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• "pseudo-atomic" operations in C++

  - by dan

  So I'm aware that nothing is atomic in C++. But I'm trying to figure out if there are any "pseudo-atomic" assumptions I can make. The reason is that I want to avoid using mutexes in some simple situations where I only need very weak guarantees. 1) Suppose I have globally defined volatile bool b, which initially I set true. Then I launch a thread which executes a loop while(b) doSomething(); Meanwhile, in another thread, I execute b=true. Can I assume that the first thread will continue to execute? In other words, if b starts out as true, and the first thread checks the value of b at the same time as the second thread assigns b=true, can I assume that the first thread will read the value of b as true? Or is it possible that at some intermediate point of the assignment b=true, the value of b might be read as false? 2) Now suppose that b is initially false. Then the first thread executes bool b1=b; bool b2=b; if(b1 && !b2) bad(); while the second thread executes b=true. Can I assume that bad() never gets called? 3) What about an int or other builtin types: suppose I have volatile int i, which is initially (say) 7, and then I assign i=7. Can I assume that, at any time during this operation, from any thread, the value of i will be equal to 7? 4) I have volatile int i=7, and then I execute i++ from some thread, and all other threads only read the value of i. Can I assume that i never has any value, in any thread, except for either 7 or 8? 5) I have volatile int i, from one thread I execute i=7, and from another I execute i=8. Afterwards, is i guaranteed to be either 7 or 8 (or whatever two values I have chosen to assign)?

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• This process does not work in JavaScript: createElement() -> setAttribute('id') -> getElementById()

  - by kristovaher

  I was so sure that this question has been answered a thousand times before, but I've been unable to find an answer in StackOverflow. If there is already an answer and I was unable to find it then I apologize. I create hidden form elements dynamically like this: submitForm=document.getElementById('my-form'); var element=document.createElement('input'); element.id='hidden-form-data'; // or setAttribute('id','hidden-form-data'); element.name='my-hidden-form-data'; element.type='hidden'; element.value='my-data'; submitForm.appendChild(element); This works and the input field is created and it is taken into account when submitting the form. But I want to remove it after I have dynamically created it. I was sure that creating a new node this way would be 'correct' for browser and DOM, but apparently it is not. This returns null: element=document.getElementById('hidden-form-data'); if(element!=null){ element.parentNode.removeChild(element); } But it never gets removed and is always null. Is there any way I can remove a dynamically created node with an ID? Thank you! Please do not suggest jQuery, it's not possible to use jQuery for this, footprint is too heavy for such a small task I could not get a working answer from here, which was the closest thread I could find.

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• Why can't we just use a hash of passphrase as the encryption key (and IV) with symmetric encryption algorithms?

  - by TX_

  Inspired by my previous question, now I have a very interesting idea: Do you really ever need to use Rfc2898DeriveBytes or similar classes to "securely derive" the encryption key and initialization vector from the passphrase string, or will just a simple hash of that string work equally well as a key/IV, when encrypting the data with symmetric algorithm (e.g. AES, DES, etc.)? I see tons of AES encryption code snippets, where Rfc2898DeriveBytes class is used to derive the encryption key and initialization vector (IV) from the password string. It is assumed that one should use a random salt and a shitload of iterations to derive secure enough key/IV for the encryption. While deriving bytes from password string using this method is quite useful in some scenarios, I think that's not applicable when encrypting data with symmetric algorithms! Here is why: using salt makes sense when there is a possibility to build precalculated rainbow tables, and when attacker gets his hands on hash he looks up the original password as a result. But... with symmetric data encryption, I think this is not required, as the hash of password string, or the encryption key, is never stored anywhere. So, if we just get the SHA1 hash of password, and use it as the encryption key/IV, isn't that going to be equally secure? What is the purpose of using Rfc2898DeriveBytes class to generate key/IV from password string (which is a very very performance-intensive operation), when we could just use a SHA1 (or any other) hash of that password? Hash would result in random bit distribution in a key (as opposed to using string bytes directly). And attacker would have to brute-force the whole range of key (e.g. if key length is 256bit he would have to try 2^256 combinations) anyway. So either I'm wrong in a dangerous way, or all those samples of AES encryption (including many upvoted answers here at SO), etc. that use Rfc2898DeriveBytes method to generate encryption key and IV are just wrong.

