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  • Weird behavior of matching array keys after json_decode()

    - by arnorhs
    I've got some very weird behavior in my PHP code. I don't know if this is actually a good SO question, since it almost looks like a bug in PHP. I had this problem in a project of mine and isolated the problem: // json object that will be converted into an array $json = '{"5":"88"}'; $jsonvar = (array) json_decode($json); // notice: Casting to an array // Displaying the array: var_dump($jsonvar); // Testing if the key is there var_dump(isset($jsonvar["5"])); var_dump(isset($jsonvar[5])); That code outputs the following: array(1) { ["5"]=> string(2) "88" } bool(false) bool(false) The big problem: Both of those tests should produce bool(true) - if you create the same array using regular php arrays, this is what you'll see: // Let's create a similar PHP array in a regular manner: $phparr = array("5" => "88"); // Displaying the array: var_dump($phparr); // Testing if the key is there var_dump(isset($phparr["5"])); var_dump(isset($phparr[5])); The output of that: array(1) { [5]=> string(2) "88" } bool(true) bool(true) So this doesn't really make sense. I've tested this on two different installations of PHP/apache. You can copy-paste the code to a php file yourself to test it. It must have something to do with the casting from an object to an array.

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  • My treeview Data is Not changing.

    - by Vibin Jith
    Hai , I am trying to display the user permission in a treeview.For each user permissions are stored in the database as xml file. In the page, a Combo box used to list the users and a treeView used to bind the Permission xml. When the user get selected in the combo box , i took the xml from the database and connect with xmlDatasource and bind with the treeView. What happening is , First time the TreeView fill with the xml nodes and another time it will not work. For the first selection it's ok. Anothers selections are not effected by the treeview. The code is debugging. No problem. Can you just tell ,why the treeview datasource is not updating. I used this code .. Dim permissionRoot = From permissionNode In MyUser.UserPermissionXml.Root.Elements("menuNode") XmlTreeViewSource.Data = permissionRoot(0).ToString trvPermission.DataSource = XmlTreeViewSource trvPermission.DataBind() SetPermission(trvPermission.Nodes(0)) The markups <asp:TreeView ID="trvPermission" runat="server" ExpandDepth="2" ShowCheckBoxes="All" ShowLines="True" ForeColor="#005782" > <DataBindings> <asp:TreeNodeBinding DataMember="menuNode" TextField="title" ValueField="value" /> </DataBindings> </asp:TreeView>

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  • Question regarding parent/child relationships with dynamically generated checkboxes using jquery

    - by Jeff
    I have a form of checkboxes, that is dynamically generated based on the users content. Sections of checkboxes are broken up by categories, and each category has projects within. For database purposes, the category values have checkboxes, that are hidden. IF a category has sub items that have checkboxes that are checked, THEN the category checkbox is checked as well. I have gotten this working ok using the JQuery .click(), but I can't figure out how to do it when the page loads. Here is my code for when a checkbox is actually clicked: $(".project").click(function() { if($(this).is(":checked") && $(this).hasClass("project")) { $(this).parent().parent().children(':first').attr('checked', true); }else if(!$(this).parent().children('.project').is(":checked")){ $(this).parent().parent().children(':first').attr('checked', false); } }); Now when I am editing the status of these boxes (meaning after they have been saved to the db) the category boxes are not showing up as checked even though their children projects are checked. What can I do to make it so that my category box will be checked at load time if that category's child is checked? Part of the problem I think is with the dynamically changing parent child setup, how can I find the parent box in order to have it checked? Thanks!

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  • ASP.Net event only being raised every other time?

    - by eftpotrm
    I have an ASP.Net web user control which represents a single entry in a list. To allow users to reorder the items, each item has buttons to move the item up or down the list. Clicking on one of these raises an event to the parent page, which then shuffles the items in the placeholder control. Code fragments from the list entry: Public Event UpClicked As System.EventHandler Protected Sub btnUp_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnUp.Click RaiseEvent UpClicked(Me, New EventArgs()) End Sub And the parent container: rem (within the code to add an individual item to the placeholder) AddHandler l_oItem.UpClicked, AddressOf UpClicked Protected Sub UpClicked(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) MoveItem(DirectCast(sender, ScriptListItem), -1) End Sub It originally looked in testing like every other time the value for sender (verified by its properties) that reaches UpClicked is of an adjacent ListItem, not the one I've just clicked on - the first click is always wrong, then the second for the correct control. At present, testing appears to show that the button's click event is just being ignored every other time through. Breakpoints on the click events within the control simply aren't being hit, though the events are definitely being established. Why?

