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• On IE cursor is comming always at start in textarea

  - by pravin

  I am dealing with textarea, and on click of this I am calling one replace function which will remove some specified string in textarea, this is the basic operation. Expected behavior after clicking on textarea 1) At first click : It should remove specified string from textarea Cursor should come at end of string 2) more than one click : - Cursor should come at where ever user clicks in text area Below is my replace function.... function replace(id,transFromDb) { newStr = $("#"+id).val(); var len = null; if(transFromDb == '') { newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message27,''); newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message28,''); } else { newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message28,''); newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message27,''); } /* change font weight as bold. */ $("#"+id).css({"fontWeight":"bold"}); $("#"+id).val(newStr); } Assume that Lang.Message is specified string. It's working above behavior with FF. Facing issue on IE, it always keep cursor position at first. Please provide any solution.... Thanks in Adavance Pravin

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• Modify Executing Jar file

  - by pinkynobrain

  Hello Stack Overflow friends. I have a simple problem which i fear doesnt have a simple solution and i need advice as to how to proceed. I am developing a java application packaged as and executable JAR but it requires to modify some of its JAR file contents during execution. At this stage i hit a problem because some OS lock the file preventing writes to it. It is essential that the user sees an updated version of the jar file by the time the application exits allthough i can be pretty flexible as to how to achieve this. A clean and efficient solution is obviously prefereable but portability is the only hard requirement. The following are three approaches i can see to solving the problem, feel free to comment on them or suggest others. Tell Java to unlock the JAR file for writing(this doesnt seem possible but it would be the easyest solution) Copy the executable class files to a tempory file on application startup, use a class loader to load these files and unload the ones from the initial JAR file.(Not had much experience with the classloaders but hopefully the JVM would then be smart enough to realize that the original JAR is nolonger in use and so unlock it) Put a Second executable JAR File inside the First, on startup extract the inner jar to e temporaryfile, invoke a new java process and pass it the location of the Outer JAR, first process exits, second process modifys the Outer jar unincumbered.(This will work but im not sure there is a platform independant way of one java app invoking another) I know this is a weird question but any help would be appreciated.

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• flash as3 document class and event listeners

  - by Lee

  I think i have this document class concept entirly wrong now, i was wondering if someone mind explaining it.. I assumed that the above class would be instantiated within the first frame on scene one of a movie. I also assumed that when changing scenes the state of the class would remain constant so any event listeners would still be running.. Scene 1: I have a movieclip named ui_mc, that has a button in for muting sound. Scene 2: I have the same movie clip with the same button. Now the eventListener picks it up in the first scene, however it does not in the second. I am wondering for every scene do the event listeners need to be resetup? If that is the case if their an event listener to listen for the change in scene, so i can set them back up again lol.. Thanks in advance.. package { import flash.display.MovieClip; import flash.events.MouseEvent; import flash.media.Sound; import flash.media.SoundChannel; public class game extends MovieClip { public var snd_state:Boolean = true; public function game() { ui_setup(); } public function ui_setup():void { ui_mc.toggleMute_mc.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, snd_toggle); } private function snd_toggle(event:MouseEvent):void { // 0 = No Sound, 1 = Full Sound trace("Toggle"); } } }

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• Can I create template-based library objects in Dreamweaver CS5?

  - by Danjah

  At work we need two 'streams' of template. The first are general layout templates, like the ones already available in the MX through CS5 packages (except we'd have our own customised ones). The second are more granular objects, some of which are functional. In both cases, I don't want Jimmy to be able to wreak havoc inside anything other than the 'editable regions' which make up the templates. Now this is fine if I stick with the first scenario (layout templates) where there's simply a big chunk of editable region for good ole Jim to sprawl into, think of this as the 'body content' area. But I really do need these granular library (or snippet) objects to work in the same way. Unfortunately with my attempts so far they don't work as I'd have thought - perhaps for good reason? When I create a blank template and throw in my chunk of HTML (unobstrusive JS and external CSS use selectors in this HTML to provide style and function) and save it as a new library item or snippet, all looks well. Then I create a new document based on a layout template and save it as a plain html file (still all good so far). Next I drop in my custom library item... still all good... but then I go to save the document and it only allows me to save it as a new template! I expected it would just allow me to save it as HTML and have it simply respect the defined editable regions, as happens in the containing page 'body content' editable region. Apologies if that got specific and technical quite quickly, but it is quite particular. If you want some example files lemme know and I'll zip some up. Many thanks :) p.s It is not a requirement that library objects must somehow inject their dependency files into the newly created page - I already know what they'll be. Also, I know I must 'detatch from original' once I drop a library item into a document which then allows customisation of the library object.

