Search Results

Search found 11336 results on 454 pages for 'property'.

Page 400/454 | < Previous Page | 396 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405 406 407  | Next Page >

  • a way to use log4j pass values like java -DmyEnvVar=A_VALUE to my code

    - by raticulin
    I need to pass some value to enable certain code in may app (in this case is to optionally enable writing some stats to a file in certain conditions, but it might be anything generally). My java app is installed as a service. So every way I have thought of has some drawbacks: Add another param to main(): cumbersome as customers already have the tool installed, and the command line would need to be changed every time. Adding java -DmyEnvVar=A_VALUE to my command line: same as above. Set an environment variable: service should at least be restarted, and even then you must take care of what user is the service running under etc. Adding the property in the config file: I prefer not to have this visible on the config file so the user does not see it, it is something for debugging etc. So I thought maybe there is some way (or hack) to use log4j loggers to pass that value to my code. I have thought of one way already, although is very limited: Add a dummy class to my codebase com.dummy.DevOptions public class DevOptions { public static final Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(DevOptions.class); In my code, use it like this: if (DevOptions.logger.isInfoEnabled()){ //do my optional stuff } //... if (DevOptions.logger.isDebugEnabled()){ //do other stuff } This allows me to use discriminate among various values, and I could increase the number by adding more loggers to DevOptions. But I wonder whether there is a cleaner way, possibly by configuring the loggers only in log4j.xml??

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 1:1 Relationship Identity Colums

    - by Hupperware
    I cannot for the life of me get two separate tables to save with a relationship and two identity columns. I keep getting errors like A dependent property in a ReferentialConstraint is mapped to a store-generated column. Column: 'OlsTerminalId'. I can't imagine that this setup is abnormal. [DataContract] public class OlsData { private static readonly DateTime theUnixEpoch = new DateTime(1970, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, DateTimeKind.Utc); [DatabaseGenerated(DatabaseGeneratedOption.Identity)] public int OlsDataId { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "id")] public int Id { get; set; } public DateTime Timestamp { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "created")] [NotMapped] public double Created { get { return (Timestamp - theUnixEpoch).TotalMilliseconds; } set { Timestamp = theUnixEpoch.AddMilliseconds(value); } } [InverseProperty("OlsData")] [DataMember(Name = "terminal")] public virtual OlsTerminal OlsTerminal { get; set; } } [DataContract] public class OlsTerminal { [DatabaseGenerated(DatabaseGeneratedOption.Identity)] public int OlsTerminalId { get; set; } public int OlsDataId { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "account")] [NotMapped] public virtual OlsAccount OlsAccount { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "terminalId")] public string TerminalId { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "merchantId")] public string MerchantId { get; set; } public virtual OlsData OlsData { get; set; } } public class OlsDataContext : DbContext { protected override void OnModelCreating(DbModelBuilder aModelBuilder) { aModelBuilder.Conventions.Remove<PluralizingTableNameConvention>(); } public OlsDataContext(string aConnectionString) : base(aConnectionString) {} public DbSet<OlsData> OlsData { get; set; } public DbSet<OlsTerminal> OlsTerminal { get; set; } public DbSet<OlsAccount> OlsAccount { get; set; } }

    Read the article

  • How do I refer to a windows form control by name (C# / VB)

    - by Alex
    Suppose I have a label control on a windows form called "UserName". How can I refer to that label programmatically using the label name? For example I can do: For each ctrl as Control in TabPage.Controls If ctrl.Name = "UserName" Then ' Do something End If Next This seems quite inefficient. I would like to do something like: TabPage.Controls("UserName").Text = "Something" I did some googling but couldn't find a satisfactory answer. Most suggested looping, some said .NET 2005 doesn't support direct refenece using string name, and FindControl method was asp.net only... EDIT Thanks for the response so far. Here is a bit more detail. I have a windows form with three tabpages, all of which a very similar in design and function i.e. same drop down menus, labels, react in simlar way to events etc. Rather than write code for each event per tabpage I have built a class that controls the events etc. per tabpage. For example, on each tabpage there is a Label called "RecordCounter" that simply shows the number of rows in the datagridview when it is populated by selection of a variable in a drop down menu. So what I want to be able to do is, upon selection of a variable in the drop down menu, the datagridview populates itself with data, and then I simply want to display the number of rows in a label ("RecordCounter"). This is exactly the same process on each tabpage so what I am doing is passing the tabpage to the class and then I want to be able to refer to the "RecordCounter" and then update it. In my class I set the ActivePage property to be the TabPage that the user has selected and then want to be able to do something like: ActivePage.RecordCounter.Text = GetNumberOfRows()

