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  • MySQL: Combining multiple where conditions

    - by Karl
    I'm working on a menu system that takes a url and then queries the db to build the menu. My menu table is: +---------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +---------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | node_id | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | parent | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | weight | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | title | varchar(250) | YES | | NULL | | | alias | varchar(250) | YES | | NULL | | | exclude | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | +---------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ The relevant columns for my question are alias, parent and node_id. So for a url like: http://example.com/folder1/folder2/filename Alias would potentially = "filename", "folder1", "folder2" Parent = the node_id of the parent folder. What I know is how to split the url up into an array and check the alias for a match to each part. What I don't know is how to have it then filter by parent whose alias matches "folder2" and whose parent alias matches "folder1". I'm imagining a query like so: select * from menu where alias='filename' and where parent = node_id where alias='folder2' and parent = node_id where alias='folder1' Except I know that the above is wrong. I'm hoping this can be done in a single query. Thanks for any help in advance!

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  • PHP arrays. There must be a simpler method to do this

    - by RisingSun
    I have this array in php returned from db Array ( [inv_templates] = Array ( [0] = Array ( [inven_subgroup_template_id] = 1 [inven_group] = Wires [inven_subgroup] = CopperWires [inven_template_id] = 1 [inven_template_name] = CopperWires6G [constrained] = 0 [value_constraints] = [accept_range] = 2 - 16 [information] = Measured Manual ) [1] = Array ( [inven_subgroup_template_id] = 1 [inven_group] = Wires [inven_subgroup] = CopperWires [inven_template_id] = 2 [inven_template_name] = CopperWires2G [constrained] = 0 [value_constraints] = [accept_range] = 1 - 7 [information] = Measured by Automated Calipers ) ) ) I need to output this kind of multidimensional stuff Array ( [Wires] = Array ( [inv_group_name] = Wires [inv_subgroups] = Array ( [CopperWires] = Array ( [inv_subgroup_id] = 1 [inv_subgroup_name] = CopperWires [inv_templates] = Array ( [CopperWires6G] = Array ( [inv_name] = CopperWires6G [inv_id] = 1 ) [CopperWires2G] = Array ( [inv_name] = CopperWires2G [inv_id] = 2 ) ) ) ) ) ) I currently do this stuff foreach ($data['inv_templates'] as $key = $value) { $processeddata[$value['inven_group']]['inv_group_name'] = $value['inven_group']; $processeddata[$value['inven_group']]['inv_subgroups'][$value['inven_subgroup']]['inv_subgroup_id'] = $value['inven_subgroup_template_id']; $processeddata[$value['inven_group']]['inv_subgroups'][$value['inven_subgroup']]['inv_subgroup_name'] = $value['inven_subgroup']; $processeddata[$value['inven_group']]['inv_subgroups'][$value['inven_subgroup']]['inv_templates'][$value['inven_template_name']]['inv_name'] = $value['inven_template_name']; $processeddata[$value['inven_group']]['inv_subgroups'][$value['inven_subgroup']]['inv_templates'][$value['inven_template_name']]['inv_id'] = $value['inven_template_id']; } return $processeddata; EDIT : A var_export array ( 'inv_templates' = array ( 0 = array ( 'inven_subgroup_template_id' = '1', 'inven_group' = 'Wires', 'inven_subgroup' = 'CopperWires', 'inven_template_id' = '1', 'inven_template_name' = 'CopperWires6G', 'constrained' = '0', 'value_constraints' = '', 'accept_range' = '2 - 16', 'information' = 'Measured Manual', ), 1 = array ( 'inven_subgroup_template_id' = '1', 'inven_group' = 'Wires', 'inven_subgroup' = 'CopperWires', 'inven_template_id' = '2', 'inven_template_name' = 'CopperWires6G', 'constrained' = '0', 'value_constraints' = '', 'accept_range' = '1 - 7', 'information' = 'Measured by Automated Calipers', ), ), ) The foreach is almost unreadable. There must be a simpler way

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  • MySql ODBC connection in VB6 on WinXP VERY slow. Other machines on same network are fast.