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• Why do I have to unserialize this serialized value twice?

  - by 55skidoo

  What am I doing wrong here? I'm serializing a value, storing it in a database (table bb_meta), retrieving it... OK so far... but then I have to unserialize it twice. Shouldn't I be able to just unserialize once? This seems to work, but I'm wondering what point about serialization I'm missing here. //check database to see if user has ever visited before. $querystring = $bbdb->prepare( "SELECT `meta_value` FROM `$bbdb->meta` WHERE `object_type` = %s AND `object_id` = %s AND `meta_key` = %s LIMIT 1", $bbtype, $bb_this_thread, $bbuser ); $bb_last_visits = $bbdb->get_row($querystring, OBJECT); //if $bb_last_visits is empty, add time() as the metavalue using bb_update_meta if (empty($bb_last_visits)) { $first_visit = time(); echo 'serialized first visit: ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized = serialize(array($bb_this_thread => $first_visit)); bb_update_meta( $bb_this_thread, $bbuser, $bb_this_visit_time_serialized, $bbtype ); //add to database, bb_meta table echo '$bb_last_visits was empty. Setting first visit time as ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized . '<br>'; } else { //else, test by unserializing the data for use. echo 'last visit time already set: '; echo $bb_last_visits->meta_value; echo '<br>'; //fatal error - echo 'unserialized: ' . $bb_last_visits_unserialized = unserialize($bb_last_visits[0]->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'unserialize: ' . $unserialized_visits = unserialize($bb_last_visits->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'hmm, need to unserialize again??: '; echo $unserialized_unserialized_visits = unserialize($unserialized_visits); echo '<br>'; echo 'hey look, it\'s an array value I can finally use now. phew: ' . $unserialized_unserialized_visits[$bb_this_thread]; }

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• NHibernate flush should save only dirty objects

  - by Emilian

  Why NHibernate fires an update on firstOrder when saving secondOrder in the code below? I'm using optimistic locking on Order. Is there a way to tell NHibernate to update firstOrder when saving secondOrder only if firstOrder was modified? // Configure var cfg = new Configuration(); var configFile = Path.Combine( AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory, "NHibernate.MySQL.config"); cfg.Configure(configFile); // Create session factory var sessionFactory = cfg.BuildSessionFactory(); // Create session var session = sessionFactory.OpenSession(); // Set session to flush on transaction commit session.FlushMode = FlushMode.Commit; // Create first order var firstOrder = new Order(); var firstOrder_OrderLine = new OrderLine { ProductName = "Bicycle", ProductPrice = 120.00M, Quantity = 1 }; firstOrder.Add(firstOrder_OrderLine); // Save first order using (var tx = session.BeginTransaction()) { try { session.Save(firstOrder); tx.Commit(); } catch { tx.Rollback(); } } // Create second order var secondOrder = new Order(); var secondOrder_OrderLine = new OrderLine { ProductName = "Hat", ProductPrice = 12.00M, Quantity = 1 }; secondOrder.Add(secondOrder_OrderLine); // Save second order using (var tx = session.BeginTransaction()) { try { session.Save(secondOrder); tx.Commit(); } catch { tx.Rollback(); } } session.Close(); sessionFactory.Close();

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• How does one target all divs of any webpage but differentiate them in javascript?

