialType.UserName, AlgorithmSuite = SecurityAlgorithmSuite.Default } } }; var client = new WebServiceClient(binding, endpoint); client.ClientCredentials.UserName.UserName = username; client.ClientCredentials.UserName.Password = password; client.DoWebServiceMethod(); I get the following exception. System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized. at System.Net.HttpWebRequest.GetResponse() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) System.ServiceModel.Security.MessageSecurityException: The HTTP request is unauthorized with client authentication scheme 'Basic'. The authentication header received from the server was 'Basic realm="MYREALM"'. From what I can tell I'm doing things right. Where am I going wrong?

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  • Singletons, thread safety and structuremap

    - by Ben
    Hi, Currently I have the following class: public class PluginManager { private static bool s_initialized; private static object s_lock = new object(); public static void Initialize() { if (!s_initialized) { lock (s_lock) { if (!s_initialized) { // initialize s_initialized = true; } } } } } The important thing here is that Initialize() should only be executed once whilst the application is running. I thought that I would refactor this into a singleton class since this would be more thread safe?: public sealed class PluginService { static PluginService() { } private static PluginService _instance = new PluginService(); public static PluginService Instance { get { return _instance; } } private bool s_initialized; public void Initialize() { if (!s_initialized) { // initialize s_initialized = true; } } } Question one, is it still necessary to have the lock here (I have removed it) since we will only ever be working on the same instance? Finally, I want to use DI and structure map to initialize my servcices so I have refactored as below: public interface IPluginService { void Initialize(); } public class NewPluginService : IPluginService { private bool s_initialized; public void Initialize() { if (!s_initialized) { // initialize s_initialized = true; } } } And in my registry: ForRequestedType<IPluginService>() .TheDefaultIsConcreteType<NewPluginService>().AsSingletons(); This works as expected (singleton returning true in the following code): var instance1 = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IPluginService>(); var instance2 = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IPluginService>(); bool singleton = (instance1 == instance2); So my next question, is the structure map solution as thread safe as the singleton class (second example). The only downside is that this would still allow NewPluginService to be instantiated directly (if not using structure map). Many thanks, Ben

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  • SQL Injection Protection for dynamic queries

    - by jbugeja
    The typical controls against SQL injection flaws are to use bind variables (cfqueryparam tag), validation of string data and to turn to stored procedures for the actual SQL layer. This is all fine and I agree, however what if the site is a legacy one and it features a lot of dynamic queries. Then, rewriting all the queries is a herculean task and it requires an extensive period of regression and performance testing. I was thinking of using a dynamic SQL filter and calling it prior to calling cfquery for the actual execution. I found one filter in CFLib.org (http://www.cflib.org/udf/sqlSafe): <cfscript> /** * Cleans string of potential sql injection. * * @param string String to modify. (Required) * @return Returns a string. * @author Bryan Murphy ([email protected]) * @version 1, May 26, 2005 */ function metaguardSQLSafe(string) { var sqlList = "-- ,'"; var replacementList = "#chr(38)##chr(35)##chr(52)##chr(53)##chr(59)##chr(38)##chr(35)##chr(52)##chr(53)##chr(59)# , #chr(38)##chr(35)##chr(51)##chr(57)##chr(59)#"; return trim(replaceList( string , sqlList , replacementList )); } </cfscript> This seems to be quite a simple filter and I would like to know if there are ways to improve it or to come up with a better solution?

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  • Getting the current EnvDTE or IServiceProvider when NOT coding an Addin

    - by Vaccano
    I am coding up some design time code. I want to use this snippet: (Found here) var dte = (EnvDTE.DTE) GetService(typeof(EnvDTE.DTE)); if (dte != null) { var solution = dte.Solution; if (solution != null) { string baseDir = Path.GetDirectoryName(solution.FullName); } } Problem is that this does not compile. (GetService is not a known method call) I tried adding Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell (and Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.10.0) but it did not help. In looking around on the internet I found that you need a IServiceProvider to call this. But all the examples that show how to get an IServiceProvider use a EnvDTE. So, to get the current EnvDTE I need IServiceProvider. But to get an IServiceProvider I need an EnvDTE. (There is a hole in my bucket...) So, here is my question: In a normal WPF Application, how can I get the current instance of EnvDTE? NOTE: I am not looking for any old instance of EnvDTE. I need the one for my current Visual Studio instance (I run 3-4 instances of Visual Studio at a time.)