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• C#: Determine Type for (De-)Serialization

  - by dbemerlin

  Hi, i have a little problem implementing some serialization/deserialization logic. I have several classes that each take a different type of Request object, all implementing a common interface and inheriting from a default implementation: This is how i think it should be: Requests interface IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class DefaultRequest : IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class LoginRequest : DefaultRequest { public String User {get;set;} public String Pass {get;set;} } Handlers interface IHandler<T> { public Type GetRequestType(); public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request); } class DefaultHandler<T> : IHandler<T> // Used as fallback if the handler cannot be determined { public Type GetRequestType() { return /* ....... how to get the Type of T? ((new T()).GetType()) ? .......... */ } public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request) { /* ... */ } } class LoginHandler : DefaultHandler<LoginRequest> { public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel mode, LoginRequest request) { } } Calling class Controller { public ProcessRequest(String action, String serializedRequest) { IHandler handler = GetHandlerForAction(action); IRequest request = serializer.Deserialize<handler.GetRequestType()>(serializedRequest); handler(this.Model, request); } } Is what i think of even possible? My current Solution is that each handler gets the serialized String and is itself responsible for deserialization. This is not a good solution as it contains duplicate code, the beginning of each HandleRequest method looks the same (FooRequest request = Deserialize(serializedRequest); + try/catch and other Error Handling on failed deserialization). Embedding type information into the serialized Data is not possible and not intended. Thanks for any Hints.

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• Criteria for triggering garbage collection in .Net

  - by Kennet Belenky

  I've come across some curious behavior with regard to garbage collection in .Net. The following program will throw an OutOfMemoryException very quickly (after less than a second on a 32-bit, 2GB machine). The Foo finalizer is never called. class Foo { static Dictionary<Guid, WeakReference> allFoos = new Dictionary<Guid, WeakReference>(); Guid guid = Guid.NewGuid(); byte[] buffer = new byte[1000000]; static Random rand = new Random(); public Foo() { // Uncomment the following line and the program will run forever. // rand.NextBytes(buffer); allFoos[guid] = new WeakReference(this); } ~Foo() { allFoos.Remove(guid); } static public void Main(string args[]) { for (; ; ) { new Foo(); } } } If the rand.nextBytes line is uncommented, it will run ad infinitum, and the Foo finalizer is regularly invoked. Why is that? My best guess is that in the former case, either the CLR or the Windows VMM is lazy about allocating physical memory. The buffer never gets written to, so the physical memory is never used. When the address space runs out, the system crashes. In the latter case, the system runs out of physical memory before it runs out of address space, the GC is triggered and the objects are collected. However, here's the part I don't get. Assuming my theory is correct, why doesn't the GC trigger when the address space runs low? If my theory is incorrect, then what's the real explanation?

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• Make conversion to a native type explicit in C++

  - by Tal Pressman

  I'm trying to write a class that implements 64-bit ints for a compiler that doesn't support long long, to be used in existing code. Basically, I should be able to have a typedef somewhere that selects whether I want to use long long or my class, and everything else should compile and work. So, I obviously need conversion constructors from int, long, etc., and the respective conversion operators (casts) to those types. This seems to cause errors with arithmetic operators. With native types, the compiler "knows" that when operator*(int, char) is called, it should promote the char to int and call operator*(int, int) (rather than casting the int to char, for example). In my case it gets confused between the various built-in operators and the ones I created. It seems to me like if I could flag the conversion operators as explicit somehow, that it would solve the issue, but as far as I can tell the explicit keyword is only for constructors (and I can't make constructors for built-in types). So is there any way of marking the casts as explicit? Or am I barking up the wrong tree here and there's another way of solving this? Or maybe I'm just doing something else wrong...

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• Multithreading: Read from / write to a pipe

  - by Tero Jokinen

  I write some data to a pipe - possibly lots of data and at random intervals. How to read the data from the pipe? Is this ok: in the main thread (current process) create two more threads (2, 3) the second thread writes sometimes to the pipe (and flush-es the pipe?) the 3rd thread has infinite loop which reads the pipe (and then sleeps for some time) Is this so far correct? Now, there are a few thing I don't understand: do I have to lock (mutex?) the pipe on write? IIRC, when writing to pipe and its buffer gets full, the write end will block until I read the already written data, right? How to check for read data in the pipe, not too often, not too rarely? So that the second thread wont block? Is there something like select for pipes? It is possible to set the pipe to unbuffered more or I have to flush it regularly - which one is better? Should I create one more thread, just for flushing the pipe after write? Because flush blocks as well, when the buffer is full, right? I just don't want the 1st and 2nd thread to block.... [Edit] Sorry, I thought the question is platform agnostic but just in case: I'm looking at this from Win32 perspective, possibly MinGW C...

