Search Results

Search found 11381 results on 456 pages for 'intellectual property'.

Page 394/456 | < Previous Page | 390 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401  | Next Page >

  • django simple approach to multi-field search

    - by Scott Willman
    I have a simple address book app that I want to make searchable. The model would look something like: class Address(models.Model): address1 = models.CharField("Address Line 1", max_length=128) address2 = models.CharField("Address Line 2", max_length=128) city = models.CharField("City", max_length=128) state = models.CharField("State", max_length=24) zipCode = models.CharField("Zip Code", max_length=24) def __unicode__(self): return "%s %s, %s, %s, %s" % (self.address1, self.address2, self.city, self.state, self.zipCode) class Entry(models.Model): name = models.CharField("Official School Name", max_length=128) createdBy = models.ForeignKey(User) address = models.ForeignKey(Address, unique=True) def __unicode__(self): return "%s - %s, %s" % (self.name, self.address.city, self.address.state) I want the searching to be fairly loose, like: Bank of America Los Angeles 91345. It seems like I want a field that contains all of those elements into one that I can search, but that also seems redundant. I was hoping I could add a method to the Entry model like this: def _getSearchText(self): return "%s %s %s" % (self.name, self.address, self.mascot) searchText = property(_getSearchText) ...and search that as a field, but I suppose that's wishful thinking... How should I approach this using basic Django and SqLite (this is a learning exercise). Thank you!!

    Read the article

  • Going "behind Hibernate's back" to update foreign key values without an associated entity

    - by Alex Cruise
    Updated: I wound up "solving" the problem by doing the opposite! I now have the entity reference field set as read-only (insertable=false updatable=false), and the foreign key field read-write. This means I need to take special care when saving new entities, but on querying, the entity properties get resolved for me. I have a bidirectional one-to-many association in my domain model, where I'm using JPA annotations and Hibernate as the persistence provider. It's pretty much your bog-standard parent/child configuration, with one difference being that I want to expose the parent's foreign key as a separate property of the child alongside the reference to a parent instance, like so: @Entity public class Child { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @Column(name="parent_id", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Long parentId; @ManyToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="parent_id") private Parent parent; private long timestamp; } @Entity public class Parent { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @OrderBy("timestamp") @OneToMany(mappedBy="parent", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List<Child> children; } This works just fine most of the time, but there are many (legacy) cases when I'd like to put an invalid value in the parent_id column without having to create a bogus Parent first. Unfortunately, Hibernate won't save values assigned to the parentId field due to insertable=false, updatable=false, which it requires when the same column is mapped to multiple properties. Is there any nice way to "go behind Hibernate's back" and sneak values into that field without having to drop down to JDBC or implement an interceptor? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • AppDomain.Unload doesn't release the assembly I loaded up with Reflection

    Hi All, I am struggling with an issue while loading an assembly up in a temporary AppDomain to read its GetUsedReferences property. Once I do that, I call AppDomain.Unload(tempDomain) and then I try to clean up my mess by deleting the files. That fails because the file is locked. I Unloaded the temporary domain though! Any thoughts or suggestions would be greately appreciated. Here is some of my code: //I already have btyes for the .dll and the .pdb from the actual files AppDomainSetup domainSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); domainSetup.ApplicationBase = Environment.CurrentDirectory; domainSetup.ShadowCopyFiles = "true"; domainSetup.CachePath = Environment.CurrentDirectory; AppDomain tempAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("TempAppDomain", AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence, domainSetup); //Load up the temp assembly and do stuff Assembly projectAssembly = tempAppDomain.Load(assemblyFileBuffer, symbolsFileBuffer); //Then I'm trying to clean up AppDomain.Unload(tempAppDomain); tempAppDomain = null; File.Delete(tempAssemblyFile); //I even try to force GC File.Delete(tempSymbolsFile); Anyway, the Deletes fail because the files are locked still. Shouldn't they be released because I Unloaded the temporary AppDomain?!?!?! Thanks in advance, Dan

