Search Results

Search found 10706 results on 429 pages for 'pkg config'.

Page 395/429 | < Previous Page | 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402  | Next Page >

  • bundler/capistrano is not installing gems with correct ruby version

    - by Douglas
    I'm trying to deploy my first app on a server with Capistrano, and I'm a bit lost with managing gemsets and ruby version. These are my (server and workstation) versions : Rails 3.2.8 RVM 1.16.17 Gem 1.8.24 Bundler 1.2.1 pg gem 0.14.1 My gemset are : Gemsets for ruby-1.9.3-p194 (found in /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194) (default) global = rail3dev20120606 I set the default gemset with : rvm use 1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606 --default --passenger When I run a : cap bundle:install The task end with success, but when I do a : gem list There are many missing gems though they are present in my Gemfile. When I go to check my gems in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/ I find a folder called 1.9.1 and in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/gems/ I can fond all of my needed gems (specified in Gemfile). I'm sure there is a problem with ruby version, but how do I solve this ? At the moment, if I do any rake command, I got a ruby crash [Bug] Segmentation fault, as it try to access the db and using postgresql_adapter. I think as many gems are missing there must have some gem dependencies not verified, and maybe a gem is using an incompatible ruby version 1.9.1 though it expect a 1.9.3. I think the issue is around managing ruby versions and gems. I'm certainly doing some mix with gemset and my capistrano deployement. I'm missing experience and info. Could anybody advise me how to handle this on the server ? What are the best practices ? How am I suppose to update my ruby version ? with Capistrano deploy.rb ? manually ? with/without rvm ? I saw a new version of ruby 1.9.3-p327 has just released. Should I use gemset or not ? What about the :rvm_ruby_string in my deploy.rb. Is it correctly spelled or should I remove the p194 part ? Should I Remove the :rvm_ruby_string ? Keep it ? Use a .rvmrc file ??? I'm really lost and some kind help would be welcome. This is my config/deploy.rb in any case : require 'bundler/capistrano' require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'deploy') + '/capistrano_database' set :rvm_type, :system set :rvm_ruby_string, 'ruby-1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606' require 'rvm/capistrano' set :application, 'opf' set :deploy_to, '/var/www/opf' set :rails_env, 'production' set :user, 'the_user' set :use_sudo, false set :group_writable, false set :scm, :git set :repository, '[email protected]:user/opf.git' set :branch, 'master' default_run_options[:pty] = true set :deploy_via, :remote_cache server '192.168.5.200', :web, :app, :db, :primary => true # If you are using Passenger mod_rails uncomment this: namespace :deploy do task :start do ; end task :stop do ; end task :restart, :roles => :app, :except => { :no_release => true } do run "#{try_sudo} touch #{File.join(current_path,'tmp','restart.txt')}" end end Thanks for any help

    Read the article

  • How to customize android analog clock widget through configuration screen

    - by michJ
    I'm trying to develop my own analog clock widget on the home screen. It's based on the stock ICS analog clock widget, but when added to the homescreen, my widget opens a configuration screen first. On this screen you can choose the color you want the clock to be (through a colorpicker dialog). You also see a preview of the clock in the chosen color on this screen. (See picture). My problem is changing the color of the widget on the home screen to the chosen color (when you hit the apply button). I have three .png files that I use for the dial, hour hand and minute hand. I color them using this code in my widgetconfig class: Drawable dial = getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.clockbackground); dial.setColorFilter(color, PorterDuff.Mode.MULTIPLY); //hour Drawable hour = getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.hourhand); hour.setColorFilter(color, PorterDuff.Mode.MULTIPLY); //minute Drawable min = getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.minutehand); min.setColorFilter(color, PorterDuff.Mode.MULTIPLY); // clock AnalogClock clockpreview = (AnalogClock) findViewById(R.id.ACconfig); clockpreview.setBackgroundDrawable(dial); This works fine because I can find the AnalogClock since it's in the layout xml file of the configuration screen, which I set in the OnCreate() through setContentView(). The problem is that for the clock widget on my screen I have to use RemoteViews. So I tried setting the new background of the clock widget through RemoteViews. But RemoteViews seems too limited to do this. I need something like setTextViewText() but then for the background of my analog clock widget, like for example: RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.clockwidget); views.setAnalogClockBackgroundDrawable(dial); The clock widget background seems sort of unchangeable. How can I recolor my clockwidget on homescreen in widgetconfig class? There must be a way because it seems so easy to do at first... My project consists of the widget config class and clockwidget class, widgetconfig.xml, clockwidget.xml, and widget_info.xml (for appwidgetprovider).

    Read the article

  • NewBie Question, jQuery: How can we implement if...else logic and call function