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• javascript/html/php: Is it possible to insert a value into a form with Ajax?

  - by user1260310

  I have a form where users enter some text manually. Then I'd like to let the users choose a tag from a database through AJAX, not unlike how tag suggestions appear in the SO question form. While the div where the ajax call places the tag is inside the form, it does not seem to register and the tag is not picked up by the form. Am I missing something in my code, is this impossible or, if impossible there a better way to do this? Thanks for any suggestions. Here is code: html <form method="post" action="enterdata.php"> <input type="text" name="text">Enter text here. <div id="inserttags"></div><a href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="getTags()";>Get tags</a> <form type="button" name="submit" value="Enter Text and Tag"> </form> javascript getTags() { various Ajax goes here, then //following line inserts value into div of html document.getElementById("inserttags").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; // a bit more ajax, then following pulls tag from db xmlhttp.open("GET","findtags.php",true); xmlhttp.send(); } //end function php //gettags.php //first pull tag from db. Then: echo 'input type="text" name="tag" value= "html">Enter tag'; //above output gets inserted in div and is visible on page. Though the above output is visible on page, the form does not seem to pick it up when you click "Enter Text and Tag" to submit the form.

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• Solving algorithm for a simple problem

  - by maolo

  I'm searching for an algorithm (should be rather simple for you guys) that does nothing but solve the chicken or the egg problem. I need to implement this in C++. What I've got so far is: enum ChickenOrEgg { Chicken, Egg }; ChickenOrEgg WhatWasFirst( ) { ChickenOrEgg ret; // magic happens here return ret; } // testing #include <iostream> using namespace std; if ( WhatWasFirst( ) == Chicken ) { cout << "The chicken was first."; } else { cout << "The egg was first."; } cout << endl; Question: How could the pseudocode for the solving function look? Notes: This is not a joke, not even a bad one. Before you close this, think of why this isn't a perfectly valid question according to the SO rules. If someone here can actually implement an algorithm solving the problem he gets $500 in cookies from me (that's a hell lot of cookies!). Please don't tell me that this is my homework, what teacher would ever give his students homework like that?

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• MySQL Query Where Column Like Column

  - by shmeeps

  I'm working on a small project that involves grabbing a list of contacts which are stored for each group. Essentially, the database is set up so that each group has a primary and secondary contact stored as, unsurprisingly, Group.Primary and Group.Secondary. The objective is to pull every Primary and Secondary contact for each Group and display them in a sortable table. I have the sortable table all worked out, but I have come across a small problem. Each primary and secondary field can have more than one contact separated by a comma. For instance, if Primary contained 123,256 , it would need to pull both Contacts with IDs 123 and 256. I had intended to use a query formatted like this: SELECT * FROM Group G, Contacts C WHERE G.Primary LIKE %C.ID% OR G.Secondary LIKE %C.ID% so that I could just skip the comma part, but I can't seem to find a working query for this. My question to you is, am I just overlooking something here? Is there a simple query that would let me do this? Or am I better off getting the groups and contacts separately, and combine the two later. I think the former is a little easier to understand when read, which is a plus as this is a shared project, but if that is not possible I will do the latter. This code is simplified, but it gets the point across.

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• Why does applying this gradient style break my silverlight app ?

