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  • Split a string by comma, quote and full-stop.. with a few exceptions

    - by dunc
    I've got a lot of text, similar to the following paragraph, which I'd like to split into words without punctuation (', ", ,, ., newline etc).. with a few exceptions. Initially considered endemic to the Chalakudy River system in Kerala state, southern India, but now recognised to have a wider distribution in surrounding drainages including the Periyar, Manimala, and Pamba river though the Manimala data may be questionable given it seems to be the type locality of P. denisonii. In the Achankovil River basin it occurs sympatrically, and sometimes syntopically, with P. denisonii. Wild stocks may have dwindled by as much as 50% in the last 15 years or so with collection for the aquarium trade largely held responsible although habitats are also being degraded by pollution from agricultural and domestic sources, plus destructive fishing methods involving explosives or organic toxins. The text refers to P. denisonii which is a species of fish. It's an abbreviation of Genus species. I would like this reference to be one word. So, for instance, this is the kind of array I'd like to see: Array ( ... [44] given [45] it [46] seems [47] to [48] be [49] the [50] type [51] locality [52] of [53] P. denisonii [54] In [55] the ... ) The only things that distinguish these species references such as P. denisonii from a new sentence like end. New are: The P (for Puntius, as in the P. in the aforementioned example) is only ever one letter, always a capital the d (as in . denisonii) is always either a lower case letter or an apostrophe (') What regexp can I use with preg_split to give me such an array? I've tried a simple explode( " ", $array ) but it doesn't do the job at all. Thanks in advance,

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  • Java - How to pass a Generic parameter as Class<T> to a constructor

    - by Joe Almore
    I have a problem here that still cannot solve, the thing is I have this abstract class: public abstract class AbstractBean<T> { private Class<T> entityClass; public AbstractBean(Class<T> entityClass) { this.entityClass = entityClass; }... Now I have another class that inherits this abstract: @Stateless @LocalBean public class BasicUserBean<T extends BasicUser> extends AbstractBean<T> { private Class<T> user; public BasicUserBean() { super(user); // Error: cannot reference user before supertype contructor has been called. } My question is how can I make this to work?, I am trying to make the class BasicUserBean inheritable, so if I have class PersonBean which inherits BasicUserBean then I could set in the Generic the entity Person which also inherits the entity BasicUser. And it will end up being: @Stateless @LocalBean public class PersonBean extends BasicUserBean<Person> { public PersonBean() { super(Person.class); } ... I just want to inherit the basic functionality from BasicUserBean to all descendants, so I do not have to repeat the same code among all descendants. Thanks!.

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  • how to edit controls in a system::thread

    - by Ian Lundberg
    I need to be able to add items to a listbox inside of a thread. Code is below. 1. ref class Work 2. { 3. public: 4. static void RecieveThread() 5. { 6. while (true) 7. { 8. ZeroMemory(cID, 64); 9. ZeroMemory(message, 256); 10. if(recv(sConnect, message, 256, NULL) != SOCKET_ERROR && recv(sConnect, cID, 64, NULL) != SOCKET_ERROR) 11. { 12. ID = atoi(cID); 13. String^ meep = gcnew String(message); 14. lbxMessages->Items->Add(meep); 15. check = 1; 16. } 17. } 18. } 19. }; I get the error Error: a nonstatic member reference must be relative to a specific object on line 14. Is there any way to get it to let me do that? Because if I try to use String^ meep; outside of that Thread it doesn't contain anything. It works PERFECT when I use it within the thread but not outside of it. I need to be able to add that message to the listbox. If anyone can help I would appreciate it.

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  • AS3 colorTransform over multiple frames?