    - by Rachel
    I am new to jQuery and so don't mind this question if it sounds stupid but here is something that I am trying to do : I have 3 functions like: AddToCart Function which adds item to the shopping cart: //offer_id is the offer which we are trying to add to cart. addToCart: function(offer_id) { this.submit({action: 'add', 'offer_id': offer_id}, {'app_server_url': this.app_server_url}); }, RemoveFromCart which removes data from the cart //target is link clicked and event is the click event. removeFromCart: function(target, event) { this.uniqueElmt('cart_table').find('.sb_item_remove').unbind('click'); var offer_id = $(target).parent().find('.offer_id').html(); this.submit({action: 'remove', 'offer_id': offer_id, 'next_action': this.config.current_action}, {'app_server_url': this.app_server_url}); }, Get the current state of the cart //return string which represents current state of cart. getCartItems: function() { return this.contents; } Now I am trying to do 3 things: if there is no content in cart and addToCart is called than some action, so basically here we need to check the current state of cart and that is obtained by calling getCartItems and if it is Null and than if addToCart is called than we perform some action if there is content in the cart and addToCart is called than some action,so basically here we need to check the current state of cart and that is obtained by calling getCartItems and check if it is Null or not and than if addToCart is called than we perform some action if we had some content in the cart. if there is content in the cart and removeFromCart is called some action, so basically here we need to check the current state of cart and that is obtained by calling getCartItems and if it is not Null and if removeFromCart is called than we perform some action Pseudocode of what I am trying to do: if there is no content in cart and addToCart is called than $(document).track( { 'module' : 'Omniture', 'event' : 'instant', 'args' : { 'linkTrackVars' : 'products,events', 'linkTrackEvents' : 'scAdd,scOpen', 'linkType' : 'o', 'linkName' : 'Cart : First Product Added' // could be blank, but can include event name as added feature 'svalues' : { 'products' : ';OFFERID1[,;OFFERID2]', 'events' : 'scAdd,scOpen', }, } 'defer' : '0' } ); if there is content in the cart and addToCart is called than $(document).track( { 'module' : 'Omniture', 'event' : 'instant', 'args' : { 'linkTrackVars' : 'products,events', 'linkTrackEvents' : 'scAdd', 'linkType' : 'o', 'linkName' : 'Cart : Product Added' // could be blank, but can include event name as added feature 'svalues' : { 'products' : ';OFFERID1[,;OFFERID2]', 'events' : 'scAdd', }, }, 'defer' : '0' } ); if there is content in the cart and removeFromCart is called $(document).track( { 'module' : 'Omniture', 'event' : 'instant', 'args' : { 'linkTrackVars' : 'products,events', 'linkTrackEvents' : 'scRemove', 'linkType' : 'o', 'linkName' : 'Cart : Product Removed' // could be blank, but can include event name as added feature 'svalues' : { 'products' : ';OFFERID1[,;OFFERID2]', 'events' : 'scRemove', }, } 'defer' : '0' } ); My basic concern is that am complete newbie to jQuery and JavaScript and so am not sure how can I implement if...else logic and how can I call a funtion using jQuery/JavaScript.

    Read the article

  • How would a php or java client authenticate if I'm using WCF w/ forms auth?

    - by Toran Billups
    I have a generic proof of concept WCF service that is using forms authentication to secure access. All works great when my client is .NET (vb code below) Dim client As SupplierServiceClient = New SupplierServiceClient() client.ClientCredentials.UserName.UserName = "[email protected]" client.ClientCredentials.UserName.Password = "password" Dim SupplierList As List(Of Supplier) = client.GetSuppliers() but as I want this to interop w/ anyone who can do SOAP 1.1/1.2 - how would a PHP or Java client connect? My WCF web.config is listed below (fyi) <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.SupplierService" behaviorConfiguration="NorthwindBehavior"> <endpoint address="" name="wsHttpSupplierService" contract="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.ISupplierService" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="wsHttp"/> <endpoint address="https://server/SampleApplicationWCF/SupplierService.svc/Basic" name="basicHttpSupplierService" contract="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.ISupplierService" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="basicHttp"/> <endpoint contract="IMetadataExchange" binding="mexHttpBinding" address="mex"/> </service> </services> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="wsHttp"> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <transport/> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" negotiateServiceCredential="false" establishSecurityContext="true"/> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="basicHttp"> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <transport/> <message clientCredentialType="UserName"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="NorthwindBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceAuthorization principalPermissionMode="UseAspNetRoles"/> <serviceCredentials> <userNameAuthentication userNamePasswordValidationMode="MembershipProvider"/> </serviceCredentials> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel>

    Read the article

  • NonUniqueObjectException during DAO integration test?

    - by HDave
    I have a JPA/Hibernate application and am trying to get it to run against H2 and MySQL. Currently I am using Atomikos for transactions and C3P0 for connection pooling. Despite my best efforts my DAO integration tests are failing with org.hibernate.NonUniqueObjectException. I do tend to re-use the same object (same ID even) over and over for all the different tests and I am sure that is the cause, but I can see in the logs that Spring Test and Atomikos are clearly rolling back the transaction associated with each test method. I would have thought the rollback would have also cleared the persistence context too. On a hunch, I added an a call to dao.clear() at the beginning of the faulty test methods and the problem went away!! Rollback doesn't clear the persistence context...hmmm.... Not sure if this is relevant, but I see a possible autocommit setting problem in the log file: [20100613 23:06:34] DEBUG [main] SessionFactoryImpl.(242) | instantiating session factory with properties: .....edited for brevity.... hibernate.connection.autocommit=true, ....more stuff follows Because I am using connection pooling, I figure that Hibernate is where I'll have to indicate I want autocommit off. I found the autocommit property documented here and I put it in my EntityManagerFactory config as follows: <bean id="myappTestLocalEmf" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="myapp-core" /> <property name="persistenceUnitPostProcessors"> <bean class="com.myapp.core.persist.util.JtaPersistenceUnitPostProcessor"> <property name="jtaDataSource" ref="myappPersistTestJdbcDataSource" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <property name="database" value="$DS{hibernate.database}" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="$DS{hibernate.dialect}" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.AtomikosJTATransactionFactory</prop> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.manager_lookup_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.TransactionManagerLookup</prop> <prop key="hibernate.connection.autocommit">false</prop> <prop key="hibernate.format_sql">true"</prop> <prop key="hibernate.use_sql_comments">true</prop> </property> </bean>

    Read the article

  • MVC3/Razor Client Validation Not firing

    - by Jason Gerstorff
    I am trying to get client validation working in MVC3 using data annotations. I have looked at similar posts including this MVC3 Client side validation not working for the answer. I'm using an EF data model. I created a partial class like this for my validations. [MetadataType(typeof(Post_Validation))] public partial class Post { } public class Post_Validation { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Title is required")] [StringLength(5, ErrorMessage = "Title may not be longer than 5 characters")] public string Title { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Text is required")] [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] public string Text { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Publish Date is required")] [DataType(DataType.DateTime)] public DateTime PublishDate { get; set; } } My cshtml page includes the following. <h2>Create</h2> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.ValidationSummary(true) Post <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Title) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Title) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Title) </div> <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Text) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Text) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Text) Web Config: <appSettings> <add key="ClientValidationEnabled" value="true" /> <add key="UnobtrusiveJavaScriptEnabled" value="true" /> Layout: <head> <title>@ViewBag.Title</title> <link href="@Url.Content("~/Content/Site.css")" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> So, the Multiline Text annotation works and creates a text area. But none of the validations work client side. I don't know what i might be missing. Any ideas?? i can post more information if needed. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Internet Explorer buggy when accessing a custom weblogic provider