  - by Chaz

  So I am trying to create an extension in Chrome (a prototype for a project that I am doing) that targets all of the <div> tags of any web page, hides them or rather doesn't display them until the user clicks the mouse (further explained below). So typing a url into the browser yields a white page. The person clicks, and the first <div> appears (probably the mast head or menu). The user clicks again and the second <div> appears. I have gotten to the point where I can hide or show all <div>'s (the obvious easy part) but I am not sure how to go about targeting each since every website has different id's for them while still using the <div> tag. This is what I need the most help with. This is part of a grander operation called the Web Crank. It's just a physical crank that controls the speed by which a web page loads. Each time you make one full rotation of the crank, one section (the first <div>) of the web page loads. The faster you go, the quicker the page loads. I hope this is clear enough. I am a newbie when it comes to this, but I have done some minor coding in the past and it's not such a big deal. Thanks for your help!

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• Understanding evaluation of expressions containing '++' and '->' operators in C.

  - by Leif Ericson

  Consider this example: struct { int num; } s, *ps; s.num = 0; ps = &s; ++ps->num; printf("%d", s.num); /* Prints 1 */ It prints 1. So I understand that it is because according to operators precedence, -> is higher than ++, so the value ps->num (which is 0) is firstly fetched and then the ++ operator operates on it, so it increments it to 1. struct { int num; } s, *ps; s.num = 0; ps = &s; ps++->num; printf("%d", s.num); /* Prints 0 */ In this example I get 0 and I don't understand why; the explanation of the first example should be the same for this example. But it seems that this expression is evaluated as follows: At first, the operator ++ operates, and it operates on ps, so it increments it to the next struct. Only then -> operates and it does nothing because it just fetches the num field of the next struct and does nothing with it. But it contradicts the precedence of operators, which says that -> have higher precedence than ++. Can someone explain this behavior? Edit: After reading two answers which refer to a C++ precedence tables which indicate that a prefix ++/-- operators have lower precedence than ->, I did some googling and came up with this link that states that this rule applies also to C itself. It fits exactly and fully explains this behavior, but I must add that the table in this link contradicts a table in my own copy of K&R ANSI C. So if you have suggestions as to which source is correct I would like to know. Thanks.

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• Most efficient way to send images across processes

  - by Heinrich Ulbricht

  Goal Pass images generated by one process efficiently and at very high speed to another process. The two processes run on the same machine and on the same desktop. The operating system may be WinXP, Vista and Win7. Detailled description The first process is solely for controlling the communication with a device which produces the images. These images are about 500x300px in size and may be updated up to several hundred times per second. The second process needs these images to display them. The first process uses a third party API to paint the images from the device to a HDC. This HDC has to be provided by me. Note: There is already a connection open between the two processes. They are communicating via anonymous pipes and share memory mapped file views. Thoughts How would I achieve this goal with as little work as possible? And I mean both work for me and the computer. I am using Delphi, so maybe there is some component available for doing this? I think I could always paint to any image component's HDC, save the content to memory stream, copy the contents via the memory mapped file, unpack it on the other side and paint it there to the destination HDC. I also read about a IPicture interface which can be used to marshall images. What are your ideas? I appreciate every thought on this!

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• MS Access form_current() firing multiple times

  - by Eric G

  I have a form with two subforms (on separate tab pages). It's an MDB project in Access 2003. When it initially opens, Form_Current on the active subform fires once, as it should. But when you move to another record (ie. from the main form), it fires Form_Current on the active subform 4 times. Then subsequent record-moves result in Form_Current firing 2 times. This is a pain, because the subforms have a lot of fields that get moved and/or hidden and so it jumps around for every Form_Current, not to mention being slow. I am opening the form with a filter via DoCmd.OpenForm (actually it sends the filter in via OpenArgs). FilterOn is only set once, in Form_Open on the main form, never in the subforms. Form_Current is not called explicitly anywhere else in the code. When I look at the call stack when Form_Current fires moving the first time, it looks like: my_subform.Form_Current [<Debug Window>] my_subform.Form_Current So it seems like something in Form_Current is triggering another Form_Current event. But only on the first record move. The code in Form_Current is somewhat complex, involving custom classes and event callbacks, but generally does not touch the table data. The only thing I can think might be triggering a Form_Current is that it checks OldValue on form controls - could this be causing it? Or anything else come to mind? Thanks. Eric

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• XML Comparison?