    Read the article

  • HTC Incredible displaying blank ImageView

    - by Todd
    HI, I have an app that displays an an image in an ImageView using the setImageDrawable(Drawable) method. However, with the release of the Droid Incredible the images are coming up as a blank screen. I am using Drawable.createFromPath(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory() + "\imagefile") to access the image from the SD card. I don't get any sort of error, just a black screen. I will get a null pointer exception if after trying to load the image I try to access a property of the Drawable. This makes me believe that the Drawable wasn't loaded, but I don't know why or how to make it work. This code as been working on all other Android devices, so I'm not sure what is different with the Incredible. Unfortunately I don't have access to an Incredible to test on, so I've got to rely on others to test and send me the log files. Any help you can offer would be greatly appreciated. If anyone knows how to replicate this issue on the emulator, that would be helpful too. I've configured an emulator with firmware 7 and the correct screen resolution, but I was unable to replicate the issue. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • DataGridView with row-specific DataGridViewComboBoxColumn contents

    - by XXXXX
    So I have something like the following data structure (constructors omitted) class Child { public string Name { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } } class Parent { public string Name { get; set; } public List <Child> Children { get; private set; } // never null; list never empty public Child FavoriteChild { get; set; } // never null; always a reference to a Child in Children } List < Parent > Parents; What I want to do is show a DataGridView where each row is a Parent from Parent list. Each row should have two columns: a text box showing the parent's name and a DataGridViewComboBoxColumn containing that parent's children, from which the user can select the parent's favorite child. I suppose I could do the whole thing manually, but I'd like to do all this with more-or-less standard Data Binding. It's easy enough to bind the DataGridView to the list of parents, and easy enough to bind the selected child to the FavoriteChild property. The part that's giving me difficulty is that it looks like the Combo Box column wants to bind to one data source for all the combo-box's contents on all rows. I'd like each instance of the combo box to bind to the list of each parent's children. I'm fairly new to C#/Windows Forms, so I may well be missing something obvious. Or it could be that "you can't get there from here." It's not too tough to make a separate list of all the children and filter it by parent; I'm looking into that possibility right now. Is this feasible, or is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • Unit testing a Grails custom taglib based on built-in Grails taglib

    - by dipess
    I've an app based on Grails 1.3.7. And I need to write a unit test for a custom taglib that is based on the built-in taglib, <g:select /> to be specific. I checked out the solution on this previous SO post but the solution stated is not working in my case (some properties are not being prooperly mocked up). The other solution that I found was this. Using this approach, I get most of the properties of FormTagLib mocked up except for the grailsApplication property that select requires. The actual error that I get is Cannot invoke method getArtefact() on null object. How can I properly write the unit test in such a case? Edit Here are my test class and the full stacktrace. Line #45 on the stacktrace is the call to the g.select from my custom taglib. My custom taglib is something like def clientSpecificQueues = {attrs-> def queueList = taskService.getClientSpecificQueues(session.clientName) def queueLabel = "Some String" if (queueList.size() > 0){ out << queueLabel else out << g.select(name:'queueId', from: queueList, optionKey: 'id', optionValue: 'name') }

    Read the article

  • Why does this program take up so much memory?

    - by Adrian
    I am learning Objective-C. I am trying to release all of the memory that I use. So, I wrote a program to test if I am doing it right: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #define DEFAULT_NAME @"Unknown" @interface Person : NSObject { NSString *name; } @property (copy) NSString * name; @end @implementation Person @synthesize name; - (void) dealloc { [name release]; [super dealloc]; } - (id) init { if (self = [super init]) { name = DEFAULT_NAME; } return self; } @end int main (int argc, const char * argv[]) { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; Person *person = [[Person alloc] init]; NSString *str; int i; for (i = 0; i < 1e9; i++) { str = [NSString stringWithCString: "Name" encoding: NSUTF8StringEncoding]; person.name = str; [str release]; } [person release]; [pool drain]; return 0; } I am using a mac with snow leopard. To test how much memory this is using, I open Activity Monitor at the same time that it is running. After a couple of seconds, it is using gigabytes of memory. What can I do to make it not use so much?

    Read the article

  • ASP:DropDownList in ItemTemplate: Why is SelectedValue attribute allowed?

