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• Footnote continuation notice

  - by Patti Miller

  I have a document with multiple footnotes, some of which continue from page to page. The footnote separator has been customized for both 'continues on next page' and continues from previous page. However, on 1 particular page, the separator shows saying the footnote continues from previous page, but a brand new footnote follows. Is there a way to edit/delete the separator on 1 particular page only? (Word 2007)

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• Forwarding rsyslog to syslog-ng, with FQDN and facility separation

  - by Joshua Miller

  I'm attempting to configure my rsyslog clients to forward messages to my syslog-ng log repository systems. Forwarding messages works "out of the box", but my clients are logging short names, not FQDNs. As a result the messages on the syslog repo use short names as well, which is a problem because one can't determine which system the message originated from easily. My clients get their names through DHCP / DNS. I've tried a number of solutions trying to get this working, but without success. I'm using rsyslog 4.6.2 and syslog-ng 3.2.5. I've tried setting $PreserveFQDN on as the first directive in /etc/rsyslog.conf (and restarting rsyslog of course). It seems to have no effect. hostname --fqdn on the client returns the proper FQDN, so the problem isn't whether the system can actually figure out its own FQDN. $LocalHostName <fqdn> looked promising, but this directive isn't available in my version of rsyslog (Available since 4.7.4+, 5.7.3+, 6.1.3+). Upgrading isn't an option at the moment. Configuring the syslog-ng server to populate names based on reverse lookups via DNS isn't an option. There are complexities with reverse DNS and the public cloud. Specifying for the forwarder to use a custom template seems like a viable option at first glance. I can specify the following, which causes local logging to begin using the FQDN on the syslog-ng repo. $template MyTemplate, "%timestamp% <FQDN> %syslogtag%%msg%" $ActionForwardDefaultTemplate MyTemplate However, when I put this in place syslog-ng seems to be unable to categorize messages by facility or priority. Messages come in as FQDN, but everything is put in to user.log. When I don't use the custom template, messages are properly categorized under facility and priority, but with the short name. So, in summary, if I manually trick rsyslog into including the FQDN, priority and facility becomes lost details to syslog-ng. How can I get rsyslog to do FQDN logging which works properly going to a syslog-ng repository? rsyslog client config: $ModLoad imuxsock.so # provides support for local system logging (e.g. via logger command) $ModLoad imklog.so # provides kernel logging support (previously done by rklogd) $ActionFileDefaultTemplate RSYSLOG_TraditionalFileFormat *.info;mail.none;authpriv.none;cron.none /var/log/messages authpriv.* /var/log/secure mail.* -/var/log/maillog cron.* /var/log/cron *.emerg * uucp,news.crit /var/log/spooler local7.* /var/log/boot.log $WorkDirectory /var/spool/rsyslog # where to place spool files $ActionQueueFileName fwdRule1 # unique name prefix for spool files $ActionQueueMaxDiskSpace 1g # 1gb space limit (use as much as possible) $ActionQueueSaveOnShutdown on # save messages to disk on shutdown $ActionQueueType LinkedList # run asynchronously $ActionResumeRetryCount -1 # infinite retries if host is down *.* @syslog-ng1.example.com *.* @syslog-ng2.example.com syslog-ng configuration (abridged for brevity): options { flush_lines (0); time_reopen (10); log_fifo_size (1000); long_hostnames (off); use_dns (no); use_fqdn (yes); create_dirs (no); keep_hostname (yes); }; source src { unix-stream("/dev/log"); internal(); udp(ip(0.0.0.0) port(514)); }; destination per_host_destination { file( "/var/log/syslog-ng/devices/$HOST/$FACILITY.log" owner("root") group("root") perm(0644) dir_owner(root) dir_group(root) dir_perm(0775) create_dirs(yes)); }; log { source(src); destination(per_facility_destination); };

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• E-mail duplication problem