    - by Matthew
    Hi All, I have a VB6 application that has been performing very well. Recently, we upgraded our server to a Windows 2003 server. Migration of the databases and shares went well and we experienced no problems. Except one. And it has happened at multiple sites. I use the MySQL ODBC 5.1 connector to point to my MySQL database. On identical machines (as far as I can tell, they are client machines not ours), access to the DB is lightning fast on all but one computer. They use the same software and have the same connection strings. And I'm sure it's not the program, but the ODBC connection. When I press the 'Test Connection' button in the ODBC connection string window, it can take up to 10 seconds on the poorly performing machine to respond with a success. All the other computers are instantaneous. I have tried using ip address versus the machine name in the UDL, no change. I enabled option 256, which sped it up initially, but it's slow again. Most of the time on a restart the program will be fast for an hour or so then go slow again with the option 256 enabled. Frankly, I am out of ideas and willing to entertain any and all ideas or suggestions. This is getting pretty frustrating. Anyone ever experience anything like this?

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  • Entity framework self referencing loop detected

    - by Lyd0n
    I have a strange error. I'm experimenting with a .NET 4.5 Web API, Entity Framework and MS SQL Server. I've already created the database and set up the correct primary and foreign keys and relationships. I've created a .edmx model and imported two tables: Employee and Department. A department can have many employees and this relationship exists. I created a new controller called EmployeeController using the scaffolding options to create an API controller with read/write actions using Entity Framework. In the wizard, selected Employee as the model and the correct entity for the data context. The method that is created looks like this: // GET api/Employee public IEnumerable<Employee> GetEmployees() { var employees = db.Employees.Include(e => e.Department); return employees.AsEnumerable(); } When I call my API via /api/Employee, I get this error: ...The 'ObjectContent`1' type failed to serialize the response body for content type 'application/json; ...System.InvalidOperationException","StackTrace":null,"InnerException":{"Message":"An error has occurred.","ExceptionMessage":"Self referencing loop detected with type 'System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies.Employee_5D80AD978BC68A1D8BD675852F94E8B550F4CB150ADB8649E8998B7F95422552'. Path '[0].Department.Employees'.","ExceptionType":"Newtonsoft.Json.JsonSerializationException","StackTrace":" ... Why is it self referencing [0].Department.Employees? That doesn't make a whole lot of sense. I would expect this to happen if I had circular referencing in my database but this is a very simple example. What could be going wrong?

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  • Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

    - by user555937
    Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

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  • Strange befaviour of spring transaction support for JPA + Hibernate +@Transactional annotation

    - by abovesun
    I found out really strange behavior on relatively simple use case, probably I can't understand it because of not deep knowledges of spring @Transactional nature, but this is quite interesting. I have simple User dao that extends spring JpaDaoSupport class and contains standard save method: @Transactional public User save(User user) { getJpaTemplate().persist(user); return user; } If was working fine until I've add new method to same class: User getSuperUser(), this method should return user with isAdmin == true, and if there is no super user in db, method should create one. Thats how it was looking like: public User createSuperUser() { User admin = null; try { admin = (User) getJpaTemplate().execute(new JpaCallback() { public Object doInJpa(EntityManager em) throws PersistenceException { return em.createQuery("select u from UserImpl u where u.admin = true").getSingleResult(); } }); } catch (EmptyResultDataAccessException ex) { User admin = new User('login', 'password'); admin.setAdmin(true); save(admin); // THIS IS THE POINT WHERE STRANGE THING COMING OUT } return admin; } As you see code is strange forward and I was very confused when found out that no transaction was created and committed on invocation of save(admin) method and no new user wasn't actually created despite @Transactional annotation. In result we have situation: when save() method invokes from outside of UserDAO class - @Transactional annotation counted and user successfully created, but if save() invokes from inside of other method of the same dao class - @Transactional annotation ignored. Here how I was change save() method to force it always create transaction. public User save(User user) { getJpaTemplate().execute(new JpaCallback() { public Object doInJpa(EntityManager em) throws PersistenceException { em.getTransaction().begin(); em.persist(user); em.getTransaction().commit(); return null; } }); return user; } As you see I manually invoke begin and commit. Any ideas?