    - by James
    I've created a custom Weblogic Security Authentication Provider on version 10.3 that includes a custom login module to validate users. As part of the provider, I've implemented the ServletAuthenticationFilter and added one filter. The filter acts as a common log on page for all the applications within the domain. When we access any secured URLs by entering them in the address bar, this works fine in IE and Firefox. But when we bookmark the link in IE an odd thing happens. If I click the bookmark, you will see our log on page, then after you've successfully logged into the system the basic auth page will display, even though the user is already authenticated. This never happens in Firefox, only IE. It's also intermittent. 1 time out of 5 IE will correctly redirect and not show the basic auth window. Firefox and Opera will correctly redirect everytime. We've captured the response headers and compared the success and failures, they are identical. final boolean isAuthenticated = authenticateUser(userName, password, req); // Send user on to the original URL if (isAuthenticated) { res.sendRedirect(targetURL); return; } As you can see, once the user is authenticated I do a redirect to the original URL. Is there a step I'm missing? The authenticateUser() method is taken verbatim from an example in Oracle's documents. private boolean authenticateUser(final String userName, final String password, HttpServletRequest request) { boolean results; try { ServletAuthentication.login(new CallbackHandler() { @Override public void handle(Callback[] callbacks) throws IOException, UnsupportedCallbackException { for (Callback callback : callbacks) { if (callback instanceof NameCallback) { NameCallback nameCallback = (NameCallback) callback; nameCallback.setName(userName); } if (callback instanceof PasswordCallback) { PasswordCallback passwordCallback = (PasswordCallback) callback; passwordCallback.setPassword(password.toCharArray()); } } } }, request); results = true; } catch (LoginException e) { results = false; } return results; I am asking the question here because I don't know if the issue is with the Weblogic config or the code. If this question is more suited to ServerFault please let me know and I will post there. It is odd that it works everytime in Firefox and Opera but not in Internet Explorer. I wish that not using Internet Explorer was an option but it is currently the company standard. Any help or direction would be appreciated. I have tested against IE 6 & 8 and deployed the custom provider on 3 different environments and I can still reproduce the bug.

    Read the article

  • If Then Statement Condition Being Ignored With Optimisations On

    - by Matma
    I think im going mad but can some show me what im missing, it must be some stupidly simple i just cant see the wood for the trees. BOTH side of this if then else statement are being executed? Ive tried commenting out the true side and moving the condition to a seperate variable with the same result. However if i explicitly set the condition to 1=0 or 1=1 then the if then statement is operating as i would expect. i.e. only executing one side of the equation... The only time ive seen this sort of thing is when the compiler has crashed and is no longer compiling (without visible indication that its not) but ive restarted studio with the same results, ive cleaned the solution, built and rebuilt with no change? please show me the stupid mistake im making using vs2005 if it matters. Dim dset As DataSet = New DataSet If (CboCustomers.SelectedValue IsNot Nothing) AndAlso (CboCustomers.SelectedValue <> "") Then Dim Sql As String = "Select sal.SalesOrderNo As SalesOrder,cus.CustomerName,has.SerialNo, convert(varchar,sal.Dateofpurchase,103) as Date from [dbo].[Customer_Table] as cus " & _ " inner join [dbo].[Hasp_table] as has on has.CustomerID=cus.CustomerTag " & _ " inner join [dbo].[salesorder_table] as sal On sal.Hasp_ID =has.Hasp_ID Where cus.CustomerTag = '" & CboCustomers.SelectedValue.ToString & "'" Dim dap As SqlDataAdapter = New SqlDataAdapter(Sql, FormConnection) dap.Fill(dset, "dbo.Customer_Table") DGCustomer.DataSource = dset.Tables("dbo.Customer_Table") Else Dim erm As String = "wtf" End If EDIT: i have found that this is something to do with the release config settings im using, i guesing its the optimisations bit. does anyone know of any utils/addons for vs that show if a line has been optimised out. delphi, my former language showed blue dots in the left margin to show that it was a compiled line, no dot meaning it wasnt compiled in, is there anything like that for vs? alternatively can someone explain how optimisations would affect this simple if statement causeing it to run both sides? EDIT2: using this thread as possible causes/solutions : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2135509/bug-only-occurring-when-compile-optimization-enabled. It does the same with release = optimisations on, x86, x64 and AnyCPU Goes away with optimisations off. Im using V2005 on a x64 win7 machine, if that matters. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How do I integrate a new MVC C# Project with an existing Web Forms VB.NET Web Application Project?

    - by Jordan Rieger
    We have a corporate website with a large amount of dynamic business application pages (e.g. Shopping Cart, Helpdesk, Product/Service management, Reporting, etc.) The site was built as an ASP.Net Web Application Project (WAP). Our systems have evolved over the years to use .NET 4.5 and various custom business logic DLLs (written in a mix of C# and VB.NET). However, the site itself is still using VB.NET Web Forms. We now have done a few side projects in MVC 4 using Razor/C#, and we want to use this framework for new pages on the main corporate site going forward. What would be the easiest way to achieve this? I found this nice list of steps to integrate MVC 4 into an existing Web Forms app. The problem is that because our existing app is a VB.NET WAP, it compiles into a single DLL, and .NET allows only one language per DLL. The site is way too big for us to contemplate converting it to C# all at once (yes, I've looked at the conversion tools, and they're good, but even 99% accuracy would leave us a huge amount of cleanup work.) I thought about converting the existing WAP into a Web Site Project (WSP) which does allow mixing languages and then following the steps above, but after a few pages of Google results, I couldn't find any steps for converting a WAP to WSP. (Plenty of sites offer the reverse steps: converting a WSP to a WAP.) Another idea I had was to create a completely separate MVC project, and then somehow squish them together into the same folder structure, where they would share the bin folder but compile to separate DLL's. I have no idea if this is possible, because certain files would collide (e.g. Global.asax, web.config, etc.) Finally, I can imagine a compromise solution where we keep all the MVC stuff in its own separate application under a subfolder of the main solution. We already use our own custom session state solution, so it wouldn't be difficult to pass data between the old site to the new pages. Which of the ideas above do you think makes the most sense for us? Is there another solution that I'm missing?