  - by Gavin Osborn

  I have taken out a hosting agreement with a well respected hosting provider for a couple of internet facing servers. We have deployed several applications to these servers which send various e-mails back to us for reporting purposes. Context: Each server runs Windows Server 2003 R2 with the IIS 6.0 SMTP service installed. Each application is configured to use the local instance of IIS to send e-mails. The external IP address of each server is mapped to a particular domain eg: server1.mydomain.com server2.mydomain.com These e-mails are sent from a company domain name and not the domain name of the hosted servers (eg: [email protected]) Symptoms: A small number (<1%) of e-mails sent from these applications appear to be duplicated. These are exact duplicate in terms of both content and message headers. The Fix: I contacted my hosting provider and they told me this was a common problem & instructed me to: Change the HELO response of your mail server service to a FQDN (server1.mydomain.com && server2.mydomain.com) Create a DNS A record that resolves the FQDN of your mail server to the primary IP address of your sending mail server. Create a PTR record that resolves your primary IP address back to your mail server's FQDN In the sending domain's (mycompanydomain.com) DNS zone file, add the appropriate SPF record for your hosted servers. eg: v=spf1 a mx include:mydomain -all The Problem Continues: I made all of the changes as prescribed above, I was a little hesitant because these steps seemed to suggest they were more for stopping your messages getting blocked than they were for stopping them from being duplicated - but I am certainly no expert in these matters. It has been 5 days since I applied this fix and the problem still persists. I am certain that these problems are not a bug in the software because they are 4 different applications installed on 2 different servers, all of whom are exhibiting this strange behaviour. This behaviour has also not been seen in our UAT environment. Were my hosts correct to suggest this fix? If not, does anyone know what could be the cause of this problem? Many Thanks

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• Windows 7 on Mac Book Pro

  - by gavin

  I want to take a screen grab on a mac book pro running windows 7 - is there a short cut? I'd like to set a Fn key - how do I do this? cheers Gav

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• Remotely viewing IP camera on Belkin N450 DB router

  - by Mike Miller

  I need to setup a wireless IP camera (Trendnet TV-IP501W) on my network so that it is remotely visible from anywhere. Right now I successfully connected it to my home network but nothing else. My router is a Belkin N450 DB. Any help would be much appreciated, including what this would be referred to as so I could more easily ask another forum. I believe it is something like "port forwarding" but I'm not sure. Ok, I believe I found this in the "virtual servers" section. It asks for enabling with a check box, description, inbound port, type, private IP, & private port. In that order I have checked enabling, "camera", 150, TCP, 81, and 81? I'm assuming inbound ports are the numbers I use for the home network - xxx.xxx.x.150 and the 81 was for private. I used my WAN IP and added :81 and .81 but didn't get it. What am I doing wrong? Ok, I believe I found this in the "virtual servers" section. It asks for enabling with a check box, description, inbound port, type, private IP, & private port. In that order I have checked enabling, "camera", 150, TCP, 81, and 81? I'm assuming inbound ports are the numbers I use for the home network - xxx.xxx.x.150 and the 81 was for private. I used my WAN IP and added :81 and .81 but didn't get it. What am I doing wrong?