    - by recursive
    This piece of code <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="testdropdown" SelectedValue="2"> <asp:ListItem Text="1" Value="1"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="2" Value="2"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="3" Value="3"></asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> yields this error: The 'SelectedValue' property cannot be set declaratively. Yet, this is a legal and commonly used edit template for databound GridViews. The SelectedValue attribute certainly appears to be declaratively set here. <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="GenreDropDownList" DataSourceID="GenreDataSource" DataValueField="GenreId" DataTextField="Name" SelectedValue='<%# Bind("Genre.GenreId") %>'> </asp:DropDownList> </EditItemTemplate> The question is: what is the difference between the cases when you are allowed to set it declaratively and those in which you are not? The error message implies that it's never allowed.

    Read the article

  • Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

    - by vIceBerg
    I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

    Read the article

  • JavaEE: Question about design

    - by Harry Pham
    I have a JSF page that will create a new Comment. I have the managed bean of that page to be RequestScoped managed bean. @ManagedBean(name="PostComment") @RequestScoped public class PostComment { private Comment comment = null; @ManagedProperty(value="#{A}") private A a; //A is a ViewScoped Bean @ManagedProperty(value="#{B}") private B b; //B is a ViewScoped Bean @PostConstruct public void init(){ comment = new Comment(); } // setters and getters for comment and all the managed property variable public void postComment(String location){ //persist the new comment ... if(location.equals("A")){ //update the comment list on page A }else if(location.equals("B")){ //update the comment list on page B } } } As you can see from the code above, 2 ViewScoped bean A and B will both use method postComment(), and getter getComment() from bean PostComment. The problem I am having right now is that, if I am on A, constructor of A will load, but it will also load constructor of bean B. This make my page load twice as slow. What would be the best way to solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • Sending JSON to a server

    - by SK9
    I'm running the following Java, an HttpURLConnection PUT request with JSON data that will be sent from an Android device. I'll handle any raised exceptions after this is working. Authenticator.setDefault(new Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication(nameString, pwdString.toCharArray()); } }); url = new URL(myURLString); HttpURLConnection urlConnection = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); urlConnection.setDoOutput(true); urlConnection.setChunkedStreamingMode(0); urlConnection.setRequestMethod("PUT"); urlConnection.setRequestProperty("Content-Type", "application/json"); OutputStream output = null; try { output = urlConnection.getOutputStream(); output.write(jsonArray.toString().getBytes()); } finally { if (output != null) { output.close(); } } int status = ((HttpURLConnection) urlConnection).getResponseCode(); System.out.println("" + status); urlConnection.disconnect(); I'm receiving an HTTP 500 error (internal error code), that an unexpected property is blocking the request. The JSONArray comprises JSONObjects whose keys I know are correct. The server is pretty standard, and expects HTTP PUTs with JSON bodies. Am I missing something glaring? Thanking you kindly in advance.

    Read the article

  • Dynamic/Generic ViewModelBase?

    - by Shimmy
    I am learning MVVM now and I understand few things (more than but few are here..): Does every model potentially exposed (thru a VM) to the View is having a VM? For example, if I have a Contact and Address entity and each contact has an Addresses (many) property, does it mean I have to create a ContactViewModel and an AddressViewModel etc.? Do I have to redeclare all the properties of the Model again in the ViewModel (i.e. FirstName, LastName blah blah)? why not have a ViewModelBase and the ContactViewMode will be a subclass of ViewModelBase accessing the Entity's properties itself? and if this is a bad idea that the View has access to the entity (please explain why), then why not have the ViewModelBase be a DynamicObject (view the Dictionary example @ the link page), so I don't have to redeclare all the properties and validation over and over in the two tiers (M & VM) - because really, the View is anyway accessing the ViewModel's fields via reflection anyway. I think MVVM was the hardest technology I've ever learned. it doesn't have out-the-box support and there are to many frameworks and methods to achieve it, and in the other hand there is no arranged way to learn it (as MVC for instance), learning MVVM means browsing and surfing around trying to figure out what's better. Bottom line, what I mean by this section is please go and vote to MSFT to add MVVM support in the BCL and generators for VMs and Vs according to the Ms. Thanks