  - by CrazyNick

  I got a books.xml file from http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms762271(VS.85).aspx and just saved it with two different names, removed few lines from the second file and tried to compare the files using the below powershell code: clear-host $xml = New-Object XML $xml = [xml](Get-Content D:\SharePoint\Powershell\Comparator\Comparator_Config.xml) $xml.config.compare | ForEach-Object { $strFile1 = get-Content $.source; $strFile2 = get-Content $.destination; $diff  = Compare-Object $strFile1 $strFile2; $result1 = $diff | where {$.SideIndicator -eq "<=" } | select InputObject; $result2 = $diff | where {$.SideIndicator -eq "=" } | select InputObject; Write-host "nEntries are differ in First web.config filen"; $result1 | ForEach-Object {write-host $.InputObject}; Write-host "nEntries are differ in Second web.config filen" ;$result2 | ForEach-Object {write-host $.InputObject}; $.parameters | ForEach-Object { write-host $.parameter } } and it is working perfectly and giving me the below results: Entries are differ in First web.config file < price36.95< /price < descriptionMicrosoft Visual Studio 7 is explored in depth, looking at how Visual Basic, Visual C++, C#, and ASP+ are integrated into a comprehensive development environment.< /description Entries are differ in Second web.config file < price< /price < description< /description however I wan to know the root node of the above mentioned nodes, is that possible to find? if so, how?

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• Advice on improving programming skills, learning capabilities?

  - by anonymous-coward1234

  Hi all, After 2,5 years of professional Java programing, I still have problems that make my job difficult and, more importantly - more times that I would like to admit - not enjoyable. I would like to ask for advice by more experienced people on ways that would help me overcome them. These are the problems I have: I do not absorb new knowledge easily. Even when I understand something, after a couple of days I easily forget even basic stuff. Other co-workers, even with the same working experience, when reading new technologies put things easily into "context", and are able to compare in "real time| similar technologies they already have used. I always try to address all the issues to whatever I am doing at one go, which results in me trying to resolve too many problems at the same time, losing completely control. I find it difficult to make my mind on a single problem that I should address first, and even when I do, and find myself throwing away code that I wrote because I started addressing the wrong issue first. As far as architecture and data modeling is concerned, I have difficulty making decisions on what objects must be created, with what hierarchy, interfaces, abstraction etc. I imagine that - to a certain degree - these things come with experience. But after 2,5 years of Java programming, I would expect myself to have come much farther that I have come, both in terms of absorption and experience. Is there a way to improve my learning speed? Any books, methods, advice is welcome.

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• Question about WeakReferences

  - by Impz0r

  Hey there, I've got a question regarding WeakReferences. I'm right now in the process of writing a "Resource Manager" who hast to keep references to created texture objects. I have a Dictionary like: Dictionary<uint, WeakReference> Where the first is, as you allready may guessed, the Resource Id and the second param is a WeakReference to the Resource itself. Right now my Resources do have a method to free themselfes from their Owner (i.e. Resource Manager). They do so in calling a method at the Resource Manger while passing a this reference to it. The ResMgr does lookup if it is a resource he keeps bookmark of and if so, does something like this: WeakReference result; if (m_Resources.TryGetValue(ResourceId, out result)) { if (result.IsAlive) return; (result.Target as Resource).free(); // free for good m_Resources.Remove(ResourceId); } The Problem I'm having is that the part after: if (result.IsAlive) is never reached because there are still leftover references to the Resource. The thing is, I do only have one Reference of the Resource in question and it releases itself like: resource.free(); // calls internally its owner (i.e. ResMgr) resource = null; I guess the left over reference would be the "resource" variable, but I cannot set it to null, because I do have to call free first. Quite a dilema... Well what I wanted to achive with this is a Resource Manager who keeps references to its owning Resources and release them ONLY if there is no reference left to not screw up something. Any idea how I may solve this in a clean fashion? Thanks in advance! Mfg Imp