    Read the article

  • Why won't my Setup Project Perform my Custom Registration Process

    - by Jordan S
    I am trying to write an Setup Project/Installer for a class library driver that I wrote in C# using Visual Studio 2008. The driver project has a section of code that looks like this... [ComRegisterFunction] public static void RegisterASCOM(Type t) { Trace.WriteLine("Registration Started."); DoRegistration(true); } In the driver project Properties - "Assembly Information" I have set checked the box that says Make COM-Visible = true. I added a Setup Project to the solution in VS, added the output dll from the driver project so that it installs on the target machine and set the Register property of the dll to "vsdraCOM". So, my understanding is that when the installer runs it SHOULD execute the methods of the dll that are marked with [COMRegisterFunction]. Using SysInternals Debug View I can monitor when the above code snippet is hit by watching for the "Registration started" text to show up in the window. When I build the solution, I can see the text show up so I know the driver is registering properly. The problem is that when I run the installer, I don't think it is doing the registration bit. I see nothing show up in Debug View. And if i try to access my driver via another application I get an error saying it "Cannot create ActiveX object". Why does the registration not occur during the install process? The driver does register for COM but it does NOT call my custom registration method. Does anyone have and suggestions of what I could be missing? Is there another way I can debug this? (I can provide more code if anyone want's to take a look!!)

    Read the article

  • CSS "Cover" - No scroll bars?

    - by Lynda
    I am using the cover property to create a background image that fills the background and resizes with the browser. But I run into one issue, the page has a lot of content and no scroll bars appear for me to scroll down! Here is the code I am using: body{ background: url(path.jpg) no-repeat center center fixed; -webkit-background-size: cover; -moz-background-size: cover; -o-background-size: cover; /* Cover for IE 7/8 */ filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.AlphaImageLoader(src='path.jpg', sizingMethod='scale'); -ms-filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.AlphaImageLoader(src='path.jpg', sizingMethod='scale'); /* End Cover for IE 7/8 */ background-size: cover; background-color: transparent !important; position:fixed; top: 0; left: 0; width: 100%; height:100%; max-width:2500px; max-height:1500px; z-index:1; } If I remove position:fixed; I get the scroll bars back but the background image disappears. What is the best way to tackle this and have both scroll bars and the background cover image? Note: I am using jQuery and would use a JS answer if it works (though I prefer a CSS only answer.)

    Read the article

  • Problem with inheritance and List<>

    - by Jagd
    I have an abstract class called Grouping. I have a subclass called GroupingNNA. public class GroupingNNA : Grouping { // blah blah blah } I have a List that contains items of type GroupingNNA, but is actually declared to contain items of type Grouping. List<Grouping> lstGroupings = new List<Grouping>(); lstGroupings.Add( new GroupingNNA { fName = "Joe" }); lstGroupings.Add( new GroupingNNA { fName = "Jane" }); The Problem: The following LINQ query blows up on me because of the fact that lstGroupings is declared as List< Grouping and fName is a property of GroupingNNA, not Grouping. var results = from g in lstGroupings where r.fName == "Jane" select r; Oh, and this is a compiler error, not a runtime error. Thanks in advance for any help on this one! More Info: Here is the actual method that won't compile. The OfType() fixed the LINQ query, but the compiler doesn't like the fact that I'm trying to return the anonymous type as a List< Grouping. private List<Grouping> ApplyFilterSens(List<Grouping> lstGroupings, string fSens) { // This works now! Thanks @Lasse var filtered = from r in lstGroupings.OfType<GroupingNNA>() where r.QASensitivity == fSens select r; if (filtered != null) { **// Compiler doesn't like this now** return filtered.ToList<Grouping>(); } else return new List<Grouping>(); }