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  • Client validate in MVC 2

    - by khoailang
    Hello, I'm very new in MVC 2, Let say, I have a page with 1 text box and 2 input typed submit, "back" and "next". I'm using client validation like this: "" type="text/javascript"/" " type="text/javascript"/ " type="text/javascript"/ . . . <% Html.EnableClientValidation(); % . . . . . . and validation rule used for that text box is [StringLength(100, ErrorMessage="This field should be no longer than 100")] My wish is that validation rules will be applied only when I click on Next button. And when I click on Back button, no validation error message will be displayed and form will be posted to server. Is it possible to do that? could you please tell me how? My problem now is that when I click Back, validation rules are applied and prevent me from posting back to server.

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  • Using a variable in a mysql query, in a C++ MFC program.

    - by D.Gaughan
    Hi, after extensive trawling of the internet I still havent found any solution for this problem. I`m writing a small C++ app that connects to an online database and outputs the data in a listbox. I need to enable a search function using an edit box, but I cant get the query to work while using a variable. My code is: res = mysql_perform_query (conn, "select distinct artist from Artists"); //res = mysql_perform_query (conn, "select album from Artists where artist = ' ' "); while((row = mysql_fetch_row(res)) != NULL){ CString str; UpdateData(); str = ("%s\n", row[0]); UpdateData(FALSE); m_list_control.AddString(str); } the first "res = " line is working fine, but I need the second one to work. I have a member variable m_search_edit set up for the edit box, but any way I try to include it in the sql statement causes errors. eg. res = mysql_perform_query (conn, "select album from Artists where artist = '"+m_search_edit+" ' "); causes this error: error C2664: 'mysql_perform_query' : cannot convert parameter 2 from 'class CString' to 'char *' No user-defined-conversion operator available that can perform this conversion, or the operator cannot be called" And when I convert m_search_edit to a char* it gives me a " Cannot add 2 pointers" error. Any way around this???

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  • Problem with derived ControlTemplates in WPF

    - by Frank Fella
    The following xaml code works: <Window x:Class="DerivedTemplateBug.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:DerivedTemplateBug" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Button> <Button.Template> <ControlTemplate> <Border BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="2"> <TextBlock>Testing!</TextBlock> </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Button.Template> </Button> </Window> Now, if you define the following data template: using System.Windows.Controls; namespace DerivedTemplateBug { public class DerivedTemplate : ControlTemplate { } } And then swap the ControlTemplate for the derived class: <Window x:Class="DerivedTemplateBug.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:DerivedTemplateBug" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Button> <Button.Template> <local:DerivedTemplate> <Border BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="2"> <TextBlock>Testing!</TextBlock> </Border> </local:DerivedTemplate> </Button.Template> </Button> </Window> You get the following error: Invalid ContentPropertyAttribute on type 'DerivedTemplateBug.DerivedTemplate', property 'Content' not found. Can anyone tell me why this is the case?

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  • jQuery validate problem

    - by tohop
    Hi there. I have a jquery dialog box that pops up and takes user data through a form. Once the user is finished s/he clicks the 'ok' button. This dialog box has a few 'tabs' such that when 'ok' is clicked, we want to validate all the data given in each tab. If anything is invalid, we take the user to that tab and tell them what's wrong. However, it takes 2 clicks of 'ok' to achieve this. Here is the offending jquery: if(errors){ // display the tab with the error jQuery('#recording_tabs > div').each( function(i){ alert('we are here'); if(jQuery(this).find('*').not('label').hasClass('invalid')){ jQuery('#recording_tabs').tabs('option','selected', i); return false;// prevent further processing } }); } So what happens in the above code is that when we click 'ok' we get a 'we are here' alert for each div (tab) and then nothing happens. Clicking 'ok' again gives us the 'we are here' alert up until we are taken to the tab with the errors. So obviously the first time round the inner if statement is false for each tab which probably means jQuery hasn't registered the 'invalid' classes in time. So I tried a blank each() statement just before the main one in the hope that it would fix the problem jQuery('#recording_tabs > div').each( function(i){} ); But I got the same result. Can anyone spot anything I am missing?