    - by user359519
    (Flash Professional, AS3) I'm working on a custom avatar system where you can select various festures and colors. For example, I have 10 hairstyles, and a colorPicker to change the color. mc_myAvatar has 10 frames. Each frame has a movieclip of a different hairstyle (HairStyle1, HairStyle2, etc.) Here's my code: var hairColor:ColorTransform; hairColor = mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer.transform.colorTransform; hairColor.color = 0xCCCC00; mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer.transform.colorTransform = hairColor; This correctly changes the initial color. I have a "nextHair" button to advance mc_myAvatar.hair to the next frame. When I click the button, I get an error message saying that I have a null object reference. I added a trace, and mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer is null on frame 2. Why??? I've clearly named HairStyle2 as "colorLayer" in frame 2. I think the problem is related to me using the same name for different classes/movieclips, but I don't know how to fix the problem... I added a square movieclip below my hairStyle movieclips, named the square "colorLevel", and deleted the name from my hairStyle clips. When I click the next button, the square correctly maintains the color from frame to frame. However, having a square doesn't do me much good. :( I tried converting the hairStyle layer to a mask. Doing this, however, results in yet another "null object" error - mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer is null after frame 1. I even tried "spanning" my colorLevel across all frames (no keyframes), thinking that this would give me just one movieclip to work with. No luck. Same error! What's going on, here? Why am I getting these null objects, when they are clearly defined in my movieclip? I'm also open to suggestions on a better way to do multiple frames and colors.

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  • C# language questions

    - by Water Cooler v2
    1) What is int? Is it any different from the struct System.Int32? I understand that the former is a C# alias (typedef or #define equivalant) for the CLR type System.Int32. Is this understanding correct? 2) When we say: IComparable x = 10; Is that like saying: IComparable x = new System.Int32(); But we can't new a struct, right? or in C like syntax: struct System.In32 *x; x=>someThing = 10; 3) What is String with a capitalized S? I see in Reflector that it is the sealed String class, which, of course, is a reference type, unlike the System.Int32 above, which is a value type. What is string, with an uncapitalized s, though? Is that also the C# alias for this class? Why can I not see the alias definitions in Reflector? 4) Try to follow me down this subtle train of thought, if you please. We know that a storage location of a particular type can only access properties and members on its interface. That means: Person p = new Customer(); p.Name = "Water Cooler v2"; // legal because as Name is defined on Person. but // illegal without an explicit cast even though the backing // store is a Customer, the storage location is of type // Person, which doesn't support the member/method being // accessed/called. p.GetTotalValueOfOrdersMade(); Now, with that inference, consider this scenario: int i = 10; // obvious System.object defines no member to // store an integer value or any other value in. // So, my question really is, when the integer is // boxed, what is the *type* it is actually boxed to. // In other words, what is the type that forms the // backing store on the heap, for this operation? object x = i;

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  • Java How to find a value in a linked list iteratively and recursively

    - by Roxy
    Hi I have a method that has a reference to a linked list and a int value. So, this method would count and return how often the value happens in the linked list. So, I decided to make a class, public class ListNode{ public ListNode (int v, ListNode n) {value = v; next = n;) public int value; public ListNode next; } Then, the method would start with a public static int findValue(ListNode x, int valueToCount){ // so would I do it like this?? I don't know how to find the value, // like do I check it? for (int i =0; i< x.length ;i++){ valueToCount += valueToCount; } So, I CHANGED this part, If I did this recursively, then I would have public static int findValue(ListNode x, int valueToCount) { if (x.next != null && x.value == valueToCount { return 1 + findValue(x, valueToCount);} else return new findvalue(x, valueToCount); SO, is the recursive part correct now?