    Read the article

  • IE7: container of hidden Div displays incorrectly

    - by dmr
    There is a search box div that contains a boxhead div and a boxbody div. Inside the boxbody div, there is a searchToggle div. When the user clicks a certain link on the page, the display style property of the searchToggle div is toggled between block and none. The 2 background-images for the body of the search box are set via the css of the searchBox div and the boxbody div. In IE7, when the searchToggle div is hidden, the background-image from the searchBox div extends on the left more than it should. It shows up correctly when the display of the searchToggle div is block. Everything show up correctly, in both cases in IE8 and FF. Any ideas why this is happening? The relevant HTML: <div class="searchBox"> <div class="boxhead"> <h2></h2> </div> <div class="boxbody"> <div id="searchToggle" name="searchToggle"> </div> </div> </div> The relevant CSS: .searchBox { margin: 0 auto; width: 700px; background: url(/images/myImageRight-r.gif) no-repeat bottom right; font-size: 100%; text-align: left; overflow: hidden; } .boxbody { margin: 0; padding: 5px 30px 31px; background-image: url(/images/myImageLeft.gif); background-repeat: no-repeat; background-position: left bottom; }

    Read the article

  • How can I implement an interface member in protected ?

    - by Nicolas Dorier
    Hi, I've been quite surprise when I saw the metadata of ReadOnlyObservableCollection in VS 2008... public class ReadOnlyObservableCollection<T> : ReadOnlyCollection<T>, INotifyCollectionChanged, INotifyPropertyChanged { // Summary: // Initializes a new instance of the System.Collections.ObjectModel.ReadOnlyObservableCollection<T> // class that serves as a wrapper for the specified System.Collections.ObjectModel.ObservableCollection<T>. // // Parameters: // list: // The collection to wrap. public ReadOnlyObservableCollection(ObservableCollection<T> list); // Summary: // Occurs when an item is added or removed. protected virtual event NotifyCollectionChangedEventHandler CollectionChanged; // // Summary: // Occurs when a property value changes. protected virtual event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; // Summary: // Raises the System.Collections.ObjectModel.ReadOnlyObservableCollection<T>.CollectionChanged // event. // // Parameters: // args: // The event data. protected virtual void OnCollectionChanged(NotifyCollectionChangedEventArgs args); // // Summary: // Raises the System.Collections.ObjectModel.ReadOnlyObservableCollection<T>.PropertyChanged // event. // // Parameters: // args: // The event data. protected virtual void OnPropertyChanged(PropertyChangedEventArgs args); } As you can see, CollectionChanged, a member of INotifyCollectionChanged is implemented in protected... and I can't do that in my own class. .NET framework should not compile ! Does someone has an explanation of this mystery ?

    Read the article

  • Ember nested route. Load more models

    - by user3568719
    JsBin http://jsbin.com/EveQOke/153/ I know how to load more then one model to a route, using Ember.RSVP.hash. (see Jsbin Children menu). I use dynamic part to access one elem from a collection children/1. But i cant load more models to a nested resource. In my example i want to populate all the toys for a select, not just list the toys of the child. I have tried to access the model of the route children App.ChildRoute = Ember.Route.extend({ model: function(param){ return Ember.RSVP.hash({ allToys: this.modelFor("children"), child:this.store.find('child', param.child_id) }); } }); and use its model's toy property (since there have already loaded all of the toys) child.hbs <h4>All avaiable toys</h4> <table> {{#each toy in model.allToys.toys}} <tr> <td>{{toy.name}}</td> </tr> {{/each}} </table>