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  • How to set buffer size in client-server app using sockets?

    - by nelly
    First of all i am new to networking so i may say dumb thing in here. Considering a client-server application using sockets(.net with c# if that matters). The client sends some data, the server process it and sends back a string. The client sends some other data, the serve process it, queries the db and sends back several hundreds of items from the database The client sends some other type of data and the server notifies some other clients . My question is how to set the buffer size correctly for reading/writing operation. Should i do something like this: byte[] buff = new byte[client.ReceiveBufferSize] ? I am thinking of something like this: Client sends data to the server(and the server will follow the same pattern) byte[] bytesToSend=new byte[2048] //2048 to be standard for any command send by the client bytes 0..1 ->command type bytes 1..2047 ->command parameters byte[] bytesToReceive=new byte[8]/byte[64]/byte[8192] //switch(command type) But..what is happening when a client is notified by the server without sending data? What is the correct way to accomplish what i am trying to do? Thanks for reading.

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  • Displaying code with <pre> tags.

    - by iMaster
    Currently I'm using <pre><code> code here </code><pre> to display code. I'm pulling this information from a DB for a blog. The problem I'm having is that some of the code isn't showing. For example, in the source code I have this: <pre><code><br /> echo '<ul class="mylist"><li><ul class="left">'; foreach($nameArray as $name) { if($countervar == $half) { echo '</ul></li>'; echo'<li><ul class="right">'; } echo '<li>$name</li>'; ++$i; } echo '</ul></li>'; echo '</ul>'; ?> But all that shows up is this: echo ''; foreach($nameArray as $name) { if($countervar == $half) { echo ''; echo''; } echo '$name'; ++$i; } echo ' An there's some really weird formatting/spacing issues as well. Any ideas as to what is causing this? I should also mention that some of the other sets of code show up just fine.

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  • Performing centralized authorization for multiple applications

    - by Vaibhav
    Here's a question that I have been wrestling with for a while. We have a situation wherein we have a number of applications that we have created. These have grown organically over a period of time. All of these applications have permissions code built into them that controls access to various parts of the application depending on whether the currently logged in user has the necessary permissions or not. Alongside these applications is a utility application which allows an administrator to map users to permissions for all applications - the way it works is that every application has code which reads this external database of the said utility application to check if the currently logged in user has the necessary permission or not. Now, the question is this. Should the user-permissions mapping information reside in and be owned by the applications themselves, or is it okay to have this information reside within an external entity/DB (as in this case the utility application's database). Part of me thinks that application permissions are very specific to the application context itself, so shouldn't be separated from the application itself. But I am not sure. Any comments?

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  • Best way to carry & modify a variable through various instances and functions?

    - by bobsoap
    I'm looking for the "best practice" way to achieve a message / notification system. I'm using an OOP-based approach for the script and would like to do something along the lines of this: if(!$something) $messages->add('Something doesn\'t exist!'); The add() method in the messages class looks somewhat like this: class messages { public function add($new) { $messages = $THIS_IS_WHAT_IM_LOOKING_FOR; //array $messages[] = $new; $THIS_IS_WHAT_IM_LOOKING_FOR = $messages; } } In the end, there is a method in which reads out $messages and returns every message as nicely formatted HTML. So the questions is - what type of variable should I be using for $THIS_IS_WHAT_IM_LOOKING_FOR? I don't want to make this use the database. Querying the db every time just for some messages that occur at runtime and disappear after 5 seconds just seems like overkill. Using global constants for this is apparently worst practice, since constants are not meant to be variables that change over time. I don't even know if it would work. I don't want to always pass in and return the existing $messages array through the method every time I want to add a new message. I even tried using a session var for this, but that is obviously not suited for this purpose at all (it will always be 1 pageload too late). Any suggestions? Thanks!

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  • Is it possible to return a list of numbers from a Sybase function?