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• Keep source IP after NAT

  - by John Miller

  Until today I used a cheapy router so I can share my internet connection and keep a webserver online too, while using NAT. Users IP ($_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']) was fine, I was seeing class A IPs of users. But as traffic grown up everyday, I had to install a Linux Server (Debian) to share my Internet Connection, because my old router couldn't keep the traffic anymore. I shared the internet via IPTABLES using NAT, but now, after forwarding port 80 to my webserver, now instead of seeing real users IP, I see my Gateway IP (Linux Internal IP) as any user IP Address. How to solve this issue? I edited my post, so I can paste the rules I'm currently using. #!/bin/sh #I made a script to set the rules #I flush everything here. iptables --flush iptables --table nat --flush iptables --delete-chain iptables --table nat --delete-chain iptables -F iptables -X # I drop everything as a general rule, but this is disabled under testing # iptables -P INPUT DROP # iptables -P OUTPUT DROP # these are the loopback rules iptables -A INPUT -i lo -j ACCEPT iptables -A OUTPUT -o lo -j ACCEPT # here I set the SSH port rules, so I can connect to my server iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --sport 513:65535 --dport 22 -m state --state NEW,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT iptables -A OUTPUT -p tcp --sport 22 --dport 513:65535 -m state --state ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT # These are the forwards for 80 port iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -p tcp -s 0/0 -d xx.xx.xx.xx --dport 80 -j DNAT --to 192.168.42.3:80 iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -o eth0 -d xx.xx.xx.xx -j SNAT --to-source 192.168.42.3 iptables -A FORWARD -p tcp -s 192.168.42.3 --sport 80 -j ACCEPT # These are the forwards for bind/dns iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -p udp -s 0/0 -d xx.xx.xx.xx --dport 53 -j DNAT --to 192.168.42.3:53 iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -o eth0 -d xx.xx.xx.xx -j SNAT --to-source 192.168.42.3 iptables -A FORWARD -p udp -s 192.168.42.3 --sport 53 -j ACCEPT # And these are the rules so I can share my internet connection iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -o eth0 -j MASQUERADE iptables -A FORWARD -i eth0:1 -j ACCEPT If I delete the MASQUERADE part, I see my real IP while echoing it with PHP, but I don't have internet. How to do, to have internet and see my real IP while ports are forwarded too? ** xx.xx.xx.xx - is my public IP. I hid it for security reasons.

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• sp_releaseapplock timeout expired cause?

  - by Darian Miller

  I've been using a combination of sp_getapplock and sp_releaseapplock for some custom application locking purposes for years now with success and just the last few days I've started to get some timeout expired errors on a sp_releaseapplock which is a bit puzzling. When listing the current locks, there's less than a dozen of these active, and the rest of the dedicated server is way underutilized at the moment (less than 100 batches/sec with a mutli-processor, 32GB Ram, higher end machine.) Is there a specific resource to be monitored that may point me in the right direction for determing why such a lightweight operation is timing out? This is called within a stored proc with a timeout of 120 seconds which seems to be amazingly long for this operation to timeout on. SQL 2000 SP4 running on Windows 2003 Server. TSQL used (@pLockUniqueName is VarChar(255)) EXEC @pLockSuccess = sp_getapplock @pLockUniqueName, 'Exclusive', 'Session', 0 EXEC @pUnLockSuccess = sp_releaseapplock @pLockUniqueName, 'Session' Thanks, Darian

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• DVD ripper for Windows

  - by Shawn Miller

  I am looking for a good DVD ripper software for Windows. Looking for something that will easily rip the raw bits DVD to hard drive without any loss of quality. Looking for something that will easily copy the VOB files to a server location for use with the Window Media Center DVD Library feature.

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• XP can't read data from transferred HD

  - by Alexander Miller

  Computer A, running XP, died. XP was installed on a fresh HD in computer B. Slaved data-backup HD from A was installed as slave on B. B will not read it; shows only 2 folders, Recycler and System Volume Info. All of these are older machines with IDE drives. What's going on & how can I read/transfer the data from the transferred drive? This was only a trial run. Actually I will need to transfer the master HD from A - which has XP on it - and read from its data partition because (blush) the backup drive was not up to date.

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• VPN ipsec tunnel from router to single windows server computer (gateway-to-host)

  - by Chris Miller

  Firstly, is this possible? The situation: 2 different ISP's. One has several servers and a firewall running. The other is limited to only one virtual server with one network card running windows server 2008r2. I need to set up a site-to-site style VPN using IPsec between the firewall of one ISP and the windows host on the other (gateway-to-host). This host has to run a SQL-Server that I can access from the other ISP's servers through the VPN tunnel. It seems looking at the RFC for IPsec that this should be possible using the features of Windows 2008, but I can't get it to work so far... It seems that I can't access any services running on the same computer or IP address used as the tunnel endpoint? Thanks Chris