    Read the article

  • Dealing with multiple generics in a method call

    - by thaBadDawg
    I've been dealing a lot lately with abstract classes that use generics. This is all good and fine because I get a lot of utility out of these classes but now it's making for some rather ugly code down the line. For example: abstract class ClassBase<T> { T Property { get; set; } } class MyClass : ClassBase<string> { OtherClass PropertyDetail { get; set; } } This implementation isn't all that crazy, except when I want to reference the abstract class from a helper class and then I have to make a list of generics just to make reference to the implemented class, like this below. class Helper { void HelpMe<C, T>(object Value) where C : ClassBase<T>, new() { DoWork(); } } This is just a tame example, because I have some method calls where the list of where clauses end up being 5 or 6 lines long to handle all of the generic data. What I'd really like to do is class Helper { void HelpMe<C>(object Value) where C : ClassBase, new() { DoWork(); } } but it obviously won't compile. I want to reference ClassBase without having to pass it a whole array of generic classes to get the function to work, but I don't want to reference the higher level classes because there are a dozen of those. Am I the victim of my own cleverness or is there an avenue that I haven't considered yet?

    Read the article

  • Flash CS5 screwed up all my textfields - how can I correct this?

    - by WillyCornbread
    Hi - I have an Actionscript project that I was building using Flash CS4. I embedded a font using the follow: [Embed(source="/bin/assets/fonts/MyriadPro-Regular.otf", fontWeight="normal", fontFamily="Myriad Pro")] Then throughout my application in my TextFields I would set embedFonts to true antialiastype to advanced and set the thickness property of the text field. And setting the font-family from a stylesheet. This was all working exactly as I expected it would with no issues whatsoever and months of development. I just upgraded to CS5 and published and none of my text is rendered at all. I was able to resolve this by removing the embedFonts = true from the textfields, but this leaves me with no control over the thickness at all. I searched everywhere, does anyone know what the proper way to do this in CS5 is now? I've tried embedding my font directly within the CS5 IDE but still no thickness control. Thanks in advance for any help - I've got tons of textfields throughout my app that are all ganked right now. Thanks Adobe. b

    Read the article

  • Deal with undefined values in code or in the template?

    - by David
    I'm writing a web application (in Python, not that it matters). One of the features is that people can leave comments on things. I have a class for comments, basically like so: class Comment: user = ... # other stuff where user is an instance of another class, class User: name = ... # other stuff And of course in my template, I have <div>${comment.user.name}</div> Problem: Let's say I allow people to post comments anonymously. In that case comment.user is None (undefined), and of course accessing comment.user.name is going to raise an error. What's the best way to deal with that? I see three possibilities: Use a conditional in the template to test for that case and display something different. This is the most versatile solution, since I can change the way anonymous comments are displayed to, say, "Posted anonymously" (instead of "Posted by ..."), but I've often been told that templates should be mindless display machines and not include logic like that. Also, other people might wind up writing alternate templates for the same application, and I feel like I should be making things as easy as possible for the template writer. Implement an accessor method for the user property of a Comment that returns a dummy user object when the real user is undefined. This dummy object would have user.name = 'Anonymous' or something like that and so the template could access it and print its name with no error. Put an actual record in my database corresponding to a user with user.name = Anonymous (or something like that), and just assign that user to any comment posted when nobody's logged in. I know I've seen some real-world systems that operate this way. (phpBB?) Is there a prevailing wisdom among people who write these sorts of systems about which of these (or some other solution) is the best? Any pitfalls I should watch out for if I go one way vs. another? Whoever gives the best explanation gets the checkmark.

    Read the article

  • Spring bean initialization in a web app

    - by EugeneP
    We work with a web application and autowire beans using WebApplicationContextUtils in the init method. Could you clarify some details about bean initialization? The question rises from the static factory method. Suppose there's a bean that is created in a static factory method. As we can see, when the web app is deployed, the ContextLoaderListener initializes all the beans present in Spring xml config file. Now happens such a thing. In the static factory method we run a timer that starts ticking. But in reality we wouldn't want it to start ticking unless the bean is injected into a property of the object ! That is question number one - all the beans are automatically initialized on deploy - correct? And after that when we need an injection, it simply feels the link with the address of the object created during initialization, though OBJECT WAS CREATED ON WEB APP DEPLOY, immediately ! (I assume the default singleton-creation Spring behavior) Second question: are all copies of a web app use the same beans, so all beans are WEB-APP wide, every Spring bean is shared between all the copies of this web app running?