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• find(:all) and then add data from another table to the object

  - by Koning Baard XIV

  I have two tables: create_table "friendships", :force => true do |t| t.integer "user1_id" t.integer "user2_id" t.boolean "hasaccepted" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end and create_table "users", :force => true do |t| t.string "email" t.string "password" t.string "phone" t.boolean "gender" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" t.string "firstname" t.string "lastname" t.date "birthday" end I need to show the user a list of Friendrequests, so I use this method in my controller: def getfriendrequests respond_to do |format| case params[:id] when "to_me" @friendrequests = Friendship.find(:all, :conditions => { :user2_id => session[:user], :hasaccepted => false }) when "from_me" @friendrequests = Friendship.find(:all, :conditions => { :user1_id => session[:user], :hasaccepted => false }) end format.xml { render :xml => @friendrequests } format.json { render :json => @friendrequests } end end I do nearly everything using AJAX, so to fetch the First and Last name of the user with UID user2_id (the to_me param comes later, don't worry right now), I need a for loop which make multiple AJAX calls. This sucks and costs much bandwidth. So I'd rather like that getfriendrequests also returns the First and Last name of the corresponding users, so, e.g. the JSON response would not be: [ { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 11, "user2_id": 3 } }, { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 12, "user2_id": 4 } } ] but rather: [ { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 11, "user2_id": 3, "firstname": "Jon", "lastname": "Skeet" } }, { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 12, "user2_id": 4, "firstname": "Mark", "lastname": "Gravell" } } ] I thought of a for loop in the getfriendrequests method, but I don't know how to implement this, and maybe there is an easier way. It must also work for XML. Can anyone help me? Thanks

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• Range-based `for` statement definition redundancy

  - by GMan - Save the Unicorns

  Looking at n3092, in §6.5.4 we find the equivalency for a range-based for loop. It then goes on to say what __begin and __end are equal to. It differentiates between arrays and other types, and I find this redundant (aka, confusing). It says for arrays types that __begin and __end are what you expect: a pointer to the first and a pointer to one-past the end. Then for other types, __begin and __end are equal to begin(__range) and end(__range), with ADL. Namespace std is associated, in order to find the std::begin and std::end defined in <iterator>, §24.6.5. However, if we look at the definition of std::begin and std::end, they are both defined for arrays as well as container types. And the array versions do exactly the same as above: pointer to the first, pointer to one-past the end. Why is there a need to differentiate arrays from other types, when the definition given for other types would work just as well, finding std::begin and std::end? Some abridged quotes for convenience: §24.6.5 The range-based for statement — if _RangeT is an array type, begin-expr and end-expr are __range and __range + __bound, respectively, where __bound is the array bound. If _RangeT is an array of unknown size or an array of incomplete type, the program is ill-formed. — otherwise, begin-expr and end-expr are begin(_range) and end(_range), respectively, where begin and end are looked up with argument-dependent lookup (3.4.2). For the purposes of this name lookup, namespace std is an associated namespace. and §24.6.5 range access template T* begin(T (&array)[N]); Returns: array. template T* end(T (&array)[N]); Returns: array + N.

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• Erlang, SSH and authorized_keys

  - by Roberto Aloi

  Playing with the ssh and public_key application in Erlang, I've discovered a nice feature. I was trying to connect to my running Erlang SSH daemon by using a rsa key, but the authentication was failing and I was prompted for a password. After some debugging and tracing (and a couple of coffees), I've realized that, for some weird reason, a non valid key for my user was there. The authorized_keys file contained two keys. The wrong one was at some point in the file, while the correct one was appended at the end of the file. Now, the Erlang SSH application, when diffing the provided key with the ones contained in the authorized_keys, it was finding the first entry (completely ignoring the second on - the correct one). Then, it was switching to different authentication mechanism (at first it was trying dsa instead of rsa and then it was prompting for a password). The question is: Is this behavior intended or should the SSH server check for multiple entries for the same user in the *authorized_keys* file? Is this a generic SSH behaviour or it's just specific to the Erlang implementation?