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• objects don't snap in browser window

  - by gavin

  I've recently upgraded from XP Pro to Windows7 Pro - In XP Pro (and previous OS versions) you could move Thumbnails around in a window and they would snap/shuffle up/re-order themselves and be viewable as a slide show - it was unbelievably useful - I used it EVERY day, Windows 7 doesn't do this? Is there some setting I can change or is it just not there anymore? I use it for organising photo libraries for archiving - I haven't found any other way of doing this that suits my work. Does anyone know a way to get this feature back? Thanks

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• Application Pool Identity corruption

  - by Gavin Osborn

  I have observed a few times while deploying software into IIS that every now and again the related Application Pools fail to restart and in the Event Log we see an error like the following: The identity of application pool, 'AppPoolName' is invalid. If it remains invalid when the first request for the application pool is processed, the application pool will be disabled. This does not happen frequently but when it does the only solution is to re-apply the Identity password in the IIS Manager Window. As soon as I re-apply and then restart the application pool the web sites come back up. Facts: The account is a service account whose password never expires. The account is local to the IIS host. The account password is never changed. This is IIS 6 running on Windows Server 2003 Deployment of the software is via MSI and involves several IIS Resets. The software is created in house and does not do anything fancy to IIS. Any ideas how the identity information might become corrupt? Edit: Clarification To be clear - this user account and password combination work absolutely fine and usually works fine as the Identity of the Application Pool. It is only when we deploy updates of our software into an existing IIS application that it stops working. Our password has not changed Our deployment does not change the password or reconfigure the application pools. This does not happen every time, 1/20 times perhaps. If we re-enter the password into IIS and restart the App Pools everything works.

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• Migrating from one linux install to another: How to keep the second disk around?

  - by Jim Miller

  I've got a linux box running Fedora 19 that I want to move to CentOS 6.4. Rather than trying to do something fancy with the current disk (which has also accumulated a lot of sludge over the years), I'm going to get a new disk, put CentOS on that, and then move the to-be-preserved bits of stuff from the old disk to the new one. I haven't done this yet, but I presume it should be semi-straightforward -- do the CentOS install on the new disk, mount the old disk on /olddisk or somesuch, and start copying. However, I'm not sure how to handle getting the machine to recognize the new empty disk as the target of the CentOS install (I suppose I can just pull the old disk during the installation), remember that this is the intended boot disk once the install has happened), and tweak /etc/fstab (right?) to set up the old disk on the desired mount point. (Both disks are, or will be, SATA.) I could probably hack it together without losing too much hair or doing too much damage, but could anyone offer some advice that would get/keep me on the right track? Thanks!

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• Does Windows Home Server support folder redirection?

  - by Shawn Miller

  Windows provides the ability to redirect specific user folders to server locations, using a group policy extension called Folder Redirection. The Wikipedia article and Microsoft's marketing page for Windows Home Server suggests a tons of great features, but I don't see anything about specifically about Folder Redirection. I currently run a domain controller in the home so that I can push the folder redirection group policy down to all PCs. Windows Home Server looks like a better fit, but I'd hate to give up on the ease of folder redirection to automatically save all documents, music, pictures to the file server. Any thoughts?

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• Parallels: How to see a Mac-hosted website from Windows?

  - by Jim Miller

  I'm traveling at the moment, and have moved one of the websites I'm working on to my MBP so I can work on it without a network connection. I've made an addition to the Mac's /etc/hosts file pointing the domain name to 127.0.0.1, and all's well. I now want to get into Parallels and check the site from Windows browsers. How do I get things so that the Windows browser will understand the domain name and access the site? The Windows image obviously doesn't recognize / can't find the Mac's /etc/hosts file, and references to 127.0.0.1 in the Windows hosts file just as obviously point to Windows, not the Mac. Any advice out there? Thanks!

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• How do I setup routing for two companies with different Internet connections on the same LAN?