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  • VS2008 javascript debugger IE8 "there is no source code available for the current location"

    - by Jeff Keslinke
    I have almost the same problem as this unanswered question. The only difference is I'm using VS2008, but I'm in an MVC project calling this javascript function: function CompanyChange(compCtrl) { alert(compCtrl.value); debugger; var test; for (var i = 0; i < document.all.length; i++) { test = document.all[i]; } } I hit the alert, then I get the message "there is no source code available for the current location." At which point the page becomes unresponsive and I have to manually stop the debugger just to shut it down. I've logged into another machine and ran this exact code and it works fine, I hit the debugger and can step through. I've checked to make sure all settings in VSToolsOptionsDebugging are identical as well as IEOptionsAdvanced and they are. Both machines are Windows 7 Enterprise edition 32-bit, VS2008, IE8. I've also tried attaching a process manually in VS, and using the 'Developer Tools' in IE which didn't work (said there already was a process attached). I was hoping someone may have had this problem and found a work-around because I've already done a lot of searching and tried all the options I've read. Anyone else run into this? Thank you, Jeff

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  • Jeditable Datepicker onblur problem

    - by Shobha Deepthi
    Hi, I am using inline editing using Jeditable and datepicker. I have a column in my table which displays Date as a hyperlink. When I click on this it shows me the datepicker. And when a particular date is selected its updated in the backend and the cell now is updated with the changed value. However, am having problem with onblur event while changing month or years. This event gets triggered when I click on "Prev" or "Next" buttons on the datepicker control. This causes an exception when the date is selected. This works fine as long as the date selected is in the current month. I tried all possible solutions listed here: stackoverflow.com/questions/2007205/jeditable-datepicker-causing-blur-when-changing-month If settimeout the control does not change back to a normal hyperlink on closing the datepicker or on a true onblur event. Here's my code, $.editable.addInputType('datepicker', { element : function(settings, original) { var input = $(''); if (settings.width != 'none') { input.width(settings.width); } if (settings.height != 'none') { input.height(settings.height); } input.attr('autocomplete','off'); $(this).append(input); return(input); }, plugin : function(settings, original) { var form = this; settings.onblur = function(e) { t = setTimeout(function() { original.reset.apply(form, [settings, self]); }, 100); }; $(this).find('input').datepicker({ changeMonth: true, changeYear: true, dateFormat: 'dd-M-y', closeAtTop: true, onSelect: function(dateText) { $(this).hide(); $(form).trigger('submit'); } }); }, submit : function(settings, original) { } }); $(function() { $('.edit_eta').editable('update_must_fix_eta.php', { id: 'bugid', name: 'eta', type: 'datepicker', event: 'click', select : true, width: '50px', onblur:'cancel', cssclass : 'editable', indicator : 'Updating ETA, please wait.', style : 'inherit', submitdata:{version:'4.2(4)',tag:'REL_4_2_4',qstr:1} }); }); I tried hacking jeditable.js as mentioned on this link: http://groups.google.com/group/jquery-dev/browse_thread/thread/265340ea692a2f47 Even this does not help. Any help is appreciated.

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  • Fluent interface design and code smell

    - by Jiho Han
    public class StepClause { public NamedStepClause Action1() {} public NamedStepClause Action2() {} } public class NamedStepClause : StepClause { public StepClause Step(string name) {} } Basically, I want to be able to do something like this: var workflow = new Workflow().Configure() .Action1() .Step("abc").Action2() .Action2() .Step("def").Action1(); So, some "steps" are named and some are not. The thing I do not like is that the StepClause has knowledge of its derived class NamedStepClause. I tried a couple of things to make this sit better with me. I tried to move things out to interfaces but then the problem just moved from the concrete to the interfaces - INamedStepClause still need to derive from IStepClause and IStepClause needs to return INamedStepClause to be able to call Step(). I could also make Step() part of a completely separate type. Then we do not have this problem and we'd have: var workflow = new Workflow().Configure() .Step().Action1() .Step("abc").Action2() .Step().Action2() .Step("def").Action1(); Which is ok but I'd like to make the step-naming optional if possible. I found this other post on SO here which looks interesting and promising. What are your opinions? I'd think the original solution is completely unacceptable or is it? By the way, those action methods will take predicates and functors and I don't think I want to take an additional parameter for naming the step there. The point of it all is, for me, is to only define these action methods in one place and one place only. So the solutions from the referenced link using generics and extension methods seem to be the best approaches so far.