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  • How to hide canvas content from parent rounded corners in any webkit for Mac?

    - by Jose Rui Santos
    I have a parent div with rounded corners that contains a canvas: <div id="box"> <canvas width="300px" height="300px"></canvas> </div>? #box { width: 150px; height: 150px; background-color: blue; border-radius: 50px; overflow: hidden; }? The canvas renders a red rectangle that overflows the parent. As expected, this is what I get in all browsers: The problem: However, for webkit browsers running in Mac OS lion (I tested Safari 5.1.5 and Chrome 19), the canvas is still visible in the round corners: Interestingly, this problem seems to happen only when the inner element is a canvas. For any other child element, the content is correctly hidden. One workaround would be to apply the same rounded corners to the canvas itself, but unfortunately this is not possible, since I need to animate the canvas relative position. Another workaround that should work, is to redraw the canvas in a clipped region that resembles the rounded corners shape, but I would prefer a cleaner CSS3 solution. So, does one know how to fix this for Safari and Chrome on Mac? EDIT: Problem also happens in Chrome on Win7 jsFiddle here

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  • Windows 2008 VPS hosting experiences

    - by Luke Bennett
    Whilst similar questions exist, I couldn't find any which quite match my request. I'm looking for hosting for some personal .NET projects which for various reasons I do not want to host on our servers at work. I need to be able to host multiple sites and for that reason I'm thinking of a VPS with RDP access for the time being - don't fancy shared hosting as I feel that doesn't offer me the flexbility and control I'm looking for. What experiences do people have of Windows 2008 VPS providers? I've come across a few possibilities although it seems a lot of places are still on Windows 2003 with 2008 'coming soon'. Is VPS the best way to go? Eventually (depending on how the projects take off) I intend to get a dedicated box but at this stage it's not cost-effective. Also, what are people's experiences of running SQL Server Express on a VPS? What would you say the minimum requirements are for CPU/memory? I know it's not going to be anywhere near as performant as SQL Server 2005/8 running on a dedicated box but I'm hoping it will be an acceptable starting point. Any other tips/advice also welcome! Edit: Forgot to mention, I'm ideally looking for UK hosting although I'm open to alternatives.

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  • How to -accurately- measure size in pixels of text being drawn on a canvas by drawTextOnPath()

    - by Nick
    I'm using drawTextOnPath() to display some text on a Canvas and I need to know the dimensions of the text being drawn. I know this is not feasible for paths composed of multiple segments, curves, etc. but my path is a single segment which is perfectly horizontal. I am using Paint.getTextBounds() to get a Rect with the dimensions of the text I want to draw. I use this rect to draw a bounding box around the text when I draw it at an arbitrary location. Here's some simplified code that reflects what I am currently doing: // to keep this example simple, always at origin (0,0) public drawBoundedText(Canvas canvas, String text, Paint paint) { Rect textDims = new Rect(); paint.getTextBounds(text,0, text.length(), textDims); float hOffset = 0; float vOffset = paint.getFontMetrics().descent; // vertically centers text float startX = textDims.left; / 0 float startY = textDims.bottom; float endX = textDims.right; float endY = textDims.bottom; path.moveTo(startX, startY); path.lineTo(endX, endY); path.close(); // draw the text canvas.drawTextOnPath(text, path, 0, vOffset, paint); // draw bounding box canvas.drawRect(textDims, paint); } The results are -close- but not perfect. If I replace the second to last line with: canvas.drawText(text, startX, startY - vOffset, paint); Then it works perfectly. Usually there is a gap of 1-3 pixels on the right and bottom edges. The error seems to vary with font size as well. Any ideas? It's possible I'm doing everything right and the problem is with drawTextOnPath(); the text quality very visibly degrades when drawing along paths, even if the path is horizontal, likely because of the interpolation algorithm or whatever its using behind the scenes. I wouldnt be surprised to find out that the size jitter is also coming from there.