    Read the article

  • JSR-299 (CDI) configuration at runtime

    - by nsn
    I need to configure different @Alternatives, @Decorators and @Injectors for different runtime environments (think testing, staging and production servers). Right now I use maven to create three wars, and the only difference between those wars are in the beans.xml files. Is there a better way to do this? I do have @Alternative @Stereotypes for the different environments, but even then I need to alter beans.xml, and they don't work for @Decorators (or do they?) Is it somehow possible to instruct CDI to ignore the values in beans.xml and use a custom configuration source? Because then I could for example read a system property or other environment variable. The application exclusively runs in containers that use Weld, so a weld-specific solution would be ok. I already tried to google this but can't seem to find good search terms, and I asked the Weld-Users-Forums, but to no avail. Someone over there suggested to write my own custom extension, but I can't find any API to actually change the container configuration at runtime. I think it would be possible to have some sort of @ApplicationScoped configuration bean and inject that into all @Decorators which could then decide themselves whether they should be active or not and then in order to configure @Alternatives write @Produces methods for every interface with multiple implementations and inject the config bean there too. But this seems to me like a lot of unnecessary work to essentially duplicate functionality already present in CDI?

    Read the article

  • Grouping Categorized Data In WPF.

    - by VoidDweller
    Here is what I am trying to do. Dynamic Category: Columns can be 0 or more. Must contain 1 or more Type Columns. Will only be displayed if any row contains Type Column data associated with it. Data Rows: Will be added Asynchronously. Will be grouped by a Common Category column. Will add a Dynamic Category if it does not yet exist. Will add a Type Column if it does not yet exist within its appropriate Dynamic Category. Platform Info: WPF .Net 3.5 sp1 C# MVVM I have a few partially functional prototypes, but each has it's own major set of problems. Can any of you give me some guidance on this? Envision this nicely styled. :-) -------------------------------------------------------------------------- |[ Common Category ]|[ Dynamic Category 0 ]|[ Dynamic Category N ]| -------------------------------------------------------------------------- |[Header 1]|[Header 2]|[ Type 0 ]|[ Type N ]|[ Type 0 ]|[ Type N ]| -------------------------------------------------------------------------- |[Data 2 Group] | -------------------------------------------------------------------------- | Data A | Data 2 || Null | Data 1 || Data 0 | Data 1 || | Data B | Data 2 || Data 0 | Null || Data 0 | Data 1 || -------------------------------------------------------------------------- |[Data 1 Group] | -------------------------------------------------------------------------- | Data C | Data 1 || Null | Data 1 || Data 0 | Data 1 || | Data D | Data 1 || Null | Null || Data 0 | Null || -------------------------------------------------------------------------- Edit: Sorting and Paging is not necessary. I have looked at nested ListViews and DataGrids, dynamically building a Grid. Dynamically building a Grid and leveraging the SharedSizeGroup property seems the most promising strategy, but I am concerned about performance. Would a better approach be to consider this a dynamic report? If so, what should I be looking at? Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult 'the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) 'do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

    Read the article

  • User will input some filter criteria -- how can I turn it into a regular expression for String.match

    - by envinyater
    I have a program where the user will enter a string such as PropertyA = "abc_*" and I need to have the asterisk match any character. In my code, I'm grabbing the property value and replacing PropertyA with the actual value. For instance, it could be abc_123. I also pull out the equality symbol into a variable. It should be able to cover this type of criteria PropertyB = 'cba' PropertyC != '*-this' valueFromHeader is the lefthand side and value is the righthand side. if (equality.equals("=")) { result = valueFromHeader.matches(value); } else if (equality.equals("!=")) { result = !valueFromHeader.matches(value); } EDIT: The existing code had this type of replacement for regular expressions final String ESC = "\\$1"; final String NON_ALPHA = "([^A-Za-z0-9@])"; final String WILD = "*"; final String WILD_RE_TEMP = "@"; final String WILD_RE = ".*"; value = value.replace(WILD, WILD_RE_TEMP); value = value.replaceAll(NON_ALPHA,ESC); value = value.replace(WILD_RE_TEMP, WILD_RE); It doesn't like the underscore here... abcSite_123 != abcSite_123 (evaluates to true) abcSite_123$1.matches("abcSite$1123") It doesn't like the underscore...