    - by ps_rs4
    I'm trying to overcome a very serious performance issue in which Sybase refuses to use the primary key index on a large table because one of the required fields is specified indirectly through another table - or, in other words; SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD = 123 runs in ms but SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE, LTLTBL WHERE KFIELD = LTLTBL.LOOKUP AND LTLTBL.UNIQUEID = 'STRINGREPOF123' takes 30 - 40 seconds. I've managed to work around this first problem by using a function that basically lets me do this; SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD = MYFUNC('STRINGREPOF123') which also runs in ms. The problem, however, is that this approach only works when there is a single value returned by MYFUNCT but I have some cases where it may return 2 or 3 values. I know that the SQL SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD IN (123,456,789) also returns in millis so I'd like to have a function that returns a list of possible values rather than just a single one - is this possible? Sadly the application is running on Sybase ASA 9. Yes I know it is old and is scheduled to be refreshed but there's nothing I can do about it now so I need logic that will work with this version of the DB. Thanks in advance for any assistance on this matter.

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  • Accessing vars from another clojure namespace?

    - by erikcw
    In my main namespace, I have a top level var named "settings" which is initialized as an empty {}. My -main fn sets the contents of settings using def and conj based on some command line args (different database hosts for production/development, etc). I'm trying to access the contents of this map from another namespace to pull out some of the settings. When I try to compile with lein into an uberjar, I get a traceback saying "No such var: lb/settings". What am I missing? Is there a more idiomatic way to handle app wide settings such as these? Is it safe to use "def" inside of -main like I am, or should I be use an atom or ref to make this threadsafe? Thanks! (ns main (:use ...) (:gen-class)) (def settings {}) (defn -main [& args] (with-command-line-args... ;set devel? based on args (if (true? devel?) (def settings (conj settings {:mongodb {:host "127.0.0.1"} :memcached {:host "127.0.0.1"}})) (def settings (conj settings {:mongodb {:host "PRODUCTION_IP"} :memcached {:host "PRODUCTION_IP"}}))) ;file2.clj (ns some-other-namespace (:require [main :as lb] ...) ;configure MongoDB (congo/mongo! :db "dbname" :host (:host (mongodb lb/settings)))) ...

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  • Assigning values to the lable through database depending on listbox values

    - by SurajVitekar
    I want to assign the values of five labels from database regarding to values selected in listbox. The db query returns single column with multiple records. Please help. I'm working with C# 2010 and MS SQL. My current code is: private void listBox1_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { String c1, c2; c1 = "NULL"; MessageBox.Show("LB index :"+listBox1.SelectedIndex.ToString()); //p = listBox1.SelectedItem.ToString(); SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection(); con.ConnectionString = "Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=eVoting;Integrated Security=True;Pooling=False"; con.Open(); MessageBox.Show("List bOx sect :"+listBox1.SelectedValue.ToString()); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("select Firstname from candidates where position ='" + listBox1.SelectedValue.ToString() + "'", con); int index = 0; SqlDataReader reader = cmd.ExecuteReader(); while(reader.Read()) { if (index == 0) { c1 = reader[index].ToString(); radioButton1.Text = c1; } if (index == 1) { c1 = reader[index].ToString(); radioButton2.Text = c1; } if (index == 2) { c1 = reader[index].ToString(); radioButton3.Text = c1; } if (index == 3) { c1 = reader[index].ToString(); radioButton4.Text = c1; } if (index == 4) { c1 = reader[index].ToString(); radioButton4.Text = c1; } if (index == 5) { c1 = reader[index].ToString(); radioButton5.Text = c1; } MessageBox.Show("c1 :" + c1); index++; } } catch (Exception E) { } }

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  • Access problems with IIS 7 and a WCF service

    - by Steve
    I have a Silverlight app that calls a WCF service, the service calls some stored procedures in an SQL db using Visual Studio 2008's Link to SQL class and returns the information to whatever called it. I have set up the compiled project (website with embedded app and the WCF service) on an remote IIS 7 server. I recompiled my local copy to use the WCF service that is now hosted on the IIS box and not the one on the local dev server that Visual Studio provides, if I use the local version of the website (hosted on the dev server, and using the remote SCF service) it is able to make calls it needs and display the information. However, if I use the website that is being hosted by the remote IIS server, the app will not get the information it needs from the service. On the IIS server I have the application pool and the website running under my credentials, which have access to the database. Users connecting to the webpage use anonymous authentication. Any ideas as to why I can only access the service when running from the dev server and not through the remotely hosted webpage are appreciated. If anything needs clarification, please ask.