    Read the article

  • Timer in a Windows service - not really working?

    - by marc_s
    I have a Windows NT Service in C# which basically wakes up every x seconds, checks to see if any mail notifications need to be sent out, and then goes back to sleep. It looks something like this (the Timer class is from the System.Threading namespace): public partial class MyService : ServiceBase { private Timer _timer; private int _timeIntervalBetweenRuns = 10000; public MyService() { InitializeComponent(); } protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { // when NT Service starts - create timer to wake up every 10 seconds _timer = new Timer(OnTimer, null, _timeIntervalBetweenRuns, Timeout.Infinite); } protected override void OnStop() { // on stop - stop timer by freeing it _timer = null; } private void OnTimer(object state) { // when the timer fires, e.g. when 10 seconds are over // stop the timer from firing again by freeing it _timer = null; // check for mail and sent out notifications, if required - works just fine MailHandler handler = new MailHandler(); handler.CheckAndSendMail(); // once done, re-enable the timer by creating it from scratch _timer = new Timer(OnTimer, null, _timeIntervalBetweenRuns, _timeIntervalBetweenRuns); } } Sending the mail and all works just fine, and the service also wakes up every 10 seconds (in reality, this is a setting from a config file - simplified for this example). However, at times, the service seems to wake up too quickly.... 2010-04-09 22:50:16.390 2010-04-09 22:50:26.460 2010-04-09 22:50:36.483 2010-04-09 22:50:46.500 2010-04-09 22:50:46.537 ** why again after just 37 milliseconds...... ?? 2010-04-09 22:50:56.507 Works fine to 22:50:45.500 - why does it log another entry just 37 milliseconds later?? Here, it seems it's totally out of whack.... seems to wake up twice or even three times every time 10 seconds are over.... 2010-04-09 22:51:16.527 2010-04-09 22:51:26.537 2010-04-09 22:51:26.537 2010-04-09 22:51:36.543 2010-04-09 22:51:36.543 2010-04-09 22:51:46.553 2010-04-09 22:51:46.553 2010-04-09 22:51:56.577 2010-04-09 22:51:56.577 2010-04-09 22:52:06.590 2010-04-09 22:52:06.590 2010-04-09 22:52:06.600 2010-04-09 22:52:06.600 Any ideas why?? It's not a huge problem, but I'm concerned it might start to put too much load on the server, if the interval I configure (10 seconds, 30 seconds - whatever) seems to be ignored more and more, the longer the service runs. Have I missed something very fundamental in my service code?? Am I ending up with multiple timers, or something?? I can't seem to really figure it out..... have I picked the wrong timer (System.Threading.Timer) ? There's at least 3 Timer classes in .NET - why?? :-)

    Read the article

  • jboss connection pooling

    - by Web
    I have a question related to Prepared Steatement pooling (across all connections). Here's the config file <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>JNDI-NAME</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:mysql://<server_name>/<database_name>?useServerPrepStmts=true</connection-url> <driver-class>com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</driver-class> <user-name>xxx</user-name> <password>xxxxx</password> <min-pool-size>10</min-pool-size> <max-pool-size>20</max-pool-size> <idle-timeout-minutes>20</idle-timeout-minutes> <exception-sorter-class-name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.MySQLExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <valid-connection-checker-class-name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.MySQLValidConnectionChecker</valid-connection-checker-class-name> <background-validation>true</background-validation> <background-validation-minutes>5</background-validation-minutes> <prepared-statement-cache-size>100</prepared-statement-cache-size> <share-prepared-statements>true</share-prepared-statements> <!-- sql to call when connection is created <new-connection-sql>some arbitrary sql</new-connection-sql> --> <!-- sql to call on an existing pooled connection when it is obtained from pool - MySQLValidConnectionChecker is preferred for newer drivers <check-valid-connection-sql>some arbitrary sql</check-valid-connection-sql> --> <!-- corresponding type-mapping in the standardjbosscmp-jdbc.xml --> <metadata> <type-mapping>mySQL</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> It seems that this line: <background-validation-minutes>5</background-validation-minutes> doesn't cause any problems with Prepared Statements, but: <idle-timeout-minutes>20</idle-timeout-minutes> causes that all connections are removed and re-created if there was no traffic for the last 20 minutes. Because of that existing Prepared Statements are removed from the pool of cached Prepared Statements. How to overcome this issue? I have to use idle-timeout-minutes because MySQL server closes the connection after 8h

    Read the article

  • Tools to Help out with

    - by peter
    I am developing a C# .NET application. In the app.config file I add trace logging as shown, <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <configuration> <system.diagnostics> <trace autoflush="true" /> <sources> <source name="System.Net.Sockets" maxdatasize="1024"> <listeners> <add name="MyTraceFile"/> </listeners> </source> </sources> <sharedListeners> <add name="MyTraceFile" type="System.Diagnostics.TextWriterTraceListener" initializeData="System.Net.trace.log" /> </sharedListeners> <switches> <add name="System.Net" value="Verbose" /> </switches> </system.diagnostics> </configuration> Are there any good tools around to analyse the log file that is output? The output looks like this, System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] Data from Socket#8764489::Send DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 00000000 : 4D 49 4D 45 2D 56 65 72-73 69 6F 6E 3A 20 31 2E : MIME-Version: 1. DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 00000060 : 65 3A 20 37 20 41 70 72-20 32 30 31 30 20 31 35 : e: 7 Apr 2010 15 DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 00000070 : 3A 32 32 3A 34 30 20 2B-31 32 30 30 0D 0A 53 75 : :22:40 +1200..Su DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 00000080 : 62 6A 65 63 74 3A 20 5B-45 72 72 6F 72 5D 20 45 : bject: [Error] E DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 00000090 : 78 63 65 70 74 69 6F 6E-20 69 6E 20 53 79 6E 63 : xception in Sync DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 000000A0 : 53 65 72 76 69 63 65 20-28 32 30 30 38 2E 30 2E : Service (2008.0. DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 000000B0 : 33 30 34 2E 31 32 33 34-32 29 0D 0A 43 6F 6E 74 : 304.12342)..Cont DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z Is there anything that can take the output shown above (my output is a text file 100mb in size), group together packets, and help out with finding particular issues I would like to hear about it. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why does Module::Build's testcover gives me "use of uninitialized value" warnings?