    Read the article

  • Multiple generic types in one container

    - by Lirik
    I was looking at the answer of this question regarding multiple generic types in one container and I can't really get it to work: the properties of the Metadata class are not visible, since the abstract class doesn't have them. Here is a slightly modified version of the code in the original question: public abstract class Metadata { } public class Metadata<T> : Metadata { // ... some other meta data public T Function{ get; set; } } List<Metadata> metadataObjects; metadataObjects.Add(new Metadata<Func<double,double>>()); metadataObjects.Add(new Metadata<Func<int,double>>()); metadataObjects.Add(new Metadata<Func<double,int>>()); foreach( Metadata md in metadataObjects) { var tmp = md.Function; // <-- Error: does not contain a definition for Function } The exact error is: error CS1061: 'Metadata' does not contain a definition for 'Function' and no extension method 'Function' accepting a first argument of type 'Metadata' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) I believe it's because the abstract class does not define the property Function, thus the whole effort is completely useless. Is there a way that we can get the properties?

    Read the article

  • SIFR, JAVASCRIPT & PHP - How to apply SIFR to dynamically loaded content.

    - by user311039
    Well here's the problem: I have a PHP index page which uses show/hide layers javascript. I am using the on menu.click function to show and hide content relevant to each menu. On.click all divs are hidden except the content for that menu item , which fades in. The content relating to each menu item are displayed within separate DIVS. The property is applied to all the text within all the divs. See: http://jobe-group.com/jobeco/uk/2010live/dynamic/content/index.php# The trouble is that SIFR only appears to be applied to the displayed on.load when the page is first loaded. When this is hidden and the other s shown through the "show" function they load in classic CSS fonts without the SIFR applied. Is this unavoidable with the SIFR setup. Or am I not calling the divs properly. I have set the SIFR to apply to the selector and indeed it works fine on the for the displayed on load. It doesn't work for the within other . In theory I would think its possible to load the SIFR on all divs on page.load even if those divs are presently visibility:hidden. What's the verdict on this? Hope someone can help. Cheers, John

    Read the article

  • Using block around a static/singleton resource reference

    - by byte
    This is interesting (to me anyway), and I'd like to see if anyone has a good answer and explanation for this behavior. Say you have a singleton database object (or static database object), and you have it stored in a class Foo. public class Foo { public static SqlConnection DBConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BAR"].ConnectionString); } Then, lets say that you are cognizant of the usefulness of calling and disposing your connection (pretend for this example that its a one-time use for purposes of illustration). So you decide to use a 'using' block to take care of the Dispose() call. using (SqlConnection conn = Foo.DBConn) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "SP_YOUR_PROC"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } conn.Close(); } This fails, with an error stating that the "ConnectionString property is not initialized". It's not an issue with pulling the connection string from the app.config/web.config. When you investigate in a debug session you see that Foo.DBConn is not null, but contains empty properties. Why is this?

    Read the article

  • Are TestContext.Properties usable ?

    - by DBJDBJ
    Using Visual Studio generate Test Unit class. Then comment in, the class initialization method. Inside it add your property, using the testContext argument. Upon test app startup this method is indeed called by the testing infrastructure. //Use ClassInitialize to run code before running the first test in the class [ClassInitialize()] public static void MyClassInitialize(TestContext testContext) { /* * Any user defined testContext.Properties * added here will be erased after this method exits */ testContext.Properties.Add("key", 1 ) ; // place the break point here } After leaving MyClassInitialize, any properties added by user are lost. Only the 10 "official" ones are left. Actually TestContext gets overwritten, with the inital offical one, each time before each test method is called. It it not overwritten only if user has test initialization method, the changes made over there are passed to the test. //Use TestInitialize to run code before running each test [TestInitialize()]public void MyTestInitialize(){ this.TestContext.Properties.Add("this is preserved",1) ; } This effectively means TestContext.Properties is "mostly" read only, for users. Which is not clearly documented in MSDN. It seems to me this is very messy design+implementation. Why having TestContext.Properties as an collection, at all ? Users can do many other solutions to have class wide initialization. Please discuss. --DBJ

