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Search found 554 results on 23 pages for 'nullable'.

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  • Add Unique Key For Nullable Columns - SQL Server

    - by Ruby
    I'm using sql server 2008 R2 and would like to apply unique key constraint to nullable columns. This code works good, but if I have multiple columns to add this rule to, it would generate as many 'nullbuster' columns. ALTER TABLE tblBranch ADD nullbuster AS (CASE WHEN column1 IS NULL THEN BranchID ELSE NULL END); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX UK_Column1 ON tblBranch(column1,nullbuster); tblBranch is the table name, nullbuster would be the new column name, BranchId is the Primary key column of the target table, and Column1 is the column name of the target column. Is there any way that I could achieve the goal without generating new columns.

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  • DataSet does not support System.Nullable<>

    - by a_m0d
    I'm trying to set the DataSource for a Crystal Reports report, but I've run into a few problems. I've been following a guide written by Mohammad Mahdi Ramezanpour, and have managed to get all the way to the last part now (setting the DataSource). However, I have a problem that Mohammad does not seem to have - when I pass the results of my query to the report, I end up with the following exception: DataSet does not support System.Nullable< This is the query I am using: public IQueryable<Part> GetPartsToDisplayOnStockReport() { return from part in db.Parts where part.showOnStockReport == true select part; } and the way I pass it to the Report: public ActionResult ViewStockReport() { StockReport stockReport = new StockReport(); var parts = ordersRepository.GetPartsToDisplayOnStockReport().ToList(); stockReport.SetDataSource(parts); Stream stream = stockReport.ExportToStream(CrystalDecisions.Shared.ExportFormatType.PortableDocFormat); return File(stream, "application/pdf"); } I have also tried changing my query to this code, in the hope that it would fix my problem: return (from part in db.Parts where part.showOnStockReport == true select part) ?? db.Parts.DefaultIfEmpty(); but it still complained about the same problem. How can I pass the results of this query to my report, to use it as a data source? Also, if each of my Parts object contains other objects / collections of other objects, will I be able to reference them in the report with a datasource like this?

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  • Nullable object must have a value. VB.NET

    - by Glenn05
    I need help. I'm having problem in my program. This is my code on my Business logic layer. Function Load_ItemDetails(ByVal ItemID As String) As Items Dim objItemEnt As New tblitem Dim objitem As New Items Try Using da = New DataAccess objItemEnt = da.Load_ItemDetails(ItemID) With objitem .ItemCode = objItemEnt.ItemCode .ItemName = objItemEnt.ItemName .Description = objItemEnt.Description .NameofType = objItemEnt.NameofType .TypeofPricing = objItemEnt.TypeofPricing .OnStock = objItemEnt.OnStock .ItemPrice = objItemEnt.ItemPrice .DateModified = objItemEnt.DateModified End With Return objitem End Using Catch ex As Exception Throw End Try End Function This code is for my data access layer. Public Function Load_ItemDetails(ByVal ItemCode As String) Dim objitem As New tblitem Try Using entItem = New DAL.systemdbEntities1 Dim qryUsers = From p In entItem.tblitems Where p.ItemCode = ItemCode Select p Dim luser As List(Of tblitem) = qryUsers.ToList If luser.Count > 0 Then Return luser.First Else Return objitem End If End Using Catch ex As Exception Throw End Try End Function` For my Presentation layer: Private Sub Load_Item_Detail(ByVal ItemCode As String) objItem = New Items Using objLogic = New LogicalLayer objItem = objLogic.Load_ItemDetails(ItemCode) With objItem Me.ItemCodetxt.Text = .ItemCode Me.ItemNametxt.Text = .ItemName Me.ItemDesctxt.Text = .Description Me.ItemTypetxt.Text = .NameofType Me.ItemPricetxt.Text = .TypeofPricing Me.ItemOnstocktxt.Text = CStr(.OnStock) Me.ItemPricetxt.Text = CStr(.ItemPrice) Me.TextBox1.Text = CStr(.DateModified) Me.ItemCodetxt.Tag = .ItemCode End With End Using End Sub` and after I run, I get this error Nullable object must have a value help me. I'm stuck. I don't know what to do guys. I new in n tier architecture.