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  • Using unions to simplify casts

    - by Steven Lu
    I realize that what I am trying to do isn't safe. But I am just doing some testing and image processing so my focus here is on speed. Right now this code gives me the corresponding bytes for a 32-bit pixel value type. struct Pixel { unsigned char b,g,r,a; }; I wanted to check if I have a pixel that is under a certain value (e.g. r, g, b <= 0x10). I figured I wanted to just conditional-test the bit-and of the bits of the pixel with 0x00E0E0E0 (I could have wrong endianness here) to get the dark pixels. Rather than using this ugly mess (*((uint32_t*)&pixel)) to get the 32-bit unsigned int value, i figured there should be a way for me to set it up so I can just use pixel.i, while keeping the ability to reference the green byte using pixel.g. Can I do this? This won't work: struct Pixel { unsigned char b,g,r,a; }; union Pixel_u { Pixel p; uint32_t bits; }; I would need to edit my existing code to say pixel.p.g to get the green color byte. Same happens if I do this: union Pixel { unsigned char c[4]; uint32_t bits; }; This would work too but I still need to change everything to index into c, which is a bit ugly but I can make it work with a macro if i really needed to.

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  • jQuery .ready() automatically assigning variables for each element with ID in DOM

    - by Greg
    I have noticed some unexpected behaviour when using the jQuery .ready() function, whereby afterwards you can reference an element in the DOM simply by using its ID without prior declaration or assignment: <html> <script src="jquery.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function() { myowndiv.innerHTML = 'wow!' }); </script> <body> <div id="myowndiv"></div> </body> </html> I would have expected to have to declare and assign myowndiv with document.getElementById("myowndiv"); or $("#myowndiv"); before I could call innerHTML or anything else on it? Is this behaviour by design? Can anyone explain why? My fear is that if I refactor and end up not using .ready() or even using jQuery at all then my code will fail to execute. Cheers!

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  • Vectors or Java arrays for Tetris?

    - by StackedCrooked
    I'm trying to create a Tetris-like game with Clojure and I'm having some trouble deciding the data structure for the playing field. I want to define the playing field as a mutable grid. The individual blocks are also grids, but don't need to be mutable. My first attempt was to define a grid as a vector of vectors. For example an S-block looks like this: :s-block { :grids [ [ [ 0 1 1 ] [ 1 1 0 ] ] [ [ 1 0 ] [ 1 1 ] [ 0 1 ] ] ] } But that turns out to be rather tricky for simple things like iterating and painting (see the code below). For making the grid mutable my initial idea was to make each row a reference. But then I couldn't really figure out how to change the value of a specific cell in a row. One option would have been to create each individual cell a ref instead of each row. But that feels like an unclean approach. I'm considering using Java arrays now. Clojure's aget and aset functions will probably turn out to be much simpler. However before digging myself in a deeper mess I want to ask ideas/insights. How would you recommend implementing a mutable 2d grid? Feel free to share alternative approaches as well. Source code current state: Tetris.clj (rev452)

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  • Get textboxes in to a list! c#

    - by Chelsea_cole
    public class Account { public string Username { get { return Username; } set { Username = value; } } } public class ListAcc { static void Data() { List<Account> UserList = new List<Account>(); //example of adding user account Account acc = new Account(); acc.Username = textBox1.Text; //error UserList.Add(acc); } } there are a error from access to textBox1.Text? ( An object reference is required for the nonstatic field, method, or property)... Someone can help? but if the code is: private void textBox1_TextChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { List<Account> UserList = new List<Account>(); //example of adding user account Account acc = new Account(); acc.Username = textBox1.Text; UserList.Add(acc); } it's work! someone can help me fix my error? Many thanks!

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  • destructor being called by subclass

    - by zero
    I'm currently learning more about php objects and constructors/destructors, but i've noticed in my code that the parent class's destructor is being called twice, I thought it was because i was extending the first class to my second class and that the second class was calling it, but this is what the php docs say about that: Like constructors, parent destructors will not be called implicitly by the engine. In order to run a parent destructor, one would have to explicitly call parent::__destruct() in the destructor body. so if it is not being called by the subclass then is it because by extended the first class that i've made a reference to the parent class making it call itself twice or I'm I way off base here? the code: <?php class test{ public $test1 = "this is a test of a pulic property"; private $test2 = "this is a test of a private property"; protected $test3 = "this is a test of a protected property"; const hello = 900000; function __construct($h){ //echo 'this is the constructor test '.$h; } function x($x2){ echo ' this is fn x'.$x2; } function y(){ print "this is fn y"; } } $obj = new test("this is an \"arg\" sent to instance of test"); class hey extends test{ function hey(){ $this->x('<br>from the host with the most'); echo ' <br>from hey class'.$this->test3; } } $obj2 = new hey(); echo $obj2::hello; ?>