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  • jquery ui slider IE7 bug...

    - by Reigel
    When you are holding the handles to slide them the width of the range blows out to 100% width, but snaps back to the width it's supposed to be once you release the handle. jQuery 1.4.2 UI 1.8.2 please help jQuery if ($("#topImageSlider").length){ var max = 120; var initialValue = 40; function refreshValue(){ //$('#sliderValue .current').text($("#topImageSlider").slider("value")); $('#sliderValue .current').text($('.ui-slider-range').width()); } $("#topImageSlider").slider({ orientation: 'horizontal', range: "min", max: max, min: 1, value: initialValue, slide: refreshValue, change: refreshValue }).after('<div id="sliderValue"><span class="current">'+ initialValue +'</span> / <span class="max">'+ max +'</span></div>'); } css #topImageSlider, #sliderValue { margin: 0 auto; width: 572px; text-align: center; } #topImageSlider { margin-top: 20px; background: url(../img/bg/slider.png) no-repeat; height: 5px; } #topImageSlider .ui-slider-range { background: url(../img/bg/slider-progress.gif) repeat-x; left: 2px; height: 5px; } #topImageSlider .ui-slider-handle { background: url(../img/btn/slider-handle.png) no-repeat; width: 24px; height: 24px; top: -8px; outline: 0; cursor: pointer; z-index: 999; } #sliderValue { margin-top: 10px; color: #bbb; font-weight: bold; } #sliderValue .current { color: #ff6e0d; }

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  • Problem with Json Date format when calling cross-domain proxy

    - by Christo Fur
    I am using a proxy service to allow my client side javascript to talk to a service on another domain The proxy is a simple ashx file with simply gets the request and forwards it onto the service on the other domain : using (var sr = new System.IO.StreamReader(context.Request.InputStream)) { requestData = sr.ReadToEnd(); } string data = HttpUtility.UrlDecode(requestData); using (var client = new WebClient()) { client.BaseAddress = serviceUrl; client.Headers.Add("Content-Type", "application/json"); response = client.UploadString(new Uri(webserviceUrl), data); } The client javascript calling this proxy looks like this function TestMethod() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/custommodules/configuratorproxyservice.ashx?m=TestMethod", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: JSON.parse('{"testObj":{"Name":"jo","Ref":"jones","LastModified":"\/Date(-62135596800000+0000)\/"}}'), dataType: "json", success: AjaxSucceeded, error: AjaxFailed }); function AjaxSucceeded(result) { alert(result); } function AjaxFailed(result) { alert(result.status + ' - ' + result.statusText); } } This works fine until I have to pass a date. At which point I get a Bad Request error when the proxy tries to call the service I did have this working at one point but have now lost it. Have tried using JSON.Parse on the object before sending. and JSON.Stringify, but no joy anyone got any ideas what I am missing

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  • Setting an instanced class property overwrites the property in all instances.

    - by Peter Moore
    I have two instances of a class. Setting a property in the first instance will set it for the second instance too. Why? It shouldn't. The property is not a "prototype property". Check the code below, what happens to Peter Griffin? Two objects are created and given the name "Peter Griffin" and "Roger Moore" but the alert boxes will say "Peter Moore" and "Roger Moore". What happened to Peter Griffin? var BaseClass = function(){ this.name = ""; this.data = {}; this.data.lastname = ""; } var ExtendedClass = function(){ this.setName = function(fname, lname){ this.name = fname; this.data.lastname = lname; } this.hello = function(){ alert("Full name: " + this.name + " " + this.data.lastname); } } ExtendedClass.prototype = new BaseClass(); pilot = new ExtendedClass(); driver = new ExtendedClass(); pilot.setName("Peter", "Griffin"); driver.setName("Roger", "Moore"); pilot.hello(); // Full name: Peter Moore driver.hello(); // Full name: Roger Moore

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  • Cast then check or check then cast?