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  • C# property ending with ?

    - by MicMit
    What does that mean ? public bool? Verbose { get; set; } When applied to string? , there is an error Error 11 The type 'string' must be a non-nullable value type in order to use it as parameter 'T' in the generic type or method 'System.Nullable'

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  • Type result with Ternary operator in C#

    - by Vaccano
    I am trying to use the ternary operator, but I am getting hung up on the type it thinks the result should be. Below is an example that I have contrived to show the issue I am having: class Program { public static void OutputDateTime(DateTime? datetime) { Console.WriteLine(datetime); } public static bool IsDateTimeHappy(DateTime datetime) { if (DateTime.Compare(datetime, DateTime.Parse("1/1")) == 0) return true; return false; } static void Main(string[] args) { DateTime myDateTime = DateTime.Now; OutputDateTime(IsDateTimeHappy(myDateTime) ? null : myDateTime); Console.ReadLine(); ^ } | } | // This line has the compile issue ---------------+ On the line indicated above, I get the following compile error: Type of conditional expression cannot be determined because there is no implicit conversion between '< null ' and 'System.DateTime' I am confused because the parameter is a nullable type (DateTime?). Why does it need to convert at all? If it is null then use that, if it is a date time then use that. I was under the impression that: condition ? first_expression : second_expression; was the same as: if (condition) first_expression; else second_expression; Clearly this is not the case. What is the reasoning behind this? (NOTE: I know that if I make "myDateTime" a nullable DateTime then it will work. But why does it need it? As I stated earlier this is a contrived example. In my real example "myDateTime" is a data mapped value that cannot be made nullable.)

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  • Fluent NHibernate - How to map a non nullable foreign key that exists in two joined tables

    - by vakman
    I'm mapping a set of membership classes for my application using Fluent NHibernate. I'm mapping the classes to the asp.net membership database structure. The database schema relevant to the problem looks like this: ASPNET_USERS UserId PK ApplicationId FK NOT NULL other user columns ... ASPNET_MEMBERSHIP UserId PK,FK ApplicationID FK NOT NULL other membership columns... There is a one to one relationship between these two tables. I'm attempting to join the two tables together and map data from both tables to a single 'User' entity which looks like this: public class User { public virtual Guid Id { get; set; } public virtual Guid ApplicationId { get; set; } // other properties to be mapped from aspnetuser/membership tables ... My mapping file is as follows: public class UserMap : ClassMap<User> { public UserMap() { Table("aspnet_Users"); Id(user => user.Id).Column("UserId").GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); Map(user => user.ApplicationId); // other user mappings Join("aspnet_Membership", join => { join.KeyColumn("UserId"); join.Map(user => user.ApplicationId); // Map other things from membership to 'User' class } } } If I try to run with the code above I get a FluentConfiguration exception Tried to add property 'ApplicationId' when already added. If I remove the line "Map(user = user.ApplicationId);" or change it to "Map(user = user.ApplicationId).Not.Update().Not.Insert();" then the application runs but I get the following exception when trying to insert a new user: Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'ApplicationId', table 'ASPNETUsers_Dev.dbo.aspnet_Users'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated. And if I leave the .Map(user = user.ApplicationId) as it originally was and make either of those changes to the join.Map(user = user.ApplicationId) then I get the same exception above except of course the exception is related to an insert into the aspnet_Membership table So... how do I do this kind of mapping assuming I can't change my database schema?