  - by Clint Miller

  Here's the setup: Two companies (A & B) share office space and a LAN. A 2nd ISP is brought in and company A wants its own Internet connection (ISP A) and company B wants its own Internet connection (ISP B). VLANs are deployed internally to separate the two companies' networks (company A: VLAN 1, company B: VLAN 2, shared VOIP: VLAN 3). With separate VLANs it's simple enough to use separate DHCP servers (or separate scopes on the same server) to assign the default gateway to each company's gateway for their Internet connection. Static routes can be created on each gateway to point traffic destined for the other company's VLAN or the voice VLAN so that all nodes are reachable as expected. However, I think this is a form of asymmetrical routing, right? (The path from node A1 to node B1 is not the same as the path back from node B1 to node A1). Can I set up policy-based routing to correct this? In that case, can I assign the same default gateway to every device on all VLANs and create a routing policy on a L3 switch to look at the source address and forward traffic to the appropriate next hop? In that case, I want the routing logic to go like this: If the destination address is known, forward the traffic (traffic destined for a different VLAN). If the destination address is unknown, forward the traffic to ISP A's gateway if the source address is on VLAN A; or forward the traffic to ISP B's gateway if the source address is VLAN B. Am I thinking about this problem in the correct way? Is there another way to solve this problem that I am overlooking?

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• retain last used path to location for saving files in Windows 7

  - by Mark Miller

  I am using Microsoft Office 2010 and Windows 7 on a Dell PC. I am opening a bunch of MSWord files one at a time, copying data tables therein, pasting the data into Excel and saving the Excel files as comma delimited text files. I am creating a separate Excel file for each MSWord file. The path to the folder containing the saved comma-delimited files is quite long, something like this: c:\users\me\aa\bb\cc\dd\ee\ Every time I open Excel and save a new comma-delimited file I have to re-navigate the entire path (c:\users\me\aa\bb\cc\dd\ee). In the past Windows seemed to remember the last used path, saving a lot of tedious key-strokes. In fact, I think Windows did this for me as recently as last week, albeit on a different computer. Can I apply a setting in Windows somewhere asking it to offer the last used path as a default when saving files so I do not have to re-navigate the entire directory structure to save each new comma-delimited file? If I can, how so? Where is the option for specifying that setting? Thank you for any help.

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• Fill rows down quickly (column or matrix of zeros)

  - by Mark Miller

  I have an extremely basic question, but I have never found the answer by searching the internet. I simply want to create a large column of zeros with Excel. Sometimes I want to create a huge matrix of zeros (maybe 600 rows by 500 columns) and then replace a few zeros with 1's to create a model design matrix. I have always started by creating a column of, for example, 10 zeros, copying and pasting those zeroes, then copying and pasting the resulting column of 20 zeros, etc., until I had the desired number of rows. Then I would copy and paste that column of zeros one at a time over and over until I had the desired number of columns. This procedure is tedious and time-consuming and I know there must be an easier way. Do you know of any other methods?

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• Windows 7: resizing the 'Save As' window

  - by Mark Miller

  I do not know whether my question is appropriate for this forum. Apologies if it is not. I am running Windows 7 Professional with Service Pack 1 on a Dell Vostro 460 PC. I am downloading journal articles from the internet and saving them as *.pdf files. Somehow I unintentionally clicked a button that resulted in the 'Save as' window filling the entire screen of my computer, except for the toolbar at the very bottom. How can I resize the 'Save as' window so it only fills perhaps somewhere around 25% of the computer screen, or whatever the default size for that window is? I have searched the internet extensively and found one or two threads about this problem, but no specific solutions were posted there. One suggestion was to grab the bottom of the window with the mouse and scroll upward until the window was the desired size. That does not appear to be possible in my case. Another suggestion was to click on the window with the middle mouse button before attempting to resize the window, but that does not appear to help in my case either. Thank you for any help. If I should post this question in a different forum here please let me know, or kindly migrate the question to the appropriate forum. If additional information is necessary before a solution can be attempted, please let me know that as well.