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• secure rest API for running user "apps" in an iframe

  - by Brian Armstrong

  I want to let users create "apps" (like Facebook apps) for my website, and I'm trying to figure out the best way to make it secure. I have a REST api i want to run the user apps in an iframe on my own site (not a safe markup language like FBML) I was first looking at oAuth but this seems overkill for my solution. The "apps" don't need to be run on external sites or in desktop apps or anything. The user would stay on my site at all times but see the user submitted "app" through the iframe. So when I call the app the first time through the iframe, I can pass it some variables so it knows which logged in user is using it on my site. It can then use this user session in it's own API calls to customize the display. If the call is passed in the clear, I don't want someone to be able to intercept the session and impersonate the user. Does anyone know a good way to do this or good write up on it? Thanks!

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• Prevent Navigation to CreateUserWizardStep in the Postback event of nextbutton

  - by Aparna

  I am working with CreateUserWizard tool for creating a registration page. This is the first time and I am encountering problem with the following: I defined two steps in WizardSteps in the page: <WizardSteps> <asp:WizardStep ID="CreateUserWizardStep0" runat="server" Title="Sign Up for your new Account !!"> <asp:TextBox ID="Email" runat="server"> In the first wizard step, the user provides email, and we need to check if this email meets certain criteria (if he exists in our internal database, country is US etc) and if he/she is eligible navigate to CreateUserWizardStep1. I have a StartNextButton in the Start Navigation template for the WizardStep0. <StartNavigationTemplate> <br /> <asp:Button ID="StartNextButton" runat="server" CommandName="MoveNext" OnClick="StartNextButton_Click" Text="Check My Eligibility" /> </StartNavigationTemplate> I do all the logic of checking eligibility in the post-back event OnClick="StartNextButton_Click . If he is not eligible, I should display the error message in the step0 textbox and prevent navigation to CreateUserWizardStep1. I tried the following: if(noteligible) { lblError1.Visible = true; lblError1.Text = this.hfUserAlreadyRegistered.Value.ToString(); this.CreateUserWizard1.ActiveStepIndex = this.CreateUserWizard1.WizardSteps.IndexOf(this.CreateUserWizardStep0); this.CreateUserWizard1.Controls.Remove(CreateUserWizardStep1); this.CreateUserWizard1.ActiveStepIndex = 0; break; } But this is not working. I am taken out of step0 and step1 is coming irrespective of this. How can I just remain in Step0 and display the error message when the user is not eligible and navigate to Step1 only when he is eligible to register ? Thank you very much.

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• F# passing an operator with arguments to a function

  - by dan

  Can you pass in an operation like "divide by 2" or "subtract 1" using just a partially applied operator, where "add 1" looks like this: List.map ((+) 1) [1..5];; //equals [2..6] // instead of having to write: List.map (fun x-> x+1) [1..5] What's happening is 1 is being applied to (+) as it's first argument, and the list item is being applied as the second argument. For addition and multiplication, this argument ordering doesn't matter. Suppose I want to subtract 1 from every element (this will probably be a common beginners mistake): List.map ((-) 1) [1..5];; //equals [0 .. -4], the opposite of what we wanted 1 is applied to the (-) as its first argument, so instead of (list_item - 1), I get (1 - list_item). I can rewrite it as adding negative one instead of subtracting positive one: List.map ((+) -1) [1..5];; List.map (fun x -> x-1) [1..5];; // this works too I'm looking for a more expressive way to write it, something like ((-) _ 1), where _ denotes a placeholder, like in the Arc language. This would cause 1 to be the second argument to -, so in List.map, it would evaluate to list_item - 1. So if you wanted to map divide by 2 to the list, you could write: List.map ((/) _ 2) [2;4;6] //not real syntax, but would equal [1;2;3] List.map (fun x -> x/2) [2;4;6] //real syntax equivalent of the above Can this be done or do I have to use (fun x -> x/2)? It seems that the closest we can get to the placeholder syntax is to use a lambda with a named argument.