    Read the article

  • Populate asp.net MVC Index page with data from the database

    - by Sunil Ramu
    I have a web application in which I need to fetch data from the database and display in the index page. As you know, asp.net mvc has given options to edit delete etc... I need to populate the page using the conventional DB way and it uses a stored procedure to retrieve results. I dont want to use LINQ. This is my model entity class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace LogMVCApp.Models { public class Property { public int Id { get; set; } public string LogInId { get; set; } public string Username { get; set; } public string Action { get; set; } public string Information { get; set; } public bool Passed{get; set; } public string LogType { get; set; } } } and I need to retrieve data using something like this... var conString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["connection"].ToString(); var conn = new SqlConnection(conString); var command = new SqlCommand("LogInsert", conn){CommandType=CommandType.StoredProcedure};

    Read the article

  • Convert SQL to LINQ in MVC3 with Ninject

    - by Jeff
    I'm using MVC3 and still learning LINQ. I'm having some trouble trying to convert a query to LINQ to Entities. I want to return an employee object. SELECT E.EmployeeID, E.FirstName, E.LastName, MAX(EO.EmployeeOperationDate) AS "Last Operation" FROM Employees E INNER JOIN EmployeeStatus ES ON E.EmployeeID = ES.EmployeeID INNER JOIN EmployeeOperations EO ON ES.EmployeeStatusID = EO.EmployeeStatusID INNER JOIN Teams T ON T.TeamID = ES.TeamID WHERE T.TeamName = 'MyTeam' GROUP BY E.EmployeeID, E.FirstName, E.LastName ORDER BY E.FirstName, E.LastName What I have is a few tables, but I need to get only the newest status based on the EmployeeOpertionDate. This seems to work fine in SQL. I'm also using Ninject and set my query to return Ienumerable. I played around with the group by option but it then returns IGroupable. Any guidance on converting and returning the property object type would be appreciated. Edit: I started writing this out in LINQ but I'm not sure how to properly return the correct type or cast this. public IQueryable<Employee> GetEmployeesByTeam(int teamID) { var q = from E in context.Employees join ES in context.EmployeeStatuses on E.EmployeeID equals ES.EmployeeID join EO in context.EmployeeOperations on ES.EmployeeStatusID equals EO.EmployeeStatusID join T in context.Teams on ES.TeamID equals T.TeamID where T.TeamName == "MyTeam" group E by E.EmployeeID into G select G; return q; } Edit2: This seems to work for me public IQueryable<Employee> GetEmployeesByTeam(int teamID) { var q = from E in context.Employees join ES in context.EmployeeStatuses on E.EmployeeID equals ES.EmployeeID join EO in context.EmployeeOperations.OrderByDescending(eo => eo.EmployeeOperationDate) on ES.EmployeeStatusID equals EO.EmployeeStatusID join T in context.Teams on ES.TeamID equals T.TeamID where T.TeamID == teamID group E by E.EmployeeID into G select G.FirstOrDefault(); return q; }

    Read the article

  • ObjC internals. Why my duck typing attempt failed?

    - by Piotr Czapla
    I've tried to use id to create duck typing in objective-c. The concept looks fine in theory but failed in practice. I was unable to use any parameters in my methods. The methods were called but parameters were wrong. I was getting BAD_ACESS for objects and random values for primitives. I've attached a simple example below. The question: Does any one knows why the methods parameters are wrong? What is happening under the hood of the objective-c? Note: I'm interest in the details. I know how to make the example below work. An example: I've created a simple class Test that is passed to an other class using property id test. @implementation Test - (void) aSampleMethodWithFloat:(float) f andInt: (int) i { NSLog(@"Parameters: %f, %i\n", f, i); } @end Then in the class the following loop is executed: for (float f=0.0f; f < 100.0f ; f += 0.3f) { [self.test aSampleMethodWithOneFloatParameter: f]; // warning: no method found. } Here is the output that I'm getting. As you can see the method was called but the parameters were wrong. Parameters: 0.000000, 0 Parameters: -0.000000, 1069128089 Parameters: -0.000000, 1070176665 Parameters: 2.000000, 1070805811 Parameters: -0.000000, 1071225241 Parameters: 0.000000, 1071644672 Parameters: 2.000000, 1071854387 Parameters: 36893488147419103232.000000, 1072064102 Parameters: -0.000000, 1072273817 Parameters: -36893488147419103232.000000, 1072483532

    Read the article

  • Should not a tail-recursive function also be faster?