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  • Declare a Nullable int (int?) using XAML

    - by Nate Zaugg
    I am trying to bind a combo box to a property on my ViewModel. The target type is short? and I would like to have null be an option. Basically I would like the value of the first item in the combo box be {x:Null}. <ComboBox Grid.Row="9" Grid.Column="1" SelectedValue="{Binding Priority}"> <clr:Int16></clr:Int16> <clr:Int16>1</clr:Int16> <clr:Int16>2</clr:Int16> <clr:Int16>3</clr:Int16> <clr:Int16>4</clr:Int16> <clr:Int16>5</clr:Int16> <clr:Int16>6</clr:Int16> <clr:Int16>7</clr:Int16> <clr:Int16>8</clr:Int16> <clr:Int16>9</clr:Int16> <clr:Int16>10</clr:Int16> </ComboBox> Any Suggestions?

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  • Nullables? Detecting them

    - by Aren B
    Ok, im still a bit new to using nullable types. I'm writing a reflecting object walker for a project of mine, im getting to the point where im setting the value of a reflected property with the value i've retrieved from a reflected property. The value i've retrieved is still in object form, and it dawned on me, since i want my object walker to return null when it can't find something, (I thought about throwing an exception, but i want this to soft-fail when something's wrong). Anyway, some of the values im setting/getting are decimal bool etc... so it dawned on me that i should just NOT set a non-nullable value, but I realized I straight up don't know how to tell decimal from decimal? Is it enough to key on if the Type of the property im setting is inherited from ValueType?

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  • SQL CLR and nullable datetime parameter

    - by toluca70
    I'm trying to write a SQLCLR function that takes a DateTime2 as input and returns another DateTime2. Based on this post I altered the parameter to be the C# type DateTime giving me the level of precision I require. However because the input can be null I would like it to be DateTime?; the return type as well. using System; using Microsoft.SqlServer.Server; namespace SqlServer.Functions { public class UserDefinedFunctions { [SqlFunction(DataAccess = DataAccessKind.None)] public static DateTime? GetLocalTimeFromGMT(DateTime? dateTime) { if (dateTime.HasValue) return DateTime.SpecifyKind(dateTime.Value, DateTimeKind.Utc).ToLocalTime(); else return (DateTime?)null; } } } The problem is I get the following error when I try to deploy: Error 1 Cannot find the type 'Nullable`1', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. SqlServer.Functions I'm using Sql Server 2008 and Visual Studio 2008.

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  • Return nullable datetime from scalar, stored procedure

    - by molgan
    Hello I have a function that returns a date from a stored procedure, and it all works great til the value is NULL, how can I fix this so it works with null aswell? public DateTime? GetSomteDate(int SomeID) { DateTime? LimitDate= null; if (_entities.Connection.State == System.Data.ConnectionState.Closed) _entities.Connection.Open(); using (EntityCommand c = new EntityCommand("MyEntities.GetSomeDate", (EntityConnection)this._entities.Connection)) { c.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; EntityParameter paramSomeID = new EntityParameter("SomeID", System.Data.DbType.Int32); paramSomeID.Direction = System.Data.ParameterDirection.Input; paramSomeID.Value = SomeID; c.Parameters.Add(paramSomeID); var x = c.ExecuteScalar(); if (x != null) LimitDate = (DateTime)x; return LimitDate.Value; }; }

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  • Lambda expressions and nullable types

    - by Mathew
    I have two samples of code. One works and returns the correct result, one throws a null reference exception. What's the difference? I know there's some magic happening with capturing variables for the lambda expression but I don't understand what's going on behind the scenes here. int? x = null; bool isXNull = !x.HasValue; // this works var result = from p in data.Program where (isXNull) select p; return result.Tolist(); // this doesn't var result2 = from p in data.Program where (!x.HasValue) select p; return result2.ToList();

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  • Unique constraint with nullable column

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I have a table that holds nested categories. I want to avoid duplicate names on same-level items (i.e., categories with same parent). I've come with this: CREATE TABLE `category` ( `category_id` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `category_name` varchar(100) NOT NULL, `parent_id` int(10) unsigned DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`category_id`), UNIQUE KEY `category_name_UNIQUE` (`category_name`,`parent_id`), KEY `fk_category_category1` (`parent_id`,`category_id`), CONSTRAINT `fk_category_category1` FOREIGN KEY (`parent_id`) REFERENCES `category` (`category_id`) ON DELETE SET NULL ON UPDATE CASCADE ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_spanish_ci Unluckily, category_name_UNIQUE does not enforce my rule for root level categories (those where parent_id is NULL). Is there a reasonable workaround?