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  • Member function overloading/template specialization issue

    - by Ferruccio
    I've been trying to call the overloaded table::scan_index(std::string, ...) member function without success. For the sake of clarity, I have stripped out all non-relevant code. I have a class called table which has an overloaded/templated member function named scan_index() in order to handle strings as a special case. class table : boost::noncopyable { public: template <typename T> void scan_index(T val, std::function<bool (uint recno, T val)> callback) { // code } void scan_index(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code } }; Then there is a hitlist class which has a number of templated member functions which call table::scan_index(T, ...) class hitlist { public: template <typename T> void eq(uint fieldno, T value) { table* index_table = db.get_index_table(fieldno); // code index_table->scan_index<T>(value, [&](uint recno, T n)->bool { // code }); } }; And, finally, the code which kicks it all off: hitlist hl; // code hl.eq<std::string>(*fieldno, p1.to_string()); The problem is that instead of calling table::scan_index(std::string, ...), it calls the templated version. I have tried using both overloading (as shown above) and a specialized function template (below), but nothing seems to work. After staring at this code for a few hours, I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas? template <> void scan_index<std::string>(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code }

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  • Does breaking chained Select()s in LINQ to objects hurt performance?

    - by Justin
    Take the following pseudo C# code: using System; using System.Data; using System.Linq; using System.Collections.Generic; public IEnumerable<IDataRecord> GetRecords(string sql) { // DB logic goes here } public IEnumerable<IEmployer> Employers() { string sql = "select EmployerID from employer"; var ids = GetRecords(sql).Select(record => (record["EmployerID"] as int?) ?? 0); return ids.Select(employerID => new Employer(employerID) as IEmployer); } Would it be faster if the two Select() calls were combined? Is there an extra iteration in the code above? Is the following code faster? public IEnumerable<IEmployer> Employers() { string sql = "select EmployerID from employer"; return Query.Records(sql).Select(record => new Employer((record["EmployerID"] as int?) ?? 0) as IEmployer); } I think the first example is more readable if there is no difference in performance.

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  • How to change Hibernate´s auto persistance strategy

    - by Kristofer Borgstrom
    I just noted that my hibernate entities are automatically persisted to the database (or at least to cache) before I call any save() or update() method. To me this is a pretty strange default behavior but ok, as long as I can disable it, it´s fine. The problem I have is I want to update my entity´s state (from 1 to 2) only if the entity in the database still has the state it had when I retrieved [1] (this is to eliminate concurrency issues when another server is updating this same object). For this reason I have created a custom NamedQuery that will only update the entity if state is 1. So here is some pseudo-code: //Get the entity Entity item = dao.getEntity(); item.getState(); //==1 //Update the entity item.setState(2); //Here is the problem, this effectively changes the state of my entity braking my query that verifies that state is still == 1. dao.customUpdate(item); //Returns 0 rows changes since state != 1. So, how do I make sure the setters don´t change the state in cache/db? Thanks, Kristofer

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  • Django Many-to-Many Question

    - by DZ
    My questions seems like a common problem that when I have seen any questions on it is never really asked right or not answered. So Im going to try to get the question right, and maybe someone knows how to resolve the issue, or correct my understanding. The problem: When you have a many-to-many relation ship (related_name not through) and you are trying to use the admin interface you are required to input one of the rleationships even though it does not have to exsist for you to create the first entry. Meaning you have to assign a group to an event to create the group. Wow that sounds complicated. So I can see why the question is not getting answered. Lets try the non code explanation example... First and important versions: Django 1.1.1 Phython 2.6 So I have a model where I created a many-to-many realtionship and Im using the related_name Im creating an app that is an event organizer, for simplicty lets say events although they could be anytype). For this first post Im going to stay away from the code and just try to explain. A few keys: (explaining comment) ** - many-to-many So in the model we have 1) The Main Event (this is main model) 2) Groups (link to events and their can be many events for a group) a) Events** I have simplified this example a little becuase I recognize that what does it matter. Just create the event first... But there are specific varations where that will not work. What the many-to-many related_name does it created another table with the indecies of the two other tables. Nothing says that this extra table HAS to be populated. Becuase if I look in the database and work within myPHPadmin I can create a group with out registering an event, since the connection between the two is a seperate table the DB does not care. How do I make the admin interface this realize it? Ok I know thats a lot so I hope I have explained it clearly. Thank you anyone for your comments/thoughts/advice