  - by Robotsushi

  I am having some issues with applying a gradient to a RadButton. I have a gradient definition in my styles resource dictionairy like so : <LinearGradientBrush x:Key="GridView_HeaderBackground" EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF5B5B5B" Offset="1"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF868686"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF4F4F4F" Offset="0.42"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF0E0E0E" Offset="0.43"/> </LinearGradientBrush> When i apply this gradient directly to the background of a RadButton everything works. Here is the button and the template definition: Button <telerik:RadButton Margin="5,10,5,0" Click="RadButton_Click" Tag="30" Content="30 Days" Style="{StaticResource SliderButton}" Background="{StaticResource GridView_HeaderBackground}" /> Template: <!-- Style Template for Slider RadButton --> <Style x:Key="SliderButton" TargetType="telerik:RadButton"> <Setter Property="Height" Value="30" /> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="#FFFFFF" /> <Setter Property="BorderThickness" Value="0" /> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="5,2" /> </Style> However when applying this gradient in the resource dictionary, my application will not load it simply gets to the silverlight loading screen and then never proceeds Here is the button and template which breaks my app. Button: <telerik:RadButton Margin="5,10,5,0" Click="RadButton_Click" Tag="30" Content="30 Days" Style="{StaticResource SliderButton}" /> Template: <!-- Style Template for Slider RadButton --> <Style x:Key="SliderButton" TargetType="telerik:RadButton"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{StaticResource GridView_HeaderBackground}" /> <Setter Property="Height" Value="30" /> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="#FFFFFF" /> <Setter Property="BorderThickness" Value="0" /> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="5,2" /> </Style> When i observe the js error console in google chrome i notice the following error is produced: "Cannot find a resource with the name/key ResourceWrapper"

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• How to gracefully handle YouTube thumbnail broken images when videos are taken down?

  - by mrjf

  Our site contains some lists of YouTube videos with their thumbnails linked to the movies themselves. We fetch the thumbnail URLs from the YouTube API, and hotlink to them in situ on YouTube's servers. So our image tags look like: <img src="http://i.ytimg.com/vi/o6CHqSN7O-o/2.jpg" alt="" width="133" height="78" /> The problem is that sometimes a video gets removed -- and so does the thumbnail. We don't know when that might happen, and our thumbnails just turn into broken images. How can we handle this? There are a number of solutions: Download thumbnails and store them locally -- movie won't work, but that's ok, it will explain it was removed, and we avoid the broken image Check periodically with the API to see if the image thumbnail has changed -- if it no longer exists, substitute our own "movie removed" thumbnail. This is pretty heavy on the API calling! Use JavaScript to replace broken images (don't like this one much) Our ideal solution would be to point the img src to a location on YouTube that would display a friendly "move removed" image when a movie goes down. However, that doesn't seem to exist. Anyone else dealt with this? Thanks!

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• Can a second stored procedure doing the same thing finish before first one?

  - by evanmortland

  Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called 'CreatedAudit' as well. I call the CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") Right after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

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• SQL aggregate query question

  - by Phil

  Hi, Can anyone help me with a SQL query in Apache Derby SQL to get a "simple" count. Given a table ABC that looks like this... id a b c 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 2 3 2 1 3 4 2 1 1 ** 5 2 1 2 ** ** 6 2 2 1 ** 7 3 1 2 8 3 1 3 9 3 1 1 How can I write a query to get a count of how may distinct values of 'a' have both (b=1 and c=2) AND (b=2 and c=1) to get the correct result of 1. (the two rows marked match the criteria and both have a value of a=2, there is only 1 distinct value of a in this table that match the criteria) The tricky bit is that (b=1 and c=2) AND (b=2 and c=1) are obviously mutually exclusive when applied to a single row. .. so how do I apply that expression across multiple rows of distinct values for a? These queries are wrong but to illustrate what I'm trying to do... "SELECT DISTINCT COUNT(a) WHERE b=1 AND c=2 AND b=2 AND c=1 ..." .. (0) no go as mutually exclusive "SELECT DISTINCT COUNT(a) WHERE b=1 AND c=2 OR b=2 AND c=1 ..." .. (3) gets me the wrong result. SELECT COUNT(a) (CASE WHEN b=1 AND c=10 THEN 1 END) FROM ABC WHERE b=2 AND c=1 .. (0) no go as mutually exclusive Cheers, Phil.

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• How to get the value of an XML element using Linq even when empty.