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  • Is there a point to have multiple VS projects for an ASP.NET MVC application?

    - by mare
    I'm developing MVC application where I currently have 3 projects in solution. Core (it is supposed to be for Repositories, Business Classes, Models, HttpModules, HttpFilters, Settings, etc.) Data access (Data provider, for instance SqlDataProvider for working with SQL Server datastore - implements Repository interfaces, XmlDataProvider - also implements Repository interfaces but for local XML files as datastore) ASP.NET MVC project (all the typical stuff, UI, controllers, content, scripts, resources and helpers). I have no Models in my ASP.NET MVC project. I've just run into a problem because of that coz I want to use the new DataAnnotation feature in MVC 2 on my Bussiness class, which are, as said in Core, however I have I want to be able to localize the error messages. This where my problem starts. I cannot use my Resources from MVC project in Core. The MVC project references Core and it cannot be vice-versa. My options as I see them are: 1) Move Resources out but this would require correcting a whole bunch of Views and Controllers where I reference them, 2) Make a complete restructure of my app What are your thoughts on this? Also, Should I just move everything business related into Models folder in MVC project?? Does it even make any sense to have it structured like that, because we can just make subfolders for everything under MVC project? The whole Core library is not intended to ever be used for anything else, so there actually no point of compiling it to a separate DLL. Suggestions appreciated.

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  • How to get the parameter names of an object's constructors (reflection)?

    - by Tom
    Say I somehow got an object reference from an other class: Object myObj = anObject; Now I can get the class of this object: Class objClass = myObj.getClass(); Now, I can get all constructors of this class: Constructor[] constructors = objClass.getConstructors(); Now, I can loop every constructor: if (constructors.length > 0) { for (int i = 0; i < constructors.length; i++) { System.out.println(constructors[i]); } } This is already giving me a good summary of the constructor, for example a constructor public Test(String paramName) is shown as public Test(java.lang.String) Instead of giving me the class type however, I want to get the name of the parameter.. in this case "paramName". How would I do that? I tried the following without success: if (constructors.length > 0) { for (int iCon = 0; iCon < constructors.length; iCon++) { Class[] params = constructors[iCon].getParameterTypes(); if (params.length > 0) { for (int iPar = 0; iPar < params.length; iPar++) { Field fields[] = params[iPar].getDeclaredFields(); for (int iFields = 0; iFields < fields.length; iFields++) { String fieldName = fields[i].getName(); System.out.println(fieldName); } } } } } Unfortunately, this is not giving me the expected result. Could anyone tell me how I should do this or what I am doing wrong? Thanks!

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  • In C# should I reuse a function / property parameter to compute cleaner temporary value or create a

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    The example below may not be problematic as is, but it should be enough to illustrate a point. Imagine that there is a lot more work than trimming going on. public string Thingy { set { // I guess we can throw a null reference exception here on null. value = value.Trim(); // Well, imagine that there is so much processing to do this.thingy = value; // That this.thingy = value.Trim() would not fit on one line ... So, if the assignment has to take two lines, then I either have to abusereuse the parameter, or create a temporary variable. I am not a big fan of temporary variables. On the other hand, I am not a fan of convoluted code. I did not include an example where a function is involved, but I am sure you can imagine it. One concern I have is if a function accepted a string and the parameter was "abused", and then someone changed the signature to ref in both places - this ought to mess things up, but ... who would knowingly make such a change if it already worked without a ref? Seems like it is their responsibility in this case. If I mess with the value of value, am I doing something non-trivial under the hood? If you think that both approaches are acceptable, then which do you prefer and why? Thanks.