    - by Kurt W. Leucht
    I'm kinda new to Module::Build, so maybe I did something wrong. Am I the only one who gets warnings when I change my dispatch from "test" to "testcover"? Is there a bug in Devel::Cover? Is there a bug in Module::Build? I probably just did something wrong. I'm using ActiveState Perl v5.10.0 with Module::Build version 0.31012 and Devel::Cover 0.64 and Eclipse 3.4.1 with EPIC 0.6.34 for my IDE. UPDATE: I upgraded to Module::Build 0.34 and the warnings are still output. *UPDATE: Looks like a bug in B::Deparse. Hope it gets fixed someday.* Here's my unit test build file: use strict; use warnings; use Module::Build; my $build = Module::Build->resume ( properties => { config_dir => '_build', }, ); $build->dispatch('test'); When I run this unit test build file, I get the following output: t\MyLib1.......ok t\MyLib2.......ok t\MyLib3.......ok All tests successful. Files=3, Tests=24, 0 wallclock secs ( 0.00 cusr + 0.00 csys = 0.00 CPU) But when I change the dispatch line to 'testcover' I get the following output which always includes a bunch of "use of uninitialized value in bitwise and" warning messages: Deleting database D:/Documents and Settings/<username>/My Documents/<SNIP>/cover_db t\MyLib1.......ok Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. t\MyLib2.......ok Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. t\MyLib3.......ok Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. All tests successful. Files=3, Tests=24, 0 wallclock secs ( 0.00 cusr + 0.00 csys = 0.00 CPU) Reading database from D:/Documents and Settings/<username>/My Documents/<SNIP>/cover_db ---------------------------- ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ File stmt bran cond sub pod time total ---------------------------- ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ .../lib/ActivePerl/Config.pm 0.0 0.0 0.0 0.0 0.0 n/a 0.0 ...l/lib/ActiveState/Path.pm 0.0 0.0 0.0 0.0 100.0 n/a 4.8 <SNIP> blib/lib/<SNIP>/MyLib2.pm 100.0 90.0 n/a 100.0 100.0 0.0 98.5 blib/lib/<SNIP>/MyLib3.pm 100.0 90.9 100.0 100.0 100.0 0.6 98.0 Total 14.4 6.7 3.8 18.3 20.0 100.0 11.6 ---------------------------- ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ Writing HTML output to D:/Documents and Settings/<username>/My Documents/<SNIP>/cover_db/coverage.html ... done.

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 4 CTP 5 POCO - Many-to-many configuration, insertion, and update?

    - by Saxman
    I really need someone to help me to fully understand how to do many-to-many relationship with Entity Framework 4 CTP 5, POCO. I need to understand 3 concepts: How to config my model to indicates some tables are many-to-many. How to properly do insert. How to properly do update. Here are my current models: public class MusicSheet { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string Title { get; set; } public string Key { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Author> Authors { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Tag> Tags { get; set; } } public class Author { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Bio { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<MusicSheet> MusicSheets { get; set; } } public class Tag { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string TagName { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<MusicSheet> MusicSheets { get; set; } } As you can see, the MusicSheet can have many Authors or Tags, and an Author or Tag can have multiple MusicSheets. Again, my questions are: What to do on the EntityTypeConfiguration to set the relationship between them as well as mapping to an table/object that associates with the many-to-many relationship. How to insert a new music sheets (where it might have multiple authors or multiple tags). How to update a music sheet. For example, I might set TagA, TagB to MusicSheet1, but later I need to change the tags to TagA and TagC. It seems like I need to first check to see if the tags already exists, if not, insert the new tag and then associate it with the music sheet (so that I doesn't re-insert TagA?). Or this is something already handled by the framework? Thank you very much. I really hope to fully understand it rather than just doing it without fully understand what's going on. Especially on #3.

    Read the article

  • How to retain canvas state and use it in onDraw() method

    - by marqss
    I want to make a measure tape component for my app. It should look something like this with values from 0cm to 1000cm: Initially I created long bitmap image with repeated tape background. I drew that image to canvas in onDraw() method of my TapeView (extended ImageView). Then I drew a set of numbers with drawText() on top of the canvas. public TapeView(Context context, AttributeSet attrs){ ImageView imageView = new ImageView(mContext); LayoutParams params = new LayoutParams(LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT, LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT); imageView.setLayoutParams(params); mBitmap = createTapeBitmap(); imageView.setImageBitmap(mBitmap); this.addView(imageView); } private Bitmap createTapeBitmap(){ Bitmap mBitmap = Bitmap.createBitmap(5000, 100, Config.ARGB_8888); //size of the tape Bitmap tape = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(),R.drawable.tape);//the image size is 100x100px Bitmap scaledTape = Bitmap.createScaledBitmap(tape, 100, 100, false); Canvas c = new Canvas(mBitmap); Paint paint = new Paint(); paint.setColor(Color.WHITE); paint.setFakeBoldText(true); paint.setAntiAlias(true); paint.setTextSize(30); for(int i=0; i<=500; i++){ //draw background image c.drawBitmap(scaledTape,(i * 200), 0, null); //draw number in the middle of that background String text = String.valueOf(i); int textWidth = (int) paint.measureText(text); int position = (i * 100) + 100 - (textWidth / 2); c.drawText(text, position, 20, paint); } return mBitmap; } Finally I added this view to HorizontalScrollView. At the beginning everything worked beautifully but I realised that the app uses a Lot of memory and sometimes crashed with OutOfMemory exception. It was obvious because a size of the bitmap image was ~4mb! In order to increase the performance, instead of creating the bitmap I use Drawable (with the yellow tape strip) and set the tile mode to REPEAT: setTileModeX(TileMode.REPEAT); The view now is very light but I cannot figure out how to add numbers. There are too many of them to redraw them each time the onDraw method is called. Is there any way that I can draw these numbers on canvas and then save that canvas so it can be reused in onDraw() method?