    Read the article

  • problem linking vba modules in MS Access 2007

    - by Ted
    I am upgrading a database system from Access 2000 db to Access 2007, which communicates with several chemistry measuring devices(pH meter, scale, etc) via an RS 232 serial port. The first db consists of several modules containing vba code that enables the communications with the ports, as well as supports the code behind the forms in the second db. The user, or lab tech, navigates through the forms in the second db to interact with the lab devices, and also to generate the reports which display the info. from the devices. The reports are also part of the second db. The code works in Access 2000, but once I convert it to 2007, the code in the second db cannot find the function calls in the first db that dictate the progression from screen to screen. I have tried importing the modules into the second db, and I have tried linking them, but it still doesn't work. The error message is #438: "Object doesn't support this property or method." Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Here is the code for the first function that is not being called correctly: Description: ' This routine is used to return to the calling form and close the active form. ' ' Input: ' strFormCalled --- the active form ' strCallingForm --- the form that called the active form ' blnUnhideOrOpen --- whether to open or just unhide form Public Sub basReturnToCallingForm(ByVal strFormCalled As String, ByVal _ strCallingForm As Variant, Optional blnUnhideOrOpen As Boolean = True) On Error GoTo err_basReturnToCaliingForm If Not basIsBlankString(strCallingForm) And blnUnhideOrOpen Then DoCmd.OpenForm strCallingForm, acNormal Else Call basUnHideForm(strCallingForm) End If Call basCloseForm(strFormCalled) exit_basReturnToCaliingForm: Exit Sub err_basReturnToCaliingForm: Err.Raise Err.Number, "basReturnToCaliingForm", Err.Description End Sub I will post the second function shortly, but I have to go to a meeting... The second funtion that isn't 'working' is a cmdStartClick that is supposed to be called when a user initializes a pump. However, within that function, it's also sticking on a line that is supposed to progress to the next form in the db. The other thing is that the code works in Access 2002, but not in Access 2007...

    Read the article

  • Navigation Controller not Pushing/Popping View Controllers

    - by senfo
    I'm working on a view-based iPhone app that has the following flow: search - (list | map) - details To accomplish the transitions between views, I have a UINavigationController, with the search view controller being the root. After a user performs a search, I transition to a view with a segmented control, which acts as a tab to switch between the list and map functionality (per a suggestion from a related question I had). This view contains a UIViewController, which allows me to switch between the list/map view when a user taps the segmented control. I'm fine up until this point. As you can see from the above mentioned flow, I would like to provide the ability to transition into a details view. Each row of my table in the list view contains a details disclosure button for allowing the user to drill down into a details view. The problem is, when I try to push the details view onto the navigation stack, nothing happens. Below is the delegate method (from my list view controller) to handle the details disclosure button being tapped. I've set up break points, so I know the code is running. The navigation controller simply doesn't want to push the detailsController onto the stack (my guess is that I don't have a pointer to the correct UINavigationController). - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView accessoryButtonTappedForRowWithIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (detailController == nil) { detailController = [[DetailsViewController alloc] init]; } [self.navigationController pushViewController:detailController animated:YES]; } Assuming I was probably missing a pointer to the navigation controller, I exposed a UINavigation property on my list and map views (navigationController is readonly) and initialized them with a pointer to the navigation controller from my SwitchViewController (the view responsible for switching between list/map views when a user changes the value of the segmented control). Unfortunately, this did not solve the problem. Am I on the right track? If so, how do I see to it that my view has a pointer to the correct navigation controller? Should I add a delegate, which allows me to call a function in the SwitchViewController that transitions into the details view (this seems messy)?