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  • C# Nullable Type question

    - by TatMing
    for example: int? taxid; if (ddlProductTax.SelectedValue == "") { taxid = null; } else { taxid = Convert.ToInt32(ddlProductTax.SelectedValue); } //Correct But int? taxid; taxid = (ddlProductTax.SelectedValue == "" ? null : Convert.ToInt32(ddlProductTax.SelectedValue)); //Error It error say and int32 cannot implicit convert. The ( ? truepart : falsepart); is not short of (if ..else..) ?

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  • Problem using Conditional Operation with Nullable Int

    - by Rajarshi
    A small problem. Any idea guys why this does not work? int? nullableIntVal = (this.Policy == null) ? null : 1; I am trying to return 'null' if the left hand expression is True, else 1. Seems simple but gives compilation error - Type of conditional expression cannot be determined because there is no implicit conversion between 'null' and 'int' If I replace the " ? null : 1 " with any valid int, then there is no problem.

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  • How do I tell Entity Framework that a column in a view is nullable?

    - by Ryan ONeill
    I have a view which has an Int column which is nullable (let's call it StackOverflowCount). When generating an EF model from the database, the EF designer does not recognise it as nullable and creates the column as an Int. The issue I have is that on the EF designer I have set the column to Nullable and the following error then kills the compilation; Error 3031: Problem in mapping fragments starting at line 2327: Non-nullable column MyView.StackOverflowCount in table MyView is mapped to a nullable entity property. I can get round this by opening the .edmx file in XML mode and manually editing the SQL column definition, but there is no way to do this using the designer and it gets overwritten the next time I refresh from the model from the DB. Is this 'by design' or an example of something that slipped through into EF 4.0? I'm using .Net 4.0 with EF 4.0 under VS 2010.

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  • Fluent NHibernate/SQL Server 2008 insert query problem