    - by jamesrom
    Which method is regarded as best practice? Cast first? public string Describe(ICola cola) { var coke = cola as CocaCola; if (coke != null) { string result; // some unique coca-cola only code here. return result; } var pepsi = cola as Pepsi; if (pepsi != null) { string result; // some unique pepsi only code here. return result; } } Or should I check first, cast later? public string Describe(ICola cola) { if (cola is CocaCola) { coke = (CocaCola) cola; string result; // some unique coca-cola only code here. return result; } if (cola is Pepsi) { pepsi = (Pepsi) cola; string result; // some unique pepsi only code here. return result; } } Can you see any other way to do this?

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  • c# linq to xml to list

    - by WtFudgE
    I was wondering if there is a way to get a list of results into a list with linq to xml. If I would have the following xml for example: <?xml version="1.0"?> <Sports xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <SportPages> <SportPage type="test"> <LinkPage> <IDList> <string>1</string> <string>2</string> </IDList> </LinkPage> </SportPage> </SportPages> </Sports> How could I get a list of strings from the IDList? I'm fairly new to linq to xml so I just tried some stuff out, I'm currently at this point: var IDs = from sportpage in xDoc.Descendants("SportPages").Descendants("SportPage") where sportpage.Attribute("type").Value == "Karate" select new { ID = sportpage.Element("LinkPage").Element("IDList").Elements("string") }; But the var is to chaotic to read decently. Isn't there a way I could just get a list of strings from this? Thanks

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  • C# average function without overflow exception

    - by Ron Klein
    .NET Framework 3.5. I'm trying to calculate the average of some pretty large numbers. For instance: using System; using System.Linq; class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var items = new long[] { long.MaxValue - 100, long.MaxValue - 200, long.MaxValue - 300 }; try { var avg = items.Average(); Console.WriteLine(avg); } catch (OverflowException ex) { Console.WriteLine("can't calculate that!"); } Console.ReadLine(); } } Obviously, the mathematical result is 9223372036854775607 (long.MaxValue - 200), but I get an exception there. This is because the implementation (on my machine) to the Average extension method, as inspected by .NET Reflector is: public static double Average(this IEnumerable<long> source) { if (source == null) { throw Error.ArgumentNull("source"); } long num = 0L; long num2 = 0L; foreach (long num3 in source) { num += num3; num2 += 1L; } if (num2 <= 0L) { throw Error.NoElements(); } return (((double) num) / ((double) num2)); } I know I can use a BigInt library (yes, I know that it is included in .NET Framework 4.0, but I'm tied to 3.5). But I still wonder if there's a pretty straight forward implementation of calculating the average of integers without an external library. Do you happen to know about such implementation? Thanks!! UPDATE: The previous example, of three large integers, was just an example to illustrate the overflow issue. The question is about calculating an average of any set of numbers which might sum to a large number that exceeds the type's max value. Sorry about this confusion. I also changed the question's title to avoid additional confusion. Thanks all!!

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  • Delphi SAPI Text-To-Speech

    - by Andreas Rejbrand
    First of all: this is not a duplicate of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1021490/delphi-and-sapi. I have a specific problem with the "SAPI in Delphi" subject. I have used the excellent Import Type-Library guide in Delphi 2009 to get a TSpVoice component in the component palette. This works great. With var SpVoice: TSpVoice; I can write SpVoice.Speak('This is an example.', 1); to get asynchronous audio output. First question According to the documentation, I would be able to write SpVoice.Speak('This is an example.', 0); to get synchronous audio output, but instead I get an EZeroDivide exception. Why's that? Second question But more importantly, I would like to be able to create the SpVoice object dynamically (I think this is called to "late-bound" the SpVoice object), partly because only a very small fraction of all sessions of my app will use it, and partly because I do not want to assume the existance of the SAPI server on the end-user's system. To this end, I tried procedure TForm1.FormClick(Sender: TObject); var SpVoice: Variant; begin SpVoice := CreateOleObject('SAPI.SpVoice'); SpVoice.Speak('this is a test', 0); end; which apparently does nothing at all! (Replacing the 0 with 1 gives me the EZeroDivide exception.) Disclaimer I am rather new to COM/OLE automation. I am sorry for any ignorance or stupidity shown by me in this post...