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  • Booking logic and architecture, database sync: Hotels, tennis courts reservation system ...

    - by coulix
    Hello Stackers, Imagine that you want to design a tennis booking system. You have 5 tennis clubs as partenrs with no online api allowing you to check on their side if a court is booked or not: You have to build this part as well. Every time a booking is done on their side you want it to be know by our system. Probably using a POST request form tennis partner to our server. Every time a booking is done on our website, we want to push the booking to their system. The difficulty is that their system need to be online and accessible from outside. Ip may change, we have to use a dns updater. In case their system is not available we still accept the booking and fallback to an async email with 'i confirm booking/reject booking' link sent to the club. I find the whole process quite complex and was wondering about the way online hotel booking system and hotel were working. Do they all have their data open and online ? The good thing is that the data will grow large and fits nicely to some no SQL ;) like couch db

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  • SQL Compact performance on device

    - by Ben M
    My SQL Compact database is very simple, with just three tables and a single index on one of the tables (the table with 200k rows; the other two have less than a hundred each). The first time the .sdf file is used by my Compact Framework application on the target Windows Mobile device, the system hangs for well over a minute while "something" is done to the database: when deployed, the DB is 17 megabytes, and after this first usage, it balloons to 24 megs. All subsequent usage is pretty fast, so I'm assuming there's some sort of initialization / index building going on during this first usage. I'd rather not subject the user to this delay, so I'm wondering what this initialization process is and whether it can be performed before deployment. For now, I've copied the "initialized" database back to my desktop for use in the setup project, but I'd really like to have a better answer / solution. I've tried "full compact / repair" in the VS Database Properties dialog, but this made no difference. Any ideas? For the record, I should add that the database is only read from by the device application -- no modifications are made by that code.

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  • Switch front-end's of a website after X amount of hits

    - by Derek Adair
    Sorry about the title - not sure what to call this one. A client of mine would like to redirect users to different front-ends of his eCommerce site based on a hit-counter (possibly a timer?). important: -The content is moderately different in the two sites, enough to consider them two different websites. Knowing this client he will likely add more drastic content changes and other front-ends. So for this question consider the content to be -This site has a rather large back-end. With affiliate networking, multiple payment gateways, order-tracking, and several other features in the works. It is essential that these two front-ends have identical back-end functionality I know that if it was just a simple CSS swap this would be as simple as an if statement that ran off some kind of counter stored in a DB... but the different HTML markup is throwing me for a loop. Q: How can I serve two different front-ends (HTML/CSS) based on a hit counter? Also, I don't have any clue what to tag this one as...

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  • Map inheritance from generic class in Linq To SQL

    - by Ksenia Mukhortova
    Hi everyone, I'm trying to map my inheritance hierarchy to DB using Linq to SQL: Inheritance is like this, classes are POCO, without any LINQ to SQL attributes: public interface IStage { ... } public abstract class SimpleStage<T> : IStage where T : Process { ... } public class ConcreteStage : SimpleStage<ConcreteProcess> { ... } Here is the mapping: <Database Name="NNN" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="dbo.Stage" Member="Stage"> <Type Name="BusinessLogic.Domain.IStage"> <Column Name="ID" Member="ID" DbType="Int NOT NULL IDENTITY" IsPrimaryKey="true" IsDbGenerated="true" AutoSync="OnInsert" /> <Column Name="StageType" Member="StageType" IsDiscriminator="true" /> <Type Name="BusinessLogic.Domain.SimpleStage" IsInheritanceDefault="true"> <Type Name="BusinessLogic.Domain.ConcreteStage" IsInheritanceDefault="true" InheritanceCode="1"/> </Type> </Type> </Table> </Database> In the runtime I get error: System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled Message="Mapping Problem: Cannot find runtime type for type mapping 'BusinessLogic.Domain.SimpleStage'." Neither specifying SimpleStage, nor SimpleStage<T> in mapping file helps - runtime keeps producing different types of errors. DC is created like this: StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(@"MappingFile.map"); XmlMappingSource mapping = XmlMappingSource.FromStream(sr.BaseStream); DataContext dc = new DataContext(@"connection string", mapping); If Linq to SQL doesn't support this, could you, please, advise some other ORM, which does. Thanks in advance, Regards! Ksenia