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  • .NET List Thread-Safe Implementation Suggestion needed

    - by Bamboo
    .Net List class isn't thread safe. I hope to achieve the minimal lock needed and yet still fulfilling the requirement such that as for reading, phantom record is allowed, and for writing, they must be thread-safe so there won't be any lost updates. So I have something like public static List<string> list = new List<string>(); In Methods that have **List.Add**/**List.Remove** , I always lock to assure thread safety lock (lockHelper) { list.Add(obj); or list.Remove(obj); } In Methods that requires **List Reading** I don't care about phantom record so I go ahead to read without any locking. In this case. Return a bool by checking whether a string had been added. if (list.Count() != 0) { return list.Contains("some string") } All I did was locking write accesses, and allow read accesses to go through without any locking. Is my thread safety idea valid? I understand there is List size expansion. Will it be ok? My guess is that when a List is expanding, it may uses a temp. list. This is ok becasue the temp list size will always have a boundary, and .Net class is well implemented, ie. there shouldn't be any indexOutOfBound or circular reference problems when reading was caught in updates.

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  • UPDATE Table SET Field

    - by davlyo
    This is my Very first Post! Bear with me. I have an Update Statement that I am trying to understand how SQL Server handles it. UPDATE a SET a.vField3 = b.vField3 FROM tableName a INNER JOIN tableName b ON a.vField1 = b.vField1 AND b.nField2 = a.nField2 – 1 This is my query in its simplest form. vField1 is a Varchar nField2 is an int (autonumber) vField3 is a Varchar I have left the WHERE clause out so understand there is logic that otherwise makes this a nessessity. Say vField1 is a Customer Number and that Customer has 3 records The value in nField2 is 1, 2, and 3 consecutively. vField3 is a Status When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 1 there is no a.nField2 -1 so it continues When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 2, b.nField2 = 1 When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 3, b.nField2 = 2 So when the Update is on a.nField2 = 2, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 1) And it SETs the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the Update is on a.nField2 = 3, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 2) And it (should) SET the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the process is complete –the Second of three records looks as expected –hence the value in vField3 of the second record reflects the value in vField3 from the First record However, vField3 of the Third record does not reflect the value in vField3 from the Second record. I think this demonstrates that SQL Server may be producing a transaction of some sort and then an update. Question: How can I get the DB to Update after each transaction so I can reference the values generated by each transaction?

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  • Can I make a derived class inherit a derived member from its base class in Java?

    - by Eric
    I have code that looks like this: public class A { public void doStuff() { System.out.print("Stuff successfully done"); } } public class B extends A { public void doStuff() { System.out.print("Stuff successfully done, but in a different way"); } public void doMoreStuff() { System.out.print("More advanced stuff successully done"); } } public class AWrapper { public A member; public AWrapper(A member) { this.member = member; } public void doStuffWithMember() { a.doStuff(); } } public class BWrapper extends AWrapper { public B member; public BWrapper(B member) { super(member); //Pointer to member stored in two places: this.member = member; //Not great if one changes, but the other does not } public void doStuffWithMember() { member.doMoreStuff(); } } However, there is a problem with this code. I'm storing a reference to the member in two places, but if one changes and the other does not, there could be trouble. I know that in Java, an inherited method can narrow down its return type (and perhaps arguments, but I'm not certain) to a derived class. Is the same true of fields?