    - by Mark
    Hi all, I'm new to Fluent NHibernate and I'm running into a problem. I have a mapping defined as follows: public PersonMapping() { Id(p => p.Id).GeneratedBy.HiLo("1000"); Map(p => p.FirstName).Not.Nullable().Length(50); Map(p => p.MiddleInitial).Nullable().Length(1); Map(p => p.LastName).Not.Nullable().Length(50); Map(p => p.Suffix).Nullable().Length(3); Map(p => p.SSN).Nullable().Length(11); Map(p => p.BirthDate).Nullable(); Map(p => p.CellPhone).Nullable().Length(12); Map(p => p.HomePhone).Nullable().Length(12); Map(p => p.WorkPhone).Nullable().Length(12); Map(p => p.OtherPhone).Nullable().Length(12); Map(p => p.EmailAddress).Nullable().Length(50); Map(p => p.DriversLicenseNumber).Nullable().Length(50); Component<Address>(p => p.CurrentAddress, m => { m.Map(p => p.Line1, "Line1").Length(50); m.Map(p => p.Line2, "Line2").Length(50); m.Map(p => p.City, "City").Length(50); m.Map(p => p.State, "State").Length(50); m.Map(p => p.Zip, "Zip").Length(2); }); Map(p => p.EyeColor).Nullable().Length(3); Map(p => p.HairColor).Nullable().Length(3); Map(p => p.Gender).Nullable().Length(1); Map(p => p.Height).Nullable(); Map(p => p.Weight).Nullable(); Map(p => p.Race).Nullable().Length(1); Map(p => p.SkinTone).Nullable().Length(3); HasMany(p => p.PriorAddresses).Cascade.All(); } public PreviousAddressMapping() { Table("PriorAddress"); Id(p => p.Id).GeneratedBy.HiLo("1000"); Map(p => p.EndEffectiveDate).Not.Nullable(); Component<Address>(p => p.Address, m => { m.Map(p => p.Line1, "Line1").Length(50); m.Map(p => p.Line2, "Line2").Length(50); m.Map(p => p.City, "City").Length(50); m.Map(p => p.State, "State").Length(50); m.Map(p => p.Zip, "Zip").Length(2); }); } My test is [Test] public void can_correctly_map_Person_with_Addresses() { var myPerson = new Person("Jane", "", "Doe"); var priorAddresses = new[] { new PreviousAddress(ObjectMother.GetAddress1(), DateTime.Parse("05/13/2010")), new PreviousAddress(ObjectMother.GetAddress2(), DateTime.Parse("05/20/2010")) }; new PersistenceSpecification<Person>(Session) .CheckProperty(c => c.FirstName, myPerson.FirstName) .CheckProperty(c => c.LastName, myPerson.LastName) .CheckProperty(c => c.MiddleInitial, myPerson.MiddleInitial) .CheckList(c => c.PriorAddresses, priorAddresses) .VerifyTheMappings(); } GetAddress1() (yeah, horrible name) has Line2 == null The tables seem to be created correctly in sql server 2008, but the test fails with a SQLException "String or binary data would be truncated." When I grab the sql statement in SQL Profiler, I get exec sp_executesql N'INSERT INTO PriorAddress (Line1, Line2, City, State, Zip, EndEffectiveDate, Id) VALUES (@p0, @p1, @p2, @p3, @p4, @p5, @p6)',N'@p0 nvarchar(18),@p1 nvarchar(4000),@p2 nvarchar(10),@p3 nvarchar(2),@p4 nvarchar(5),@p5 datetime,@p6 int',@p0=N'6789 Somewhere Rd.',@p1=NULL,@p2=N'Hot Coffee',@p3=N'MS',@p4=N'09876',@p5='2010-05-13 00:00:00',@p6=1001 Notice the @p1 parameter is being set to nvarchar(4000) and being passed a NULL value. Why is it setting the parameter to nvarchar(4000)? How can I fix it? Thanks!

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  • in C# sharp, how you pronounce 'T?'

    - by plinth
    How do you pronounce 'bool?', 'int?' and their ilk? I've been mulling over options like "nullable of T", "T hook", "T huh", "T what" and "T" with a rising inflection. I'm not particularly satisfied with these as they seem either cumbersome or affected or both.

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  • LINQ 2 Entities , howto check DateTime.HasValue within the linq query

    - by Snoop Dogg
    Hi all ... I have this method that is supposed to get the latest messages posted, from the Table (& EntitySet) called ENTRY ///method gets "days" as parameter, used in new TimeSpan(days,0,0,0);!! using (Entities db = new Entities()) { var entries = from ent in db.ENTRY where ent.DATECREATE.Value > DateTime.Today.Subtract(new TimeSpan(days, 0, 0, 0)) select new ForumEntryGridView() { id = ent.id, baslik = ent.header, tarih = ent.entrydate.Value, membername = ent.Member.ToString() }; return entries.ToList<ForumEntryGridView>(); } Here the DATECREATED is Nullable in the database. I cant place "if"s in this query ... any way to check for that? Thx in advance

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  • Is it possible to create a generic Util Function to be used in Eval Page