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• Recursive Perl detail need help

  - by Catarrunas

  Hi everybody, i think this is a simple problem, but i'm stuck with it for some time now! I need a fresh pair of eyes on this. The thing is i have this code in perl: #!c:/Perl/bin/perl use CGI qw/param/; use URI::Escape; print "Content-type: text/html\n\n"; my $directory = param ('directory'); $directory = uri_unescape ($directory); my @contents; readDir($directory); foreach (@contents) { print "$_\n"; } #------------------------------------------------------------------------ sub readDir(){ my $dir = shift; opendir(DIR, $dir) or die $!; while (my $file = readdir(DIR)) { next if ($file =~ m/^\./); if(-d $dir.$file) { #print $dir.$file. " ----- DIR\n"; readDir($dir.$file); } push @contents, ($dir . $file); } closedir(DIR); } I've tried to make it recursive. I need to have all the files of all of the directories and subdirectories, with the full path, so that i can open the files in the future. But my output only returns the files in the current directory and the files in the first directory that it finds. If i have 3 folders inside the directory it only shows the first one. Ex. of cmd call: "perl readDir.pl directory=C:/PerlTest/" Thanks

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• KendoUI Mobile switch and datasource

  - by OnaBai

  I'm trying to have a list of items displayed using a listview, something like: <div data-role="view" data-model="my_model"> <ul data-role="listview" data-bind="source: ds" data-template="list-tmpl"></ul> </div> Where I have a view using a model called my_model and a listview where the source is bound to ds. My model is something like: var my_model = kendo.observable({ ds: new kendo.data.DataSource({ transport: { read: readData, update: updateData, create: updateData, remove: updateData }, pageSize: 10, schema: { model: { id: "id", fields: { id: { type: "number" }, name: { type: "string" }, active: { type: "boolean" } } } } }) }); Each item includes an id, a name (that is a string) and a boolean named active. The template used to render each element is: <script id="list-tmpl" type="text/kendo-tmpl"> <span>#= name # : #= active #</span> <input data-role="switch" data-bind="checked: active"/> </script> Where I display the name and (for debugging) the value of active. In addition, I render a switch bound to active. You should see something like: The problems observed are: If you click on a switch you will see that the value of active next to the name changes its value (as expected) but if then, you pick another switch, the value (neither next to name nor in the DataSource) is not updated (despite the value of the switch is correctly updated). The update handler in the DataSource is never invoked (not even for the first chosen switch and despite the DataSource for that first toggled switch is updated). You can check it in JSFiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/OnaBai/K7wEC/ How do I make that the DataSource gets updated and update handler invoked?

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• How CPU finds ISR and distinguishes between devices

  - by ripunjay-tripathi-gmail-com

  I should first share all what I know - and that is complete chaos. There are several different questions on the topic, so please don't get irritated :). 1) To find an ISR, CPU is provided with a interrupt number. In x86 machines (286/386 and above) there is a IVT with ISRs in it; each entry of 4 bytes in size. So we need to multiply interrupt number by 4 to find the ISR. So first bunch of questions is - I am completely confused in mechanism of CPU receiving the interrupt. To raise an interrupt, firstly device shall probe for IRQ - then what ? The interrupt number travels "on IRQ" towards CPU? I also read something like device putting ISR address on data bus ; whats that then ? What is the concept of devices overriding the ISR. Can somebody tell me few example devices where CPU polls for interrupts? And where does it finds ISR for them ? 2) If two devices share an IRQ (which is very much possible), how does CPU differs amongst them ? What if both devices raise an interrupt of same priority simultaneously. I got to know there will be masking of same type and low priority interrupts - but how this communication happens between CPU and device controller? I studied the role of PIC and APIC for this problem, but could not understand. Thanks for reading. Thank you very much for answering.