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  • Show dialog while loading new screen

    - by darkdusky
    I have a front screen with a button which opens a second screen. The second screen can take a few seconds to load so I want to display a dialog while loading. My problem is the dialog does not display while loading second screen, but it displays when I return to first page from the second page. If I comment out the "startActivity" to open second page the dialog shows fine. I'm fairly new to android programming - I guess it has something to do with threads. //code snippet from inside onCreate: NewGame.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View arg0) { //does not get displayed before 2nd page opens showDialog(DIALOG2_KEY); //shows fine if next 2 lines commented out Intent i = new Intent(screen1.this, SudukuXL.class); startActivity(i); I've dealt with the dialog showing on returning to the front screen using onPause(). I've tried using threads to seperate the dialog from the startActivity but I've had no luck. Any help would be appreciated. I used code from Android examples to create dialog. I include below for reference: protected Dialog onCreateDialog(int id) { switch (id) { case DIALOG2_KEY: { ProgressDialog dialog = new ProgressDialog(this); dialog.setMessage("Loading..."); dialog.setIndeterminate(true); dialog.setCancelable(true); return dialog; } } return null; }

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  • Supersized, show a div depending on the slide

    - by Dlacrem
    EDIT: So, I want to take a different approach to try and clarify what I'm looking for, I've been reading as much as I could these last hours and I feel I have a better grasp of how the system works, but I still don't know how to accomplish my goal. Reference links: -SUPERSIZED API So, I have the following script: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document.body).ready(function () { if (vars.current_slide == 5){**-I want it to display a div if the slider is the number 5-** } }); </script> My questions are these: 1) What do I add in the - - area to display a div that only shows up when the slider is at the 5th slide? 2) Am I doing the rest right or am I missing something? I created that code so it could be terribly wrong lol, hopefuly I got something right :P That's all, hope this clarifies it. Thank you all for the help! I'm really excited to start creating my own scripts :D Alright, so I've uploaded the site with the code you posted and it still doesn't seem to work, I also tried reducing the code to the conditional and the result only but that didn't work either, mind checking it out? Click Here Thanks for giving it a thought!

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  • Event-based interaction between two custom classes

    - by Antenka
    Hello everybody. I have such problem: I have 2 custom components, which have their own nesting hierarchy ... One is container for another. I have to "familiarize them" with each other. The way I'm trying to achieve that is using global events (one side is firing and the other one is catching): Application.application.addEventListener("Hello", function (data:Event):void{ // .. some actions }); //and Application.application.dispatchEvent(new Event(Hello)); Everything is pretty good, but there's one thingy .. when I'm trying to catch the event, I can't access the class, who is catching it. E.g.: Container fires the event. Child caughts it. Then should be created the connection between container and it's child. BUT, the only thing I could acheive is passing a reference to the Container in the DynamicEvent. Is there any chance that I could access the child at the event-handler function. Or maybe there's more elegant way to solve this problem ... Any help would be greately appreciated :)

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  • Sharing class member data between sub components

    - by Tim Gradwell
    I have an aggregate 'main' class which contains some data which I wish to share. The main class also has other class members. I want to share the data with these other class members. What is the correct / neatest way to do this? The specific example I have is as follows. The main class is a .net Form. I have some controls (actually controls within controls) on the main form which need access to the shared data. Main Form - DataX - DataY - Control1 -- Subcontrol1 - Control2 -- SubControl2 SubControls 1 and 2 both wish to access DataX and DataY. The trouble is, I feel like better practice (to reduce coupling), would be that either subcontrols should not know about Main Form, or Main Form should not know about subcontrols - probably the former. For subcontrols not to know about Main Form, would probably mean Main Form passing references to both Controls 1 and 2, which in turn would pass the references on to SubControls 1 and 2. Lots of lines of code which just forward the references. If I later added DataZ and DataW, and Controls 3 and 4 and SubControls 3 and 4, I'd have to add lots more reference forwarding code. It seems simpler to me to give SubControls 1 and 2 member references to Main Form. That way, any sub control could just ask for MainForm.DataX or MainForm.DataY and if I ever added new data, I could just access it directly from the sub controls with no hassle. But it still involves setting the 'MainForm' member references every time I add a new Control or Subcontrol. And it gives me a gut feeling of 'wrong'. As you might be able to tell I'm not happy with either of my solutions. Is there a better way? Thanks

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  • Should we use p(..) or (*p)(..) when p is a function pointer?