    - by Nassign
    I am currently binding a Nullable bit column to a listview control. When you declare a list view item I need to handle the case when the null value is used instead of just true or false. <asp:Checkbox ID="Chk1" runat="server" Checked='<%# HandleNullableBool(Eval("IsUsed")) %>' /> Then in the page I add a HandleNullableBool() function inside the ASPX page. protected static bool HandleNullableBool(object value) { return (value == null) ? false : (bool)value; } This works fine but I need to use this in several pages so I tried creating a utility class with a static HandleNullableBool. But using it in the asp page does not work. Is there a way to do this in another class instead of the ASPX page? <asp:Checkbox ID="Chk1" runat="server" Checked='<%# Util.HandleNullableBool(Eval("IsUsed")) %>' />

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  • Overloading Controller Actions

    - by DaveDev
    Hi Guys I was a bit surprised a few minutes ago when I tried to overload an Action in one of my Controllers I had public ActionResult Get() { return PartialView(/*return all things*/); } I added public ActionResult Get(int id) { return PartialView(/*return 1 thing*/); } .... and all of a sudden neither were working I fixed the issue by making 'id' nullable and getting rid of the other two methods public ActionResult Get(int? id) { if (id.HasValue) return PartialView(/*return 1 thing*/); else return PartialView(/*return everything*/); } and it worked, but my code just got a little bit ugly! Any comments or suggestions? Do I have to live with this blemish on my Controllers? Thanks Dave

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  • How do I convert a System.Type to its nullable version?

    - by AlexDuggleby
    Once again one of those: "Is there an easier built-in way of doing things instead of my helper method?" So it's easy to get the underlying type from a nullable type, but how do I get the nullable version of a .NET type? So I have typeof(int) typeof(DateTime) System.Type t = something; and I want int? DateTime? or Nullable<int> (which is the same) if t is primitive then Nullable<T> else just T Any suggestions? (Is there something built in.) Thanks in advance.

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  • I need a groovy criteria to get all the elements after i make sort on nullable inner object

    - by user1773876
    I have two domain classes named IpPatient,Ward as shown below. class IpPatient { String ipRegNo Ward ward static constraints = { ward nullable:true ipRegNo nullable:false } } class Ward { String name; static constraints = { name nullable:true } } now i would like to create criteria like def criteria=IpPatient.createCriteria() return criteria.list(max:max , offset:offset) { order("ward.name","asc") createAlias('ward', 'ward', CriteriaSpecification.LEFT_JOIN) } At present IpPatient table has 13 records, where 8 records of IpPatient doesn't have ward because ward can be null. when i sort with wardName i am getting 5 records those contain ward. I need a criteria to get all the elements after i make sort on nullable inner object.

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  • Reverse mapping from a table to a model in SQLAlchemy

    - by Jace
    To provide an activity log in my SQLAlchemy-based app, I have a model like this: class ActivityLog(Base): __tablename__ = 'activitylog' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) activity_by_id = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('users.id'), nullable=False) activity_by = relation(User, primaryjoin=activity_by_id == User.id) activity_at = Column(DateTime, default=datetime.utcnow, nullable=False) activity_type = Column(SmallInteger, nullable=False) target_table = Column(Unicode(20), nullable=False) target_id = Column(Integer, nullable=False) target_title = Column(Unicode(255), nullable=False) The log contains entries for multiple tables, so I can't use ForeignKey relations. Log entries are made like this: doc = Document(name=u'mydoc', title=u'My Test Document', created_by=user, edited_by=user) session.add(doc) session.flush() # See note below log = ActivityLog(activity_by=user, activity_type=ACTIVITY_ADD, target_table=Document.__table__.name, target_id=doc.id, target_title=doc.title) session.add(log) This leaves me with three problems: I have to flush the session before my doc object gets an id. If I had used a ForeignKey column and a relation mapper, I could have simply called ActivityLog(target=doc) and let SQLAlchemy do the work. Is there any way to work around needing to flush by hand? The target_table parameter is too verbose. I suppose I could solve this with a target property setter in ActivityLog that automatically retrieves the table name and id from a given instance. Biggest of all, I'm not sure how to retrieve a model instance from the database. Given an ActivityLog instance log, calling self.session.query(log.target_table).get(log.target_id) does not work, as query() expects a model as parameter. One workaround appears to be to use polymorphism and derive all my models from a base model which ActivityLog recognises. Something like this: class Entity(Base): __tablename__ = 'entities' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) title = Column(Unicode(255), nullable=False) edited_at = Column(DateTime, onupdate=datetime.utcnow, nullable=False) entity_type = Column(Unicode(20), nullable=False) __mapper_args__ = {'polymorphic_on': entity_type} class Document(Entity): __tablename__ = 'documents' __mapper_args__ = {'polymorphic_identity': 'document'} body = Column(UnicodeText, nullable=False) class ActivityLog(Base): __tablename__ = 'activitylog' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) ... target_id = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('entities.id'), nullable=False) target = relation(Entity) If I do this, ActivityLog(...).target will give me a Document instance when it refers to a Document, but I'm not sure it's worth the overhead of having two tables for everything. Should I go ahead and do it this way?