    Read the article

  • Detecting when a cell's detail-disclosure button has been clicked (when using a custom cell XIB)

    - by Gloria
    1 if (cell == nil) 2 { 3 [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"TVCell" owner:self options:nil]; 4 cell = tvCell; 5 self.tvCell = nil; 6 } There's some code from an Apple example of using your own "custom cell XIB" to create cells in a UITableView. It appears to work... but I think I would do better to actually UNDERSTAND what is being done there. Why isn't line #3 assigning the value TO something? cell = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"TVCell" owner:self options:nil]; (In fact, cell and tvCell aren't being used at all.) Why is line #4 assigning using tvCell when nothing has been put it in at all, yet? Why is line #5 nulling out the tvCell that I need? Why is "@property (nonatomic, assign) IBOutlet UITableViewCell *tvCell;" using assign, not retain? About the only thing I can't get working correctly is when I put a disclosure-button on my custom cell XIB. Is there a way for me to detect when the user has clicked on it? (Hopefully, without using 100s of TAGs.)

    Read the article

  • Problem with derived ControlTemplates in WPF

    - by Frank Fella
    The following xaml code works: <Window x:Class="DerivedTemplateBug.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:DerivedTemplateBug" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Button> <Button.Template> <ControlTemplate> <Border BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="2"> <TextBlock>Testing!</TextBlock> </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Button.Template> </Button> </Window> Now, if you define the following data template: using System.Windows.Controls; namespace DerivedTemplateBug { public class DerivedTemplate : ControlTemplate { } } And then swap the ControlTemplate for the derived class: <Window x:Class="DerivedTemplateBug.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:DerivedTemplateBug" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Button> <Button.Template> <local:DerivedTemplate> <Border BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="2"> <TextBlock>Testing!</TextBlock> </Border> </local:DerivedTemplate> </Button.Template> </Button> </Window> You get the following error: Invalid ContentPropertyAttribute on type 'DerivedTemplateBug.DerivedTemplate', property 'Content' not found. Can anyone tell me why this is the case?

    Read the article

  • What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

    - by Curtis White
    This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

    Read the article

  • My UL child label elements disappear in IE on accordion menu opening

    - by Scott B
    I've got an app that's working pretty flawlessly in Chrome and FF, however, when I view it in IE, all is well until I click on a header element to activate it (jQuery accordion). What happens then is that I see a brief flash where the content is there, then suddenly the entire left column disappears. This column is generated by a floated label element with a class of ".left" as seen below... <ul class="menu collapsible"> <li class='expand sectionTitle'><a href='#'>General Settings</a> <ul class='acitem'> <li class="section"> <label class="left">This item if floated left with a defined width of 190px via css. This is the item that's disappearing after a brief display</label> <input class="input" value="input element here" /> <label class="description">This element has a margin-left:212px; set via css in order to be positioned to the right of the label element as if in an adjacent table cell. When I add a max-width property to this element, it disappears in IE too!</label> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> As you can see from the comments in the code above (for the two label elements) the description label disappears once I set a max-width on it. It shows up fine otherwise.

    Read the article

  • After calling a COM-dll component, C# exceptions are not caught by the debugger

    - by shlomil
    I'm using a COM dll provided to me by 3rd-party software company (I don't have the source code). I do know for sure they used Java to implement it because their objects contain property names like 'JvmVersion'. After I instantiated an object introduced by the provided COM dll, all exceptions in my C# program cannot be caught by the VS debugger and every time an exception occurs I get the default Windows Debugger Selection dialog (And that's while executing my program in debug mode under a full VisualStudio debugging environment). To illustrate: throw new Exception("exception 1"); m_moo = new moo(); // Component taken from the COM-dll throw new Exception("exception 2"); Exception 1 will be caught by VS and show the "yellow exception window". Exception 2 will open a dialog titled "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger" containing the text "An unhandled win32 exception occurred in myfile.vshost.exe[1348]." followed by a list of the existing VS instances on my system to select from. I guess the instantiation of "moo" object overrides C#'s exception handler or something like that. Am I correct and is there a way to preserve C#'s exception handler?