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  • ruby on rails implement search with auto complete

    - by user429400
    I've implemented a search box that searches the "Illnesses" table and the "symptoms" table in my DB. Now I want to add auto-complete to the search box. I've created a new controller called "auto_complete_controller" which returns the auto complete data. I'm just not sure how to combine the search functionality and the auto complete functionality: I want the "index" action in my search controller to return the search results, and the "index" action in my auto_complete controller to return the auto_complete data. Please guide me how to fix my html syntax and what to write in the js.coffee file. I'm using rails 3.x with the jquery UI for auto-complete, I prefer a server side solution, and this is my current code: main_page/index.html.erb: <p> <b>Syptoms / Illnesses</b> <%= form_tag search_path, :method => 'get' do %> <p> <%= text_field_tag :search, params[:search] %> <br/> <%= submit_tag "Search", :name => nil %> </p> <% end %> </p> auto_complete_controller.rb: class AutoCompleteController < ApplicationController def index @results = Illness.order(:name).where("name like ?", "%#{params[:term]}%") + Symptom.order(:name).where("name like ?", "%#{params[:term]}%") render json: @results.map(&:name) end end search_controller.rb: class SearchController < ApplicationController def index @results = Illness.search(params[:search]) + Symptom.search(params[:search]) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render json: @results } end end end Thanks, Li

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  • Rails creating users, roles, and projects

    - by Bobby
    I am still fairly new to rails and activerecord, so please excuse any oversights. I have 3 models that I'm trying to tie together (and a 4th to actually do the tying) to create a permission scheme using user-defined roles. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :user_projects has_many :projects, :through => :user_projects has_many :project_roles, :through => :user_projects end class Project < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :user_projects has_many :users, :through => :user_projects has_many :project_roles end class ProjectRole < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :projects belongs_to :user_projects end class UserProject < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :project has_one :project_role attr_accessible :project_role_id end The project_roles model contains a user-defined role name, and booleans that define whether the given role has permissions for a specific task. I'm looking for an elegant solution to reference that from anywhere within the project piece of my application easily. I do already have a role system implemented for the entire application. What I'm really looking for though is that the users will be able to manage their own roles on a per-project basis. Every project gets setup with an immutable default admin role, and the project creator gets added upon project creation. Since the users are creating the roles, I would like to be able to pull a list of role names from the project and user models through association (for display purposes), but for testing access, I would like to simply reference them by what they have access to without having reference them by name. Perhaps something like this? def has_perm?(permission, user) # The permission that I'm testing user.current_project.project_roles.each do |role| if role.send(permission) # Not sure that's right... do_stuff end end end I think I'm in over my head on this one because I keep running in circles on how I can best implement this.

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  • whats a sure shot way to make sure objects appear correctly positioned on stage

    - by dubbeat
    Hi, I've being having a lot of trouble recently getting objects (UIComponents containing movieclips) to appear correctly in the right positions. For example, my current dilema is I have a container that is 3 layers deep. outer layer inner layer display layer This hiearachy was built in CS4 as a movieclip. In the display layer in CS4 I figured out where I want to place 16 different "box" movieclips. I dont want to create these boxes maunually at design time, instead I want to add them at run time. So I know what container I want to add my boxes to. I know what positions they "would" be at in CS4 environment. Whats the best way to add them in the correct locations with code? The "box" I'm trying to add in a movieclip held inside of a UIComponent. Is there a "rule of thumb" to do this type of thing? I'm sure I'm going to encounter this problem again and again and I'd like to just blow the problem out of the water once and for all with the "right way" to do this.