    - by Balint Erdi
    I have the following Clojure code to calculate a number with a certain "factorable" property. (what exactly the code does is secondary). (defn factor-9 ([] (let [digits (take 9 (iterate #(inc %) 1)) nums (map (fn [x] ,(Integer. (apply str x))) (permutations digits))] (some (fn [x] (and (factor-9 x) x)) nums))) ([n] (or (= 1 (count (str n))) (and (divisible-by-length n) (factor-9 (quot n 10)))))) Now, I'm into TCO and realize that Clojure can only provide tail-recursion if explicitly told so using the recur keyword. So I've rewritten the code to do that (replacing factor-9 with recur being the only difference): (defn factor-9 ([] (let [digits (take 9 (iterate #(inc %) 1)) nums (map (fn [x] ,(Integer. (apply str x))) (permutations digits))] (some (fn [x] (and (factor-9 x) x)) nums))) ([n] (or (= 1 (count (str n))) (and (divisible-by-length n) (recur (quot n 10)))))) To my knowledge, TCO has a double benefit. The first one is that it does not use the stack as heavily as a non tail-recursive call and thus does not blow it on larger recursions. The second, I think is that consequently it's faster since it can be converted to a loop. Now, I've made a very rough benchmark and have not seen any difference between the two implementations although. Am I wrong in my second assumption or does this have something to do with running on the JVM (which does not have automatic TCO) and recur using a trick to achieve it? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • C# generics when T could be an array

    - by bufferz
    I am writing a C# wrapper for a 3rd party library that reads both single values and arrays from a hardware device, but always returns an object[] array even for one value. This requires repeated calls to object[0] when I'd like the end user to be able to use generics to receive either an array or single value. I want to use generics so the callee can use the wrapper in the following ways: MyWrapper<float> mw = new MyWrapper<float>( ... ); float value = mw.Value; //should return float; MyWrapper<float[]> mw = new MyWrapper<float[]>( ... ); float[] values = mw.Value; //should return float[]; In MyWrapper I have the Value property currently as the following: public T Value { get { if(_wrappedObject.Values.Length > 1) return (T)_wrappedObject.Value; //T could be float[]. this doesn't compile. else return (T)_wrappedObject.Values[0]; //T could be float. this compiles. } } I get a compile error in the first case: Cannot convert type 'object[]' to 'T' If I change MyWrapper.Value to T[] I receive: Cannot convert type 'object[]' to 'T[]' Any ideas of how to achieve my goal? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Problem executing trackPageview with Google Analytics.

    - by dmrnj
    I'm trying to capture the clicks of certain download links and track them in Google Analytics. Here's my code var links = document.getElementsByTagName("a"); for (var i = 0; i < links.length; i++) { linkpath = links[i].pathname; if( linkpath.match(/\.(pdf|xls|ppt|doc|zip|txt)$/) || links[i].href.indexOf("mode=pdf") >=0 ){ //this matches our search addClickTracker(links[i]); } } function addClickTracker(obj){ if (obj.addEventListener) { obj.addEventListener('click', track , true); } else if (obj.attachEvent) { obj.attachEvent("on" + 'click', track); } } function track(e){ linkhref = (e.srcElement) ? e.srcElement.pathname : this.pathname; pageTracker._trackPageview(linkhref); } Everything up until the pageTracker._trackPageview() call works. In my debugging linkhref is being passed fine as a string. No abnormal characters, nothing. The issue is that, watching my http requests, Google never makes a second call to the tracking gif (as it does if you call this function in an "onclick" property). Calling the tracker from my JS console also works as expected. It's only in my listener. Could it be that my listener is not deferring the default action (loading the new page) before it has a chance to contact Google's servers? I've seen other tracking scripts that do a similar thing without any deferral.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 390 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401  | Next Page >