    Read the article

  • Asp.net login problem.

    - by Catarrunas
    Hello, im building a asp.net web site with 2.0 framework. I've been "fighting" with web.config, i've changed it quiet some times. So to start from scracht this is what i have: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <configuration> <connectionStrings> <remove name="LocalSqlServer"/> <add name="ABC" connectionString="Database=jsilvaqqc.mdf; Data Source=213.175.208.3;Initial Catalog=jsilvaqqc;User ID=jsilva;Password=joao123#;" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Database=jsilvaqqc.mdf; Data Source=213.175.208.3;Initial Catalog=jsilvaqqc;User ID=jsilva;Password=joao123#;" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> </connectionStrings> <location path="Members"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> <deny users="?"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> <system.web> <compilation debug="true"/> </system.web></configuration> It works fine im my machine. I've created the users for the login and the role to access the "Members" folder. But in my host company, it doesnt work. I have the aspnet database from my computer in that databese "jsilvaqqc.mdf". When i try to log on pops up box requiring autentication. But i've alreadu given that in the log in form. Do i need aspnet "authentication" tag? Why dont i need it in my machine if i access the same database? Thanks for you help.

    Read the article

  • Optimising speeds in HDF5 using Pytables

    - by Sree Aurovindh
    The problem is with respect to the writing speed of the computer (10 * 32 bit machine) and the postgresql query performance.I will explain the scenario in detail. I have data about 80 Gb (along with approprite database indexes in place). I am trying to read it from Postgresql database and writing it into HDF5 using Pytables.I have 1 table and 5 variable arrays in one hdf5 file.The implementation of Hdf5 is not multithreaded or enabled for symmetric multi processing.I have rented about 10 computers for a day and trying to write them inorder to speed up my data handling. As for as the postgresql table is concerned the overall record size is 140 million and I have 5 primary- foreign key referring tables.I am not using joins as it is not scalable So for a single lookup i do 6 lookup without joins and write them into hdf5 format. For each lookup i do 6 inserts into each of the table and its corresponding arrays. The queries are really simple select * from x.train where tr_id=1 (primary key & indexed) select q_t from x.qt where q_id=2 (non-primary key but indexed) (similarly five queries) Each computer writes two hdf5 files and hence the total count comes around 20 files. Some Calculations and statistics: Total number of records : 14,37,00,000 Total number of records per file : 143700000/20 =71,85,000 The total number of records in each file : 71,85,000 * 5 = 3,59,25,000 Current Postgresql database config : My current Machine : 8GB RAM with i7 2nd generation Processor. I made changes to the following to postgresql configuration file : shared_buffers : 2 GB effective_cache_size : 4 GB Note on current performance: I have run it for about ten hours and the performance is as follows: The total number of records written for each file is about 6,21,000 * 5 = 31,05,000 The bottle neck is that i can only rent it for 10 hours per day (overnight) and if it processes in this speed it will take about 11 days which is too high for my experiments. Please suggest me on how to improve. Questions: 1. Should i use Symmetric multi processing on those desktops(it has 2 cores with about 2 GB of RAM).In that case what is suggested or prefereable? 2. If i change my postgresql configuration file and increase the RAM will it enhance my process. 3. Should i use multi threading.. In that case any links or pointers would be of great help Thanks Sree aurovindh V

    Read the article

  • Application error with MyFaces 1.2: java.lang.IllegalStateException: No Factories configured for this Application.

    - by IgorB
    For my app I'm using Tomcat 6.0.x and Mojarra 1.2_04 JSF implementation. It works fine, just I would like to switch now to MyFaces 1.2_10 impl of JSF. During the deployment of my app a get the following error: ERROR [org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase.[Catalina].[localhost].[/myApp]] StandardWrapper.Throwable java.lang.IllegalStateException: No Factories configured for this Application. This happens if the faces-initialization does not work at all - make sure that you properly include all configuration settings necessary for a basic faces application and that all the necessary libs are included. Also check the logging output of your web application and your container for any exceptions! If you did that and find nothing, the mistake might be due to the fact that you use some special web-containers which do not support registering context-listeners via TLD files and a context listener is not setup in your web.xml. A typical config looks like this; <listener> <listener-class>org.apache.myfaces.webapp.StartupServletContextListener</listener-class> </listener> at javax.faces.FactoryFinder.getFactory(FactoryFinder.java:106) at javax.faces.webapp.FacesServlet.init(FacesServlet.java:137) at org.apache.myfaces.webapp.MyFacesServlet.init(MyFacesServlet.java:113) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapper.loadServlet(StandardWrapper.java:1172) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapper.load(StandardWrapper.java:992) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext.loadOnStartup(StandardContext.java:4058) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext.start(StandardContext.java:4371) ... Here is part of my web.xml configuration: <servlet> <servlet-name>Faces Servlet</servlet-name> <!-- <servlet-class>javax.faces.webapp.FacesServlet</servlet-class> --> <servlet-class>org.apache.myfaces.webapp.MyFacesServlet</servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> ... <listener> <listener- class>org.apache.myfaces.webapp.StartupServletContextListener</listener-class> </listener> Has anyone experienced similar error, and what should I do i order to fix it? Thanx!

    Read the article

  • How to fine tune FluentNHibernate's auto mapper?

    - by Venemo
    Okay, so yesterday I managed to get the latest trunk builds of NHibernate and FluentNHibernate to work with my latest little project. (I'm working on a bug tracking application.) I created a nice data access layer using the Repository pattern. I decided that my entities are nothing special, and also that with the current maturity of ORMs, I don't want to hand-craft the database. So, I chose to use FluentNHibernate's auto mapping feature with NHibernate's "hbm2ddl.auto" property set to "create". It really works like a charm. I put the NHibernate configuration in my app domain's config file, set it up, and started playing with it. (For the time being, I created some unit tests only.) It created all tables in the database, and everything I need for it. It even mapped my many-to-many relationships correctly. However, there are a few small glitches: All of the columns created in the DB allow null. I understand that it can't predict which properties should allow null and which shouldn't, but at least I'd like to tell it that it should allow null only for those types for which null makes sense in .NET (eg. non-nullable value types shouldn't allow null). All of the nvarchar and varbinary columns it created, have a default length of 255. I would prefer to have them on max instead of that. Is there a way to tell the auto mapper about the two simple rules above? If the answer is no, will it work correctly if I modify the tables it created? (So, if I set some columns not to allow null, and change the allowed length for some other, will it correctly work with them?) EDIT: I managed to achieve the above by using Fluent NHibernate's convention API. Thanks to everyone who helped! However, there is one more thing: after checking out the convention API, I really would like my IDs to be calld "ID", not "Id", but it seems to me that the PrimaryKey.Name.Is(x => "ID") is not working at all. If I add it to the conventions collection and rewrite my entities' properties to "ID" instead of "Id", it throws an exception that there is no primary key mapped. Any thoughts on this?