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• Why do I have to unserialize this serialized value twice? (wordpress/bbpress maybe_serialize)

  - by 55skidoo

  What am I doing wrong here? I'm serializing a value, storing it in a database (table bb_meta), retrieving it... OK so far... but then I have to unserialize it twice. Shouldn't I be able to just unserialize once? This seems to work, but I'm wondering what point about serialization I'm missing here. //check database to see if user has ever visited before. $querystring = $bbdb->prepare( "SELECT `meta_value` FROM `$bbdb->meta` WHERE `object_type` = %s AND `object_id` = %s AND `meta_key` = %s LIMIT 1", $bbtype, $bb_this_thread, $bbuser ); $bb_last_visits = $bbdb->get_row($querystring, OBJECT); //if $bb_last_visits is empty, add time() as the metavalue using bb_update_meta if (empty($bb_last_visits)) { $first_visit = time(); echo 'serialized first visit: ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized = serialize(array($bb_this_thread => $first_visit)); bb_update_meta( $bb_this_thread, $bbuser, $bb_this_visit_time_serialized, $bbtype ); //add to database, bb_meta table echo '$bb_last_visits was empty. Setting first visit time as ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized . '<br>'; } else { //else, test by unserializing the data for use. echo 'last visit time already set: '; echo $bb_last_visits->meta_value; echo '<br>'; //fatal error - echo 'unserialized: ' . $bb_last_visits_unserialized = unserialize($bb_last_visits[0]->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'unserialize: ' . $unserialized_visits = unserialize($bb_last_visits->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'hmm, need to unserialize again??: '; echo $unserialized_unserialized_visits = unserialize($unserialized_visits); echo '<br>'; echo 'hey look, it\'s an array value I can finally use now. phew: ' . $unserialized_unserialized_visits[$bb_this_thread]; }

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• Multi-table Update(MySQL)

  - by smokinguns

  Hey all, I have a question regarding multi-table update(MySQL). Consider table t1 and t2. The PKEY for t1 is 'tid' which is a foreign Key in t2. There is a field "qtyt2" in t2 which depends on a field called "qtyt1" in table t1. Consider the foll SQL statement: UPDATE t2,t1 SET t2.qtyt2=IF(( t2.qtyt2- t1.qtyt1 )<0,0,( t2.qtyt2- t1.qtyt1 ) ), t1.qtyt1 ="Some value.." where t2.tid="some value.." AND t2.tid=t1.tid In this example qtyt2 depends on qtyt1 for update and the latter itself is updated.Now the result should return 2 if two rows are updated. Is there a guarantee that the fields will be updated in the order in which they appear in the statement( first qtyt2 will be set and then qtyt1).Is it possible that qtyt1 will be set first and then qtyt2? Is the order of tables in the statement important (UPDATE t2, t1 or UPDATE t1,t2)? I found that if I wrote "UPDATE t1,t2" then only t1 would get updated, but on changing the statement to "UPDATE t2,t1" everything worked correctly.

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• Problem with EDM in ASP.NET MVC

  - by Mannsi

  Hello, I have a question that is pretty similar to this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/899734/strongly-typed-asp-net-mvc-with-entity-framework but the solutions for that question don't work for me. Let me start by saying that I don't know a great deal about the subject I am asking about. I have the following code [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(PaymentInformation paymentInformationToEdit, int pensionFundID) { var originalPaymentInformation = (from PIs in _db.PaymentInformation where PIs.employeeNumber == paymentInformation.employeeNumber select PIs).First(); var laborUnion = (from LUs in _db.LaborUnion where LUs.laborUnionID = laborUnionID select LUs)First(); paymentInformationToEdit.laborUnion = laborUnion; _db.ApplyProperyChanges(originalPaymentInformation.EntityKey.EntitySetName, paymentInformationToEdit); _db.SaveChanges(); } I get an error when I try for the ApplyProperyChanges saying 'The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state'. I don't know how to change the state to either, or even if I am doing something fundamentally wrong. Please advice. EDIT: I hope this is the way to go here on stackoverflow. I haven't gotten an answer that solved my problem but Gregoire below posted a possible solution that I didn't understand. I hope this edit bumps my question so somebody will see it and help me. Sorry if this is not the way to go.

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