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• March 2012 - SSIS Training in London!

  - by andyleonard

  I am honored to announce I will be delivering From Zero To SSIS! in London, England 5-9 Mar 2012. This course is delivered in cooperation with my friends at TechniTrain who provide awesome training by talented technologists like Chris Webb ( Blog ), Gavin Payne ( Blog ), and Christian Bolton ( Blog ). This opportunity grew out of conversations at SQLBits 9 in Liverpool in September 2011. I had an awesome time at SQLBits and encourage everyone to attend the conference if you have the opportunity to...(read more)

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• MVC Partial View to Call Display Pop-up window using jquery

  - by Gavin campbell

  Hi I have a index page the renders objects from my database as a treeview, each item has a link href="/MessageGroupType/Edit/1002 that makes an Ajax call to display a partial view in a DIV. Within the partial view there is a delete button which calls my controller to delete the item. However, i do a check to make sure the item can be deleted, if the item cant be deleted then i wish a pop-up to appear back on the edit form telling the user they cant delete this record. In my Edit partial view i have the following code " type="text/javascript" $(function() { $("#dialog").dialog(); }); <% if (Boolean.Parse(ViewData["DisplayWindow"].ToString())){% This Mesage group Type Cannot be deleted as is linked to other message group Types <% }% So my main questions are Can i make a reference to a javascript script within my Partial View (i dont want my master page to be called on the partial view) When i dynamically load the partial view data into my DIV - can i then after calling my controller insert another DIV into the first DIV. I am i doing this the wrong way - so any pointers is appreciated Cheers

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• DotNetOpenAuth: Message signature was incorrect

  - by Shawn Miller

  I'm getting a "Message signature was incorrect" exception when trying to authenticate with MyOpenID and Yahoo. I'm using pretty much the ASP.NET MVC sample code that came with DotNetOpenAuth 3.4.2 public ActionResult Authenticate(string openid) { var openIdRelyingParty = new OpenIdRelyingParty(); var authenticationResponse = openIdRelyingParty.GetResponse(); if (authenticationResponse == null) { // Stage 2: User submitting identifier Identifier identifier; if (Identifier.TryParse(openid, out identifier)) { var realm = new Realm(Request.Url.Root() + "openid"); var authenticationRequest = openIdRelyingParty.CreateRequest(openid, realm); authenticationRequest.RedirectToProvider(); } else { return RedirectToAction("login", "home"); } } else { // Stage 3: OpenID provider sending assertion response switch (authenticationResponse.Status) { case AuthenticationStatus.Authenticated: { // TODO } case AuthenticationStatus.Failed: { throw authenticationResponse.Exception; } } } return new EmptyResult(); } Working fine with Google, AOL and others. However, Yahoo and MyOpenID fall into the AuthenticationStatus.Failed case with the following exception: DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.Bindings.InvalidSignatureException: Message signature was incorrect. at DotNetOpenAuth.OpenId.ChannelElements.SigningBindingElement.ProcessIncomingMessage(IProtocolMessage message) in c:\Users\andarno\git\dotnetopenid\src\DotNetOpenAuth\OpenId\ChannelElements\SigningBindingElement.cs:line 139 at DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.Channel.ProcessIncomingMessage(IProtocolMessage message) in c:\Users\andarno\git\dotnetopenid\src\DotNetOpenAuth\Messaging\Channel.cs:line 992 at DotNetOpenAuth.OpenId.ChannelElements.OpenIdChannel.ProcessIncomingMessage(IProtocolMessage message) in c:\Users\andarno\git\dotnetopenid\src\DotNetOpenAuth\OpenId\ChannelElements\OpenIdChannel.cs:line 172 at DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.Channel.ReadFromRequest(HttpRequestInfo httpRequest) in c:\Users\andarno\git\dotnetopenid\src\DotNetOpenAuth\Messaging\Channel.cs:line 386 at DotNetOpenAuth.OpenId.RelyingParty.OpenIdRelyingParty.GetResponse(HttpRequestInfo httpRequestInfo) in c:\Users\andarno\git\dotnetopenid\src\DotNetOpenAuth\OpenId\RelyingParty\OpenIdRelyingParty.cs:line 540 Appears that others are having the same problem: http://trac.dotnetopenauth.net:8000/ticket/172 Does anyone have a workaround?