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  • Cancelling BackgroundWorker While Running

    - by Nevets
    I have an application in which I launch a window that displays byte data coming in from a 3rd party tool. I have included .CancelAsync() and .CancellationPending into my code (see below) but I have another issue that I am running into. private void backgroundWorker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { Thread popupwindow = new Thread(() => test()); popupwindow.Start(); // start test script if(backgroundWorker.CancellationPending == true) { e.Cancel = true; } } private voide window_FormClosing(object sender, FormClosingEventArgs e) { try { this.backgroundWorker.CancelAsync(); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message.ToString()); } } Upon cancelling the test I get an `InvalidOperationException occurred" error from my rich text box in my pop-up window. It states that "Invoke or BeginInvoke" cannot be called on a control until the window handle has been created". I am not entirely sure what that means and would appreciate your help. LogWindow code for Rich Text Box: public void LogWindowText(LogMsgType msgtype, string msgIn) { rtbSerialNumberValue.Invoke(new EventHandler(delegate { rtbWindow.SelectedText = string.Empty; rtbWindow.SelectionFont = new Font(rtbWindow.SelectionFont, FontStyle.Bold); rtbWindow.SelectionColor = LogMsgTypeColor[(int)msgtype]; rtbWindow.AppendText(msgIn); rtbWindow.ScrollToCaret(); })); }

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  • Subquery with multiple results combined into a single field?

    - by Todd
    Assume I have these tables, from which i need to display search results in a browser: Table: Containers id | name 1 Big Box 2 Grocery Bag 3 Envelope 4 Zip Lock Table: Sale id | date | containerid 1 20100101 1 2 20100102 2 3 20091201 3 4 20091115 4 Table: Items id | name | saleid 1 Barbie Doll 1 2 Coin 3 3 Pop-Top 4 4 Barbie Doll 2 5 Coin 4 I need output that looks like this: itemid itemname saleids saledates containerids containertypes 1 Barbie Doll 1,2 20100101,20100102 1,2 Big Box, Grocery Bag 2 Coin 3,4 20091201,20091115 3,4 Envelope, Zip Lock 3 Pop-Top 4 20091115 4 Zip Lock The important part is that each item type only gets one record/row in the return on the screen. I accomplished this in the past by returning multiple rows of the same item and using a scripting language to limit the output. However, this makes the ui overly complicated and loopy. So, I'm hoping I can get the database to spit out only as many records as there are rows to display. This example may be a bit extreme because of the 2 joins needed to get to the container from the item (through the sale table). I'd be happy for just an example query that outputs this: itemid itemname saleids saledates 1 Barbie Doll 1,2 20100101,20100102 2 Coin 3,4 20091201,20091115 3 Pop-Top 4 20091115 I can only return a single result in a subquery, so I'm not sure how to do this.

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  • Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

    - by Tony_Henrich
    My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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  • ASP.Net - Help with datagrid/checkboxes/double submit

    - by Gareth D
    We have a simple datagrid. Each row has a checkbox. The checkbox is set to autopostback, and the code-behind has an event handler for the checkbox check-changed event. This all works as expected, nothing complicated. However, we want to disable the checkboxes as soon as one is checked to prevent a double submit i.e. check box checked, all checkboxes are disabled via client side javascript, form submitted. To achieve this I we are injecting some code into the onclick event as follows (note that the alert is just for testing!): Protected Sub DgAccounts_ItemCreated(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataGridItemEventArgs) Handles DgAccounts.ItemCreated If e.Item.ItemType = ListItemType.Item Or e.Item.ItemType = ListItemType.AlternatingItem Then Dim chk As CheckBox = CType(e.Item.FindControl("chkItemChecked"), CheckBox) chk.Attributes.Add("onclick", "alert('fired ...');DisableAllDataGridCheckBoxes();") End If End Sub When inspecting the source of the rendered page we get the following: <input id="DgAccounts__ctl2_chkItemChecked" type="checkbox" name="DgAccounts:_ctl2:chkItemChecked" onclick="alert('fired ...');DisableAllDataGridCheckBoxes();setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'DgAccounts$_ctl2$chkItemChecked\',\'\')', 0)" language="javascript" /> It all appears in order, however the server side event does not fire – I believe this is due to the checkbox being disabled, as if we just leave the alert in and remove the call to disable the checkbox it all works fine. Can I force the check-changed event to fire even though the check box is disabled?