    - by q0987
    Reference: [33.11] Can I convert a pointer-to-function to a void*? #include "stdafx.h" #include <iostream> int f(char x, int y) { return x; } int g(char x, int y) { return y; } typedef int(*FunctPtr)(char,int); int callit(FunctPtr p, char x, int y) // original { return p(x, y); } int callitB(FunctPtr p, char x, int y) // updated { return (*p)(x, y); } int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { FunctPtr p = g; // original std::cout << p('c', 'a') << std::endl; FunctPtr pB = &g; // updated std::cout << (*pB)('c', 'a') << std::endl; return 0; } Question Which way, the original or updated, is the recommended method? Thank you Although I do see the following usage in the original post: void baz() { FredMemFn p = &Fred::f; ? declare a member-function pointer ... }

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  • C++: What is the size of an object of an empty class?

    - by Ashwin
    I was wondering what could be the size of an object of an empty class. It surely could not be 0 bytes since it should be possible to reference and point to it like any other object. But, how big is such an object? I used this small program: #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Empty {}; int main() { Empty e; cerr << sizeof(e) << endl; return 0; } The output I got on both Visual C++ and Cygwin-g++ compilers was 1 byte! This was a little surprising to me since I was expecting it to be of the size of the machine word (32 bits or 4 bytes). Can anyone explain why the size of 1 byte? Why not 4 bytes? Is this dependent on compiler or the machine too? Also, can someone give a more cogent reason for why an empty class object will not be of size 0 bytes?

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  • Creating a assertClass() method in JUnit

    - by Mike
    Hi, I'm creating a test platform for a protocol project based on Apache MINA. In MINA when you receive packets the messageReceived() method gets an Object. Ideally I'd like to use a JUnit method assertClass(), however it doesn't exist. I'm playing around trying to work out what is the closest I can get. I'm trying to find something similar to instanceof. Currently I have: public void assertClass(String msg, Class expected, Object given) { if(!expected.isInstance(given)) Assert.fail(msg); } To call this: assertClass("Packet type is correct", SomePacket.class, receivedPacket); This works without issue, however in experimenting and playing with this my interest was peaked by the instanceof operator. if (receivedPacket instanceof SomePacket) { .. } How is instanceof able to use SomePacket to reference the object at hand? It's not an instance of an object, its not a class, what is it?! Once establishing what type SomePacket is at that point is it possible to extend my assertClass() to not have to include the SomePacket.class argument, instead favouring SomePacket?

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  • Must JsUnit Cases Reside Under the Same Directory as JsUnit?

    - by chernevik
    I have installed JsUnit and a test case as follows: /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/testRunner.html /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/myTests/lineTestAbs.html /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/lineTestAbs.html When I open the test runner in a browser as a file, and test lineTestAbs.html from the jsunit/myTests directory, it passes. When I test the same file from the JavaScript directory, the test runner times out, asking if the file exists or is a test page. Questions: Am I doing something wrong here, or is this the expected behavior? Is it possible to put test cases in a different directory structure, and if so what is the proper path reference to to JsUnitCore.js? Would JsUnit behave differently if the files were retrieved from an HTTP server? <html> <head> <title>Test Page line(m, x, b)</title> <script language="JavaScript" src="/home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/app/jsUnitCore.js"></script> <script language="JavaScript"> function line(m, x, b) { return m*x + b; } function testCalculationIsValid() { assertEquals("zero intercept", 10, line(5, 2, 0)); assertEquals("zero slope", 5, line(0, 2, 5)); assertEquals("at x = 10", 25, line(2, 10, 5)); } </script> </head> <body> This pages tests line(m, x, b). </body> </html>

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