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  • Many-to-Many Relationship mapping does not trigger the EventListener OnPostInsert or OnPostDelete Ev

    - by san
    I'm doing my auditing using the Events listeners that nHibernate provides. It works fine for all mappings apart from HasmanyToMany mapping. My Mappings are as such: Table("Order"); Id(x => x.Id, "OrderId"); Map(x => x.Name, "OrderName").Length(150).Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.Description, "OrderDescription").Length(800).Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.CreatedOn).Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.CreatedBy).Length(70).Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.UpdatedOn).Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.UpdatedBy).Length(70).Not.Nullable(); HasManyToMany(x => x.Products) .Table("OrderProduct") .ParentKeyColumn("OrderId") .ChildKeyColumn("ProductId") .Cascade.None() .Inverse() .AsSet(); Table("Product"); Id(x => x.Id, "ProductId"); Map(x => x.ProductName).Length(150).Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.ProductnDescription).Length(800).Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.Amount).Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.CreatedOn).Not.Nullable(); ; Map(x => x.CreatedBy).Length(70).Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.UpdatedOn).Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.UpdatedBy).Length(70).Not.Nullable(); HasManyToMany(x => x.Orders) .Table("OrderProduct") .ParentKeyColumn("ProductId") .ChildKeyColumn("OrderId") .Cascade.None() .AsSet(); Whenever I do an update of an order (Eg: Changed the Orderdescription and deleted one of the products associated with it) It works fine as in it updated the order table and deletes the row in the orderproduct table. the event listener that I have associated with it captures the update of the order table but does NOT capture the associated delete event when the orderproduct is deleted. This behaviour is observed only in case of a ManyTomany mapped relationships. Since I would also like audit the packageproduct deletion, its kind of an annoyance when the event listener aren't able to capture the delete event. Any information about it would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Why is this code invalid in C#?

    - by mmattax
    The following code will not compile: string foo = "bar"; Object o = foo == null ? DBNull.Value : foo; I get: Error 1 Type of conditional expression cannot be determined because there is no implicit conversion between 'System.DBNull' and 'string' To fix this, I must do something like this: string foo = "bar"; Object o = foo == null ? DBNull.Value : (Object)foo; This cast seems pointless as this is certainly legal: string foo = "bar"; Object o = foo == null ? "gork" : foo; It seems to me that when the ternary branches are of different types, the compiler will not autobox the values to the type object...but when they are of the same type then the autoboxing is automatic. In my mind the first statement should be legal... Can anyone describe why the compiler does not allow this and why the designers of C# chose to do this? I believe this is legal in Java...Though I have not verified this. Thanks. EDIT: I am asking for an understanding of why Java and C# handle this differently, what is going on underneath the scenes in C# that make this invalid. I know how to use ternary, and am not looking for a "better way" to code the examples. I understand the rules of ternary in C#, but I want to know WHY... EDIT (Jon Skeet): Removed "autoboxing" tag as no boxing is involved in this question.

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