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  • c# How to find if two objects are equal

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I'm needing to know the best way to compare two objects and to find out if there equal. I'm overriding both GethashCode and Equals. So a basic class looks like: public class Test { public int Value { get; set; } public string String1 { get; set; } public string String2 { get; set; } public override int GetHashCode() { return Value ^ String1.GetHashCode() ^ String2.GetHashCode(); } public override bool Equals( object obj ) { return GetHashCode() == obj.GetHashCode(); } } So for testing purposes I created two objects: Test t = new Test() { Value = 1, String1 ="One", String2 = "One" }; Test t2 = new Test() { Value = 1, String1 = "Two", String2 = "Two" }; bool areEqual = t.Equals( t2 ); In testing this areEqual returns true event though both objects are different. I realise this is because String1 and String2 are the same value in each object and thus cancels each other out when hashing. Is there a better way off hashing object that the method I have that will resolve my issue?

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  • jQuery toggle pushing other elements around... bullies!!

    - by tony noriega
    Ok, so in the left_col of my page, i have a list UL LI that incorporates a jQuery toggle to open a small box, which is "LoginBox". <ul> <li class="members"><a href="/members/signon.asp?userType=member">Members</a></li> <li class="employers"><a href="/employers/signon.asp?userType=employer">Employers</a></li> <li class="providers"><a href="#LoginBox" class="clicker">Providers</a></li> <div class="loginbox" id="LoginBox"> <p>Medical</p> <p>Dental</p> </div> <li class="brokers"><a href="/brokers/signon.asp?userType=broker">Brokers</a></li> </ul> when the jQuery is invoked, it pushes the elements below it down. As expected. What i dont get is that i have an H3 tag below this UL LI which has a background image. The text portion of the H3 gets pushed down, but the background image seems to stay put, and the UL LI that gets pushed down just covers up the background image of the H3. why would the text move, but not the background image itself? here is the H3 style: .sectionmenu h3{ background: url(/_images/h3-triangle.gif) left center no-repeat; color: #000; font-size: 12px; font-weight: bold; padding: 4px 0px 4px 10px; margin: 0; border-bottom:1px dotted #aeaeae;; } and the login box style: .loginbox{ display:none; width:100px; height:50px; margin:0 0 0 77px; }

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  • sed script to remove file name duplicates

    - by dma_k
    Dear community, I hope the below task will be very easy for sed lovers. I am not sed-guru, but I need to express the following task in sed, as sed is more popular on Linux systems. The input text stream is something which is produced by "make depends" and looks like following: pgm2asc.o: pgm2asc.c ../include/config.h amiga.h list.h pgm2asc.h pnm.h \ output.h gocr.h unicode.h ocr1.h ocr0.h otsu.h barcode.h progress.h box.o: box.c gocr.h pnm.h ../include/config.h unicode.h list.h pgm2asc.h \ output.h database.o: database.c gocr.h pnm.h ../include/config.h unicode.h list.h \ pgm2asc.h output.h detect.o: detect.c pgm2asc.h pnm.h ../include/config.h output.h gocr.h \ unicode.h list.h I need to catch only C++ header files (i.e. ending with .h), make the list unique and print as space-separated list prepending src/ as a path-prefix. This is achieved by the following perl script: make libs-depends | perl -e 'while (<>) { while (/ ([\w\.\/]+?\.h)/g) { $a{$1} = 1; } } print join " ", map { "src/$_" } keys %a;' The output is: src/unicode.h src/pnm.h src/progress.h src/amiga.h src/ocr0.h src/ocr1.h src/otsu.h src/barcode.h src/gocr.h src/../include/config.h src/list.h src/pgm2asc.h src/output.h Please, help to express this in sed.

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  • Cross-platform build UNC share (Windows->Linux) - possible to be case-sensitive on CIFS share?

    - by holtavolt
    To optimize builds between Windows and Linux (Ubuntu 10.04), I've got a UNC share of the source tree that is shared between systems, and all build output goes to local disk on each system. This mostly works great, as source updates and changes can quickly be tested on both systems, but there's one annoying limitation I can't find a way around, which is that the Linux CIFS mount is case-insensitive. Consequently, a test compile of code that has an error like: #include "Foo.h" for a file foo.h, will not be caught by a test build (until a local compile is done on the Linux box, e.g. nightly builds) Is it possible to have case-sensitivity of the Windows UNC share on the Linux box? I've tried a variety of fstab and mount combinations with no success, as well as editing the smb.config to set "case sensitive = yes" Given what the Ubuntu man page info states on this: nocase Request case insensitive path name matching (case sensitive is the default if the server suports it). I suspect that this is a limitation from the Windows UNC side, and there's nothing to be done short of switching to some other mechanism (is NFS still viable anywhere?) If anyone has already solved this to support optimized cross-platform build environments, I'd appreciate hearing about it!