  - by Yeodave

  Please excuse my stupidity, I tend to find the traversing XML overly complicated. I am using ASP.NET in VB. I have an XML document which contains all the details of staff in my company... <staff> <staffName>Test Staff</staffName> <staffTitle>Slave</staffTitle> <staffDepartmentName>Finance</staffDepartmentName> <staffOffice>London</staffOffice> <staffEmail>[email protected]</staffEmail> <staffPhone>0207 123 456</staffPhone> <staffNotes>Working hours Mon to Thurs 9.15 - 5.15</staffNotes> <staffBio></staffBio> </staff> As you can see, some nodes do not always contain data for ever member of staff; only Directors have biographies. I access the values like this... For Each staff In ( _ From matches In myXMLFile.Descendants("staff").Descendants("staffName") _ Where matches.Nodes(0).ToString.ToLower.Contains(LCase(search)) _ Order By matches.Value _ Select matches) staffName = staff.Descendants("staffName").Nodes(0).ToString) staffTitle = staff.Descendants("staffTitle").Nodes(0).ToString) staffOffice = staff.Descendants("staffOffice").Nodes(0).ToString) staffEmail = staff.Descendants("staffEmail").Nodes(0).ToString) staffPhone = staff.Descendants("staffPhone").Nodes(0).ToString) staffNotes = staff.Descendants("staffNotes").Nodes(0).ToString) staffBio = staff.Descendants("staffBio").Nodes(0).ToString) ' Do something with that data... Next Once it gets to staffBio I get an error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." obviously because that node does not exist. My question is how can I assign the value to a variable even when it is empty without having to do a conditional check before each assignment?

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• Why can't multiple programmatically generated FilteringSelect's share a single store?

  - by yarmiganosca

  Before you ask, a MultiSelect wouldn't really be intuitive for the user in this instance. I have an object, with an array as its value for 'items', that's provided on the page in a var statement. I also have a function that generates and places dijit.form.FilteringSelects and is triggered on a certain button's click event. Every one of these selects should have the aformentioned object as their 'store' attribute. If I write store: new dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore({ data: object_name }), in my select initialization code, I get weird behavior: I click the generate button 2 times and get 2 FilteringSelects (call them A,B). I click on B's dropdown piece, and the menu appears attached to B. Then I click on A's dropdown button, and menu appears attached to A. If I then go back and click on B's dropdown button again, nothing happens (well not nothing; an error gets thrown). However, if instead, I have data: {items: array_literal} everything works fine, and I switch back and forth between the 2 as much as I want. As the data: statement appears once in the javascript code, this isn't a big deal (now that I have a workaround at least). It is however, exceedingly odd. I attempted to dig into the source code, to no avail.Anybody have any idea what's going on here?

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• remove 2 subviews in one go.

  - by Pavan

  hi, I am trying to remove two viewcontrollers (that have been added on top of each other) with one method. I have made the views in interfacebuilder. they all have their own .h and .m files to go with it. Scenario I am in: I have a main menu which has the view2 header file imported. In a method I add the second view on top of the superview like so view2ViewController * view2 = [[view2ViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"view2ViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubview:view2.view]; then in view 2 I have added the view 3 header file so i can add view 3 as a subview ontop of view2. i have another method which is connected again to interface builder to a UIButton so upon button press a method gets called in view2 which adds view 3 on top in exactly the same way like so: view3ViewController * view3 = [[view3ViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"view3ViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubview:view3.view]; What im trying to solve: I have a button in view 3 which should remove view 3.... and then it should also remove view 2 aswell so the main screen is visible. How can this be achieved? What I have so far: [self.view removeFromSuperview]; This however only removes View 3... but leaves view 2 in place. What needs to be modified so that i can remove view 2 as well?? Any help is appreciated.

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• JavaScript: supposed to execute functions sequentially, not actually doing so?

  - by AP257

  I'm seeing a lot of answers on StackOverflow that say that JavaScript executes code sequentially, but I can actually see my own JavaScript not doing so. From the following code: function centre_map(lat, lng, zoom_level) { alert('centre_map'); map = new GMap2(document.getElementById('map_canvas')); var latlng = new GLatLng(lat, lng); map.setCenter(latlng, zoom_level); } function add_markers_within_bounds() { alert('add_markers_within_bounds'); // add numerous BLUE markers within map bounds using MarkerClusterer } function add_marker(lat, lng, place_name, grid, county) { alert('add_marker'); // add one ordinary RED Google Maps marker } centre_map('{{lat}}', '{{lng}}', 12); add_markers_within_bounds('{{grid}}', '{{place_name}}'); add_marker('{{lat}}', '{{lng}}', '{{place_name}}', '{{grid}}', '{{county}}'); I get the following sequence of events: 'centre_map' alert 'add_markers_within_bounds' alert 'add_marker' alert individual RED marker appears on map (i.e. add_marker renders) multiple BLUE markers appear on map (i.e. add_markers_within_bounds renders) Why doesn't add_markers_within_bounds complete before add_marker gets under way: and how can I make it do so? I know that one way might be to call add_marker from within add_markers_within_bounds, but for various reasons I'd rather keep it as a separate function.