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  • nMoq basic questions

    - by devoured elysium
    I made the following test for my class: var mock = new Mock<IRandomNumberGenerator>(); mock.Setup(framework => framework.Generate(0, 50)) .Returns(7.0) var rnac = new RandomNumberAverageCounter(mock.Object, 1, 100); rnac.Run(); double result = rnac.GetAverage(); Assert.AreEqual(result, 7.0, 0.1); The problem here was that I changed my mind about what range of values Generate(int min, int max) would use. I ran the test and it failed. I know that that is what it's supposed to happen but I was left wondering if isn't there a way to launch an exception or throw in a message when trying to run the method params. Also, if I want to run this Generate() method 10 times with different values (let's say, from 1 to 10), will I have to make 10 mock setups or something, or is there a special method for it? The best I could think of is this (which isn't bad, I'm just asking if there is other better way): for (int i = 1; i < 10; ++i) { mock.Setup(framework => framework.Generate(1, 100)) .Returns((double)i); } Thanks

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  • Creating Array of settings names and values using ADO.NET Entities

    - by jordan.baucke
    I'm using an ADO.NET Entities (.edmx) data-model along with MVC2 to build an application. I have a DB table where I want to store settings for method that run elsewhere. MVC2 allows me to create a view, editor, etc. to update this table which is great, but now when I want to do simple assignments based on column titles I'm a bit confused. For example, I would like to easily build an array that I could offset into the record's value based on it's "Title" Column: var entities = new ManagerEntities(); Setting[] settings = entities.settings.ToArray(); This returns something like: Settings[0].[SettingTitle][SettingValue] However, I would like to more easily index into the value than having to loop through all the returned settings, when they're already index. string URL_ID_NEED = [NeededUrl][http://www.url.com] Am I missing something relatively simple? Thanks! ========================= *Update* ========================= Ok, I think I've got a solution, but I'm wondering why this would be so complicated, and if I'm just not thinking of the right context for ADO.NET objects, here's what I did: public string GetSetting(string SettingName) { var entities = new LabelManagerEntities(); IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, object>> entityKeyValues = new KeyValuePair<string, object>[] { new KeyValuePair<string, object>("SettingTitle", SettingName) }; EntityKey key = new EntityKey("LabelManagerEntities.Settings", entityKeyValues); // Get the object from the context or the persisted store by its key. Setting settingvalue = (Setting)entities.GetObjectByKey(key); return settingvalue.SettingValue.ToString(); } This method handles the job of querying the Entities by "Key" to get back the correct value as a returned string (which I can than strip out the " ", or or cast to an integer, etc. etc.,) Am I just duplicating functionality that already exists in ADO.NET's design patterns (I'm pretty new to it) -- or is this a reasonable solution?

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  • Storing UTF8 string in a UnicodeString

    - by Mick
    In Delphi 2007 you can store a UTF8 string in a WideString and then pass that onto a Win32 function, e.g. var UnicodeStr: WideString; UTF8Str: WideString; begin UnicodeStr:='some unicode text'; UTF8Str:=UTF8Encode(UnicodeStr); Windows.SomeFunction(PWideChar(UTF8Str), ...) end; Delphi 2007 does not interfere with the contents of UTF8Str, i.e. it is left as a UTF8 encoded string stored in a WideString. But in Delphi 2010 I'm struggling to find a way to do the same thing, i.e. store a UTF8 encoded string in a WideString without it being automatically converted from UTF8. I cannot pass a pointer to UTF8 string (or RawByteString), e.g. the following will obviously not work: var UnicodeStr: WideString; UTF8Str: UTF8String; begin UnicodeStr:='some unicode text'; UTF8Str:=UTF8Encode(UnicodeStr); Windows.SomeFunction(PWideChar(UTF8Str), ...) end; Any help appreciated. Thanks.

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