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• Assert.AreEqual() Exception in VS2010

  - by Tom Miller

  I am fairly new to unit testing and am using VS2010 to develop in and run my tests. I have a simple test, illustrated below, that simply compares 2 System.Data.DataTableReader objects. I know that they are equal as they are both created using the same object types, the same input file and I have verified that the objects "look" the same. I realize I may be dealing with a couple of issues, one being whether or not this is the proper use of Assert.AreEqual or even the proper way to test this scenario, and the other being the main issue I am dealing with which is why this test fails with this exception: Failed 00:00:00.1000660 0 Assert.AreEqual failed. Expected:<System.Data.DataTableReader>. Actual:<System.Data.DataTableReader>. Here is the unit test code that is failing: public void EntriesTest() { AuditLog target = new AuditLog(); target.Init(); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); ds.ReadXml(TestContext.DataRow["AuditLogPath"].ToString()); DataTableReader expected = ds.Tables[0].CreateDataReader(); DataTableReader actual = target.Entries.Tables[0].CreateDataReader(); Assert.AreEqual<DataTableReader>(expected, actual); } Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• Cannot find System.Web.Script.Service namespace error after upgrading to Visual studio 2010

  - by Gavin

  I've just upgraded a VS 2008 project to VS 2010, converting the project but keeping the target as .NET 3.5 (SP1 is installed). My project worked without issue under VS 2008 on another machine. I've added references to System.Web.Extensions.dll but I'm still getting the following errors from code in the App_Code folder: 1) Cannot find System.Web.Script.Service namespace 2) Type 'System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService' is not defined. 3) Type 'System.Runtime.Serialization.Json.DataContractJsonSerializer' is not defined. Anyone have any ideas what the problem might be as I'm pretty stumped? :(

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• Setting Session Variable from UpdatePanel

  - by Gavin

  I am using ASP.NET 2.0 AJAX Extensions 1.0 with the version v1.0.20229 of the AJAX Control Toolkit (which to my knowledge is the latest for .NET 2.0/Visual Studio 2005). My web page (aspx) has a DropDownList control on an UpdatePanel. In the handler for the DropDownList's SelectedIndexChanged event I attempt to set a session variable. The first time the event is fired, I get a Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManagerParserErrorException: "The message received from the server could not be parsed". If I continue, subsequent SelectedIndexChanged's are handled successfully. I have stumbled upon a solution whereby if I initialise the session variable in my Page_Load (so the event handler is just setting the value of a session variable that already exists as opposed to creating a new one) the problem goes away. I'm happy to do this, but I'm curious as to exactly what the underlying cause is. Can anyone explain? (My suspicion is that setting the session variable receives a response from the server which is then returned to the 'caller', but it's not the sort of response it knows how to deal with causing the exception?) EDIT: I reproduced the problem in a seperate little project: Default.aspx <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="SessionTest._Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server" /> <div> <asp:UpdatePanel id="upCategorySelector" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> Category: <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlCategory" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" OnSelectedIndexChanged="ddlCategories_SelectedIndexChanged"> <asp:ListItem>Item 1</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem>Item 2</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem>Item 3</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> </form> </body> </html> Default.aspx.cs using System; using System.Data; using System.Configuration; using System.Collections; using System.Web; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts; using System.Web.UI.HtmlControls; namespace SessionTest { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // If I do this, the exception does not occur. if (Session["key"] == null) Session.Add("key", 0); } protected void ddlCategories_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // If Session["key"] has not been created, setting it from // the async call causes the excaption Session.Add("key", ((DropDownList)sender).SelectedValue); } } }

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