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• md5_file() not working with IP addresses?

  - by Rob

  Here is my code relating to the question: $theurl = trim($_POST['url']); $md5file = md5_file($theurl); if ($md5file != '96a0cec80eb773687ca28840ecc67ca1') { echo 'Hash doesn\'t match. Incorrect file. Reupload it and try again'; When I run this script, it doesn't even output an error. It just stops. It loads for a bit, and then it just stops. Further down the script I implement it again, and it fails here, too: while($row=mysql_fetch_array($execquery, MYSQL_ASSOC)){ $hash = @md5_file($row['url']); $url = $row['url']; mysql_query("UPDATE urls SET hash='" . $hash . "' WHERE url='" . $url . "'") or die("MYSQL is indeed gay: ".mysql_error()); if ($hash != '96a0cec80eb773687ca28840ecc67ca1'){ $status = 'down'; }else{ $status = 'up'; } mysql_query("UPDATE urls SET status='" . $status . "' WHERE url='" . $url . "'") or die("MYSQL is indeed gay: ".mysql_error()); } And it checks all the URL's just fine, until it gets to one with an IP instead of a domain, such as: http://188.72.215.195/config.php In which, again, the script then just loads for a bit, and then stops. Any help would be much appreciated, if you need any more information just ask.

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• Trying to parse xml file for javascript quiz

  - by App_beginner

  Hi I am trying to create a javascript quiz, that gets the questions from a xml file. At the moment I am only starting out trying to parse my xml file without any success. Can anyone point me to what I am doing wrong? <html> <head> <title>Test</title> </head> <body> <div class="items"> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> var quizXML = '<quiz><Sporsmal tekst="bla bla bla"/><alternativer><tekst>bla</tekst><tekst>bli</tekst><tekst correct="yes">ble</tekst></alternativer><Sporsmal tekst="More blah"/><alternativer><tekst>bla bla</tekst><tekst correct="yes">bli bli</tekst><tekst>ble ble</tekst></alternativer></quiz>' var quizDOM = $.xmlDOM( quizXML ); quizDOM.find('quiz > Sporsmal').each(function() { var sporsmalTekst = $(this).attr('tekst'); var qDiv = $("<div />") .addClass("item") .addClass("sporsmal") .appendTo($(".spmArr")); var sTekst = $("<h2/>") .html(sporsmalTekst) .appendTo(qDiv); } </script> </body> </html> When I try this in my browser the classes and div are not being created. And the page is just blank. Am i doing something wrong when I intialize the xml?

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• Getting information from servlet created html

  - by user541597

  I have a servlet that creates an html text box and then redirects to another servlet on submit. How can I access the value of the html text box from the new servlet? I am able to access servlet variables from the new servlet but I am not aware of how to access the value of the html generated code. thanks, Here is the servlet that gets the text input public class ServletB extends HttpServlet { public void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws IOException, ServletException { response.setContentType("text/html"); String value = System.getProperty("card"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.println("<center><h1>Your preffered method of payment is "+value+"</h1><br />"); out.println("Please Enter Card Number<input type =\"text\" name = \"number\"/><form action=\"http://codd.cs.gsu.edu:9999/cpereyra183/servlet/ServletC\"><input type =\"submit\" value=\"Continue\" /><input type=\"button\" value=\"Cancel\" /></center>"); } }} This is the servlet the first servlet redirects to all I do is try to do is output the text input public class ServletC extends HttpServlet { public void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws IOException, ServletException { response.setContentType("text/html"); String value = System.getProperty("card"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.println(request.getParameter("number")); } }

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• PHP: Problem with reading Files

  - by mathiregister

  hello guys, i wonder what i'm doing wrong! i want to read a folder and run through the existing files, checking if they are either images or textfiles. if there are textfiles they should be put into a div, if there are images the should be output as an image. <?php $path = 'thumbs'; if ($handle = opendir($path)) { while (false !== ($file = readdir($handle))) { $ext = pathinfo($file, PATHINFO_EXTENSION); if ($ext == "jpg" || $ext == "jpeg" || $ext == "gif" || $ext == "png") { print "<img class='thumb' src='$path/$file'/>"; } else if ($ext == "txt" || $ext == "rtf") { //read text $lines = file_get_contents($file); $lines = str_replace("\n","<br/>",$lines); print "<div class='text'>" . $lines . "</div>"; //read text } } closedir($handle); } ?> there seems to be a problem i can't find, because ALL IMAGES get put out, however only ONE of a few textfiles gets printed. Any ideas why it only prints out one textfile??? thank you for your help!