    Read the article

  • Formatting the output of a custom tool so I can double click an error in Visual Studio and the file opens

    - by Ben Scott
    I've written a command line tool that preprocesses a number of files then compiles them using CodeDom. The tool writes a copyright notice and some progress text to the standard output, then writes any errors from the compilation step using the following format: foreach (var err in results.Errors) { // err is CompilerError var filename = "Path\To\input_file.xprt"; Console.WriteLine(string.Format( "{0} ({1},{2}): {3}{4} ({5})", filename, err.Line, err.Column, err.IsWarning ? "" : "ERROR: ", err.ErrorText, err.ErrorNumber)); } It then writes the number of errors, like "14 errors". This is an example of how the error appears in the console: Path\To\input_file.xrpt (73,28): ERROR: An object reference is required for the non-static field, method, or property 'Some.Object.get' (CS0120) When I run this as a custom tool in VS2008 (by calling it in the post-build event command line of one of my project's assemblies), the errors appear nicely formatted in the Error List, with the correct text in each column. When I roll over the filename the fully qualified path pops up. The line and column are different to the source file because of the preprocessing which is fine. The only thing that stands out is that the Project given in the list is the one that has the post-build event. The problem is that when I double click an error, nothing happens. I would have expected the file to open in the editor. I'm vaugely aware of the Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.Interop namespace but I think it should be possible just by writing to the standard output.

    Read the article

  • How to detect what allowed character in current Regular Expression by using JavaScript?

    - by Soul_Master
    In my web application, I create some framework that use to bind model data to control on page. Each model property has some rule like string length, not null and regular expression. Before submit page, framework validate any binded control with defined rules. So, I want to detect what character that is allowed in each regular expression rule like the following example. "^[0-9]$" allow only digit characters like 1, 2, 3. "^[a-zA-Z_][a-zA-Z_-0-9]+$" allow only a-z, - and _ characters However, this function should not care about grouping, positioning of allowed character. It just tells about possible characters only. By the way, complex regular expression like find two words near(\bword1\W+(?:\w+\W+){1,6}?word2\b) must be ignore to verify and it should return any characters is possible. Do you have any idea for creating this function? PS. I know it easy to create specified function like numeric only for allowing only digit characters. But I need share/reuse same piece of code both data tier(contains all model validator) and UI tier without modify anything. Thanks

    Read the article

  • What are the best practices for unit testing properties with code in the setter?

    - by nportelli
    I'm fairly new to unit testing and we are actually attempting to use it on a project. There is a property like this. public TimeSpan CountDown { get { return _countDown; } set { long fraction = value.Ticks % 10000000; value -= TimeSpan.FromTicks(fraction); if(fraction > 5000000) value += TimeSpan.FromSeconds(1); if(_countDown != value) { _countDown = value; NotifyChanged("CountDown"); } } } My test looks like this. [TestMethod] public void CountDownTest_GetSet_PropChangedShouldFire() { ManualRafflePresenter target = new ManualRafflePresenter(); bool fired = false; string name = null; target.PropertyChanged += new PropertyChangedEventHandler((o, a) => { fired = true; name = a.PropertyName; }); TimeSpan expected = new TimeSpan(0, 1, 25); TimeSpan actual; target.CountDown = expected; actual = target.CountDown; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.IsTrue(fired); Assert.AreEqual("CountDown", name); } The question is how do I test the code in the setter? Do I break it out into a method? If I do it would probably be private since no one else needs to use this. But they say not to test private methods. Do make a class if this is the only case? would two uses of this code make a class worthwhile? What is wrong with this code from a design standpoint. What is correct?

    Read the article

  • Ant: simplest way to copy over a relative list of files

    - by Derek Illchuk
    Using Ant, I want to copy a list of files from one project to another, where each project has the same directory structure. Is there a way to get the following to work? <project name="WordSlug" default="pull" basedir="."> <description> WordSlug: pull needed files </description> <property name="prontiso_home" location="../../prontiso/trunk"/> <!-- I know this doesn't work, what's the missing piece? --> <target name="pull" description="Pull needed files"> <copy todir="." overwrite="true"> <resources> <file file="${prontiso_home}/application/views/scripts/error/error.phtml"/> <file file="${prontiso_home}/application/controllers/CacheController.php"/> <!-- etc. --> </resources> </copy> </target> </project> Success is deriving the paths automatically: ${prontiso_home}/application/views/scripts/error/error.phtml copied to ./application/views/scripts/error/error.phtml ${prontiso_home}/application/controllers/CacheController.php copied to ./application/controllers/CacheController.php Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 396 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405 406 407  | Next Page >