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  • Configure nHibernate for multiple-project solution

    - by NoOne
    Hello, Im doing a project with C# winforms. This project is composed by: Client project: Windows Forms where user will do CRUD operations on the models; Server project; Common Project: This project will hold the models (in the image only have the model Item); ListSingleton: Remote Object that will do the operations on the models; I already have all the communication working, but now I need to work on the persistence of the data in a mysql database. I was trying to use nHibernate but I’m having some troubles. My main problem is how to organize my hibernate configuration. In which project do I keep the mapping? Common project? In which project do I keep the hibernate configuration file (App.config)? ListSingleton project? In which project do I do this: Configuration cfg = new Configuration(); cfg.AddXmlFile("Item.hbm.xml"); ISessionFactory factory = cfg.BuildSessionFactory(); ISession session = factory.OpenSession(); ITransaction transaction = session.BeginTransaction(); Item newItem = new Item("BLAA"); // Tell NHibernate that this object should be saved session.Save(newItem); // commit all of the changes to the DB and close the ISession transaction.Commit(); session.Close(); In the ListSingleton project? Altho I had reference to the Common Project in the ListSingleton I keep getting error in the addXml line… My mapping is correct because I tried with a one-project solution and it worked :X

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  • synchronize threads - no UI

    - by UshaP
    I'm trying to write multithreading code and facing some synchronization questions. I know there are lots of posts here but I couldn't find anything that fits. I have a System.Timers.Timer that elapsed every 30 seconds it goes to the db and checks if there are any new jobs. If he finds one, he executes the job on the current thread (timer open new thread for every elapsed). While the job is running I need to notify the main thread (where the timer is) about the progress. Notes: I don't have UI so I can't do beginInvoke (or use background thread) as I usually do in winforms. I thought to implement ISynchronizeInvoke on my main class but that looks a little bit overkill (maybe I'm wrong here). I have an event in my job class and the main class register to it and I invoke the event whenever I need but I'm worrying it might cause blocking. Each job can take up to 20 minutes. I can have up to 20 jobs running concurrently. My question is: What is the right way to notify my main thread about any progress in my job thread? Thanks for any help.

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  • What kind of data do I pass into a Django Model.save() method?

    - by poswald
    Lets say that we are getting POSTed a form like this in Django: rate=10 items= [23,12,31,52,83,34] The items are primary keys of an Item model. I have a bunch of business logic that will run and create more items based on this data, the results of some db lookups, and some business logic. I want to put that logic into a save signal or an overridden Model.save() method of another model (let's call it Inventory). The business logic will run when I create a new Inventory object using this form data. Inventory will look like this: class Inventory(models.Model): picked_items = models.ManyToManyField(Item, related_name="items_picked_set") calculated_items = models.ManyToManyField(Item, related_name="items_calculated_set") rate = models.DecimalField() ... other fields here ... New calculated_items will be created based on the passed in items which will be stored as picked_items. My question is this: is it better for the save() method on this model to accept: the request object (I don't really like this coupling) the form data as arguments or kwargs (a list of primary keys and the other form fields) a list of Items (The caller form or view will lookup the list of Items and create a list as well as pass in the other form fields) some other approach? I know this is a bit subjective, but I was wondering what the general idea is. I've looked through a lot of code but I'm having a hard time finding a pattern I like.

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