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  • How do I use cookies to store users' recent site history(PHP)?

    - by ggfan
    I decided to make a recent view box that allows users to see what links they clicked on before. Whenever they click on a posting, the posting's id gets stored in a cookie and displays it in the recent view box. In my ad.php, I have a definerecentview function that stores the posting's id (so I can call it later when trying to get the posting's information such as title, price from the database) in a cookie. How do I create a cookie array for this? **EXAMPLE:** user clicks on ad.php?posting_id='200' //this is in the ad.php function definerecentview() { $posting_id=$_GET['posting_id']; //this adds 30 days to the current time $Month = 2592000 + time(); $i=1; if (isset($posting_id)){ //lost here for($i=1,$i< ???,$i++){ setcookie("recentviewitem[$i]", $posting_id, $Month); } } } function displayrecentviews() { echo "<div class='recentviews'>"; echo "Recent Views"; if (isset($_COOKIE['recentviewitem'])) { foreach ($_COOKIE['recentviewitem'] as $name => $value) { echo "$name : $value <br />\n"; //right now just shows the posting_id } } echo "</div>"; } How do I use a for loop or foreach loop to make it that whenever a user clicks on an ad, it makes an array in the cookie? So it would be like.. 1. clicks on ad.php?posting_id=200 --- setcookie("recentviewitem[1]",200,$month); 2. clicks on ad.php?posting_id=201 --- setcookie("recentviewitem[2]",201,$month); 3. clicks on ad.php?posting_id=202 --- setcookie("recentviewitem[3]",202,$month); Then in the displayrecentitem function, I just echo however many cookies were set? I'm just totally lost in creating a for loop that sets the cookies. any help would be appreciated

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  • Jquery passing an HTML element into a function

    - by christian
    I have an HTML form where I am going to copy values from a series of input fields to some spans/headings as the user populates the input fields. I am able to get this working using the following code: $('#source').keyup(function(){ if($("#source").val().length == 0){ $("#destinationTitle").text('Sample Title'); }else{ $("#destinationTitle").text($("#source").val()); } }); In the above scenario the html is something like: Sample Title Basically, as the users fills out the source box, the text of the is changed to the value of the source input. If nothing is input in, or the user deletes the values typed into the box some default text is placed in the instead. Pretty straightforward. However, since I need to make this work for many different fields, it makes sense to turn this into a generic function and then bind that function to each 's onkeyup() event. But I am having some trouble with this. My implementation: function doStuff(source,target,defaultValue) { if($(source).val().length == 0){ $(target).text(defaultValue); }else{ $(target).text($(source).val()); } } which is called as follows: $('#source').keyup(function() { doStuff(this, '"#destinationTitle"', 'SampleTitle'); }); What I can't figure out is how to pass the second parameter, the name of the destination html element into the function. I have no problem passing in the element I'm binding to via "this", but can't figure out the destination element syntax. Any help would be appreciated - many thanks!

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  • problem in wordpress like delete rows in jquery

    - by Mac Taylor
    hey guys im trying to impelement a technique to delete stories with jquery animation exactly like wordpress this is my script part : $(function(){ $('#jqdelete').click(function() { $(this).parents('tr.box').animate( { backgroundColor: '#cb5555' }, 500).animate( { height: 0, paddingTop: 0, paddingBottom: 0 }, 500, function() { $(this).css( { 'display' : 'none' } ); }); }); }); and this is my html part <tr class='box'> <td> <a href=\"edit.php&pid=$pid\">$title</font></a></td> <td >$eki</td> <td> <a href='javascript:void(0)' id='jqdelete'> <img src=\"images/delete.gif\"></a> </td> </tr> but not working am i wrong in any part of my code ? Note : if i use div instead of tr and td , works fine , but i want to use this effect on my table rows thanx

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