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• Could not laod file or assembly ‘System.Web.Silverlight’

  - by Adam Berent

  I really need some help with this as I have been trying to fix this for months and I can't figure it out. I run an online chess site written in Silverlight 3.0 The architecture is Silverlight Client connecting to a WCF service that reads and writes data to a SQL Server database. It is hosted on Godaddy, Once every so often I get the following error: Could not laod file or assembly ‘System.Web.Silverlight’ or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the path specified. If I leave it alone it will fix itself after a few hours, however usually I just make a new publish of my application and it goes away. Also all the pages in the solution get this message not just the Silverlight application. So I have an aspx page with top ranks that does not use Silverlight but is in the same solution it also gets the same error. Its almost like the whole site dies. This does not seem like a huge issue but it makes going on vacation hard since my site can go down at any time I am away. Also this seems to happen the most when I am sleeping so I often don't get to fixing it until I have already lost hours of potential logins. If you have had the same issue please, please help!

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• Making firefox refresh images faster

  - by Earlz

  I have a thing I'm doing where I need a webpage to stream a series of images from the local client computer. I have a very simple run here: http://jsbin.com/idowi/34 The code is extremely simple setTimeout ( "refreshImage()", 100 ); function refreshImage(){ var date = new Date() var ticks = date.getTime() $('#image').attr('src','http://127.0.0.1:2723/signature?'+ticks.toString()); setTimeout ("refreshImage()", 100 ); } Basically I have a signature pad being used on the client machine. We want for the signature to show up in the web page and for them to see themselves signing it within the web page(the pad does not have an LCD to show it to them right there). So I setup a simple local HTTP server which grabs an image of what the current state of the signature pad looks like and it gets sent to the browser. This has no problems in any browser(tested in IE7, 8, and Chrome) but Firefox where it is extremely laggy and jumpy and doesn't keep with the 10 FPS rate. Does anyone have any ideas on how to fix this? I've tried creating very simple double buffering in javascript but that just made things worse. Also for a bit more information it seems that Firefox is executing the javascript at the correct framerate as on the server the requests are coming in at a constant speed. But the images are only refreshed inconsistently ranging from 5 times per second all the way down to 0 times per second(taking 2 seconds to do a refresh) Also I have tried using different image formats all with the same results. The formats I've tried include bitmaps, PNGs, and GIFs (GIFs caused a minor problem in Chrome with flicker though) Could it be possible that Firefox is somehow caching my images causing a slight lag? I send these headers though: Pragma-directive: no-cache Cache-directive: no-cache Cache-control: no-cache Pragma: no-cache Expires: 0

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• How to start x-axis labels(dates) from 0th position without using set_range(..)

  - by Rishi2686

  Hi there, First of all, I am really a newbie for flash charts. I have problem in using it. I am developing an app which gets values from database for chart. I have a line on chart, there are dates on x-axis starting from 0th position. I have dates 03-06-2010 and 05-06-2010 right now and may increase in future. When I set range of 1 month i.e 1st jun to 30th jun , it does not show lines but show values on y-axis. When I use range, i am not able to pass array of above two dates from database to chart, and viceversa. Here is my code-snippet can you give some hint. $x = new x_axis(); $x->set_range( mktime(0, 0, 0, 6, 1, date('Y')), // <-- min == 1st Jan, this year mktime(0, 0, 0, 6, 16, date('Y')) // <-- max == 31st Jan, this year ); $x->set_steps(86400); $labels = new x_axis_labels(); $labels->text('#date: jS, M Y#'); $labels->set_steps(86400); $labels->visible_steps(1); $labels->rotate(90); //$labels->set_labels($data_4); // date_4 is array of database values $x->set_labels($labels);

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