    Read the article

  • Returning mySQL error with jQuery & AJAX

    - by kel
    I've got a form inserting data into mySQL. It works but I'm trying to add error handling in case something happens. If I break the Insert statements mySQL dies but I'm still getting a success message on the front end. What am I doing wrong? AJAX function postData(){ var employeeName = jQuery('#employeeName').val(); var hireDate = jQuery('#hireDate').val(); var position = jQuery('#position').val(); var location = jQuery('#location').val(); var interveiwer = jQuery('#interviewersID').val(); var q01 = jQuery('#q01').val(); var q02 = jQuery('#q02').val(); var q03 = jQuery('#q03').val(); var q04 = jQuery('#q04').val(); var q05 = jQuery('#q05').val(); var summary = jQuery('#summary').val(); jQuery.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'queryDay.php', data: 'employeeName='+ employeeName +'&hireDate='+ hireDate +'&position='+ position +'&location='+ location +'&interveiwer='+ interveiwer +'&q01='+ q01 +'&q02='+ q02 +'&q03='+ q03 +'&q04='+ q04 +'&q05='+ q05 +'&summary='+ summary, success: function(){ jQuery('#formSubmitted').show(); }, error: function(jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown){ jQuery('#returnError').html(errorThrown); jQuery('#formError').show(); } }); }; PHP require_once 'config.php'; $employeeName = $_POST['employeeName']; $hireDate = $_POST['hireDate']; $position = $_POST['position']; $location = $_POST['location']; $interviewerID = $_POST['interveiwer']; $q01 = $_POST['q01']; $q02 = $_POST['q02']; $q03 = $_POST['q03']; $q04 = $_POST['q04']; $q05 = $_POST['q05']; $summary = $_POST['summary']; mysql_query("INSERT INTO employee (name, hiredate, position, location) VALUES ('$employeeName', '$hireDate', '$position', '$location')") or die (mysql_error()); $employeeID = mysql_insert_id(); mysql_query("INSERT INTO day (employee, interviewer, datetaken, q01, q02, q03, q04, q05, summary) VALUES ('$employeeID', '$interviewerID', NOW(), '$q01', '$q02', '$q03', '$q04', '$q05', '$summary')") or die (mysql_error());

    Read the article

  • Anybody Know of any Tools to help Analysing .NET Trace Log Files?

    - by peter
    I am developing a C# .NET application. In the app.config file I add trace logging as shown, <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <configuration> <system.diagnostics> <trace autoflush="true" /> <sources> <source name="System.Net.Sockets" maxdatasize="1024"> <listeners> <add name="MyTraceFile"/> </listeners> </source> </sources> <sharedListeners> <add name="MyTraceFile" type="System.Diagnostics.TextWriterTraceListener" initializeData="System.Net.trace.log" /> </sharedListeners> <switches> <add name="System.Net" value="Verbose" /> </switches> </system.diagnostics> </configuration> Are there any good tools around to analyse the log file that is output? The output looks like this, System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] Data from Socket#8764489::Send DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 00000000 : 4D 49 4D 45 2D 56 65 72-73 69 6F 6E 3A 20 31 2E : MIME-Version: 1. DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 00000060 : 65 3A 20 37 20 41 70 72-20 32 30 31 30 20 31 35 : e: 7 Apr 2010 15 DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 00000070 : 3A 32 32 3A 34 30 20 2B-31 32 30 30 0D 0A 53 75 : :22:40 +1200..Su DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 00000080 : 62 6A 65 63 74 3A 20 5B-45 72 72 6F 72 5D 20 45 : bject: [Error] E DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 00000090 : 78 63 65 70 74 69 6F 6E-20 69 6E 20 53 79 6E 63 : xception in Sync DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 000000A0 : 53 65 72 76 69 63 65 20-28 32 30 30 38 2E 30 2E : Service (2008.0. DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z System.Net.Sockets Verbose: 0 : [5900] 000000B0 : 33 30 34 2E 31 32 33 34-32 29 0D 0A 43 6F 6E 74 : 304.12342)..Cont DateTime=2010-04-07T03:22:40.1067012Z Is there anything that can take the output shown above (my output is a text file 100mb in size), group together packets, and help out with finding particular issues I would like to hear about it. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • PHP - Cannot modify header information...

    - by Scott W.
    Hi, I am going crazy with this error: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by... Please note that I know about the gazillion results on google and on stack overflow. My problem is the way I've constructed my pages. To keep html separate from php, I use include files. So, for example, my pages look something like this: <?php require_once('web.config.php'); ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Login</title> <link rel="shortcut icon" href="images/favicon.gif"/> <link rel="shortcut icon" href="images/favicon.ico"/> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="<?php echo SITE_STYLE; ?>"/> </head> <body> <div id="page_effect" style="display:none;"> <?php require_once('./controls/login/login.control.php'); ?> </div> </body> </html> So, by the time my php file is included, the header is already sent. Part of the include file looks like this: // redirect to destination if($user_redirect != 'default') { $destination_url = $row['DestinationUrl']; header('Location:'.$user_redirect); } elseif($user_redirect == 'default' && isset($_GET['ReturnURL'])) { $destination_url = $_GET['ReturnURL']; header('Location:'.$destination_url); } else { header('Location:'.SITE_URL.'login.php'); } But I can't figure out how to work around this. I can't have the header redirect before the output so having output buffering on is the only thing I can do. Naturally it works fine that way - but having to rely on that just stinks. It would be nice if PHP had an alternative way to redirect or had additional parameters to tell it to clear the buffer.

    Read the article

  • Cannot Call WordPress Plugin Files Under wp-content

    - by Volomike
    I have a client who has many blog customers. Each of these WordPress blogs calls a plugin that provides a product link. The way that link is composed looks like this: {website}/wp-content/plugins/prodx/product?id=432320 This works fine on all blogs except two. On those two, when you try to call the URL, you get a 404. So, I disabled all plugins except prodx and reverted the theme to default (Kubrick), thinking perhaps a plugin intercept with add_action() API was doing this, such as intercepting URLs and redirecting them. However, this did not help. So, I upgraded the WordPress to the latest version. Again, didn't fix. So, I checked permissions, comparing with a blog that worked just fine. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced the .htaccess, using one from a working blog. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced all the files using some from a working blog that was identical to this one, and then restored the wp-config.php file back so that it talked to the right blog database. Again, didn't fix. Again I checked permissions meticulously, comparing to a perfectly working blog. Again, didn't fix. So, I created a test.php that looks like so: <?php print_r($_GET); echo "hello world"; I then copied it into another plugin folder and used my browser to get to it -- again, 404. So I copied it into the root of wp-content/plugins and tried to call it there -- again, 404. So I copied it into wp-content -- again, 404. Last, I copied it into the root of the WordPress blog website, and this time, it worked! Doesn't make sense. I started to think that perhaps something was going on with /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf for this customer, but the only thing I saw different in their for this customer was the IP address was different than the customer's blog that worked. Each customer gets their own IP in this environment my client has built. My client sysop is baffled too. What do you think is going on? Is there something wrong in the WP database for this customer? Is there something wrong in httpd.conf?

    Read the article

  • Slow MySQL query....only sometimes

    - by Shane N
    I have a query that's used in a reporting system of ours that sometimes runs quicker than a second, and other times takes 1 to 10 minutes to run. Here's the entry from the slow query log: # Query_time: 543 Lock_time: 0 Rows_sent: 0 Rows_examined: 124948974 use statsdb; SELECT count(distinct Visits.visitorid) as 'uniques' FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime>=1275721200 and visittime<=1275807599 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9 AND Visits.visitorid NOT IN (SELECT Visits.visitorid FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime<1275721200 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9); It's basically counting unique visitors, and it's doing that by counting the visitors for today and then substracting those that have been here before. If you know of a better way to do this, let me know. I just don't understand why sometimes it can be so quick, and other times takes so long - even with the same exact query under the same server load. Here's the EXPLAIN on this query. As you can see it's using the indexes I've set up: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY Visits range visittime_visitorid,visitorid visittime_visitorid 4 NULL 82500 Using where; Using index 1 PRIMARY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visits ref visittime_visitorid,visitorid visitorid 8 func 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where I tried to optimize the query a few weeks ago and came up with a variation that consistently took about 2 seconds, but in practice it ended up taking more time since 90% of the time the old query returned much quicker. Two seconds per query is too long because we are calling the query up to 50 times per page load, with different time periods. Could the quick behavior be due to the query being saved in the query cache? I tried running 'RESET QUERY CACHE' and 'FLUSH TABLES' between my benchmark tests and I was still getting quick results most of the time. Note: last night while running the query I got an error: Unable to save result set. My initial research shows that may be due to a corrupt table that needs repair. Could this be the reason for the behavior I'm seeing? In case you want server info: Accessing via PHP 4.4.4 MySQL 4.1.22 All tables are InnoDB We run optimize table on all tables weekly The sum of both the tables used in the query is 500 MB MySQL config: key_buffer = 350M max_allowed_packet = 16M thread_stack = 128K sort_buffer = 14M read_buffer = 1M bulk_insert_buffer_size = 400M set-variable = max_connections=150 query_cache_limit = 1048576 query_cache_size = 50777216 query_cache_type = 1 tmp_table_size = 203554432 table_cache = 120 thread_cache_size = 4 wait_timeout = 28800 skip-external-locking innodb_file_per_table innodb_buffer_pool_size = 3512M innodb_log_file_size=100M innodb_log_buffer_size=4M

    Read the article

  • New to asp.net. Need help debugging this email form.

    - by Roeland
    Hey guys, First of all, I am a php developer and most of .net is alien to me which is why I am posting here! I just migrated over a site from one set of webhosting to another. The whole site is written in .net. None of the site is database driven so most of it works, except for the contact form. The output on the site simple states there was an error with "There has been an error - please try to submit the contact form again, if you continue to experience problems, please notify our webmaster." This is just a simple message it pops out of it gets to the "catch" part of the email function. I went into web.config and changed the parameters: <emailaddresses> <add name="System" value="[email protected]"/> <add name="Contact" value="[email protected]"/> <add name="Info" value="[email protected]"/> </emailaddresses> <general> <add name="WebSiteDomain" value="hoyespharmacy.com"/> </general> Then the .cs file for contact contains the mail function EmailFormData(): private void EmailFormData() { try { StringBuilder body = new StringBuilder(); body.Append("Name" + ": " + txtName.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Phone" + ": " + txtPhone.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Email" + ": " + txtEmail.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Fax" + ": " + txtEmail.Text + "\n\r"); body.Append("Subject" + ": " + ddlSubject.SelectedValue + "\n\r"); body.Append("Message" + ": " + txtMessage.Text); MailMessage mail = new MailMessage(); mail.IsBodyHtml = false; mail.To.Add(new MailAddress(Settings.GetEmailAddress("System"))); mail.Subject = "Contact Us Form Submission"; mail.From = new MailAddress(Settings.GetEmailAddress("System"), Settings.WebSiteDomain); mail.Body = body.ToString(); SmtpClient smtpcl = new SmtpClient(); smtpcl.Send(mail); } catch { Utilities.RedirectPermanently(Request.Url.AbsolutePath + "?messageSent=false"); } } How do I see what the actual error is. I figure I can do something with the "catch" part of the function.. Any pointers? Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402  | Next Page >