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  • How can i Execute a Controller's ActionMethod programatically?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to execute a controller's Action Method programatically and I'm not sure how. Scenario: When my ControllerFactory fails to find the controller, I wish it to manually execute a single action method which i have on a simple, custom controller. I don't want to rely on using any route data to determine the controller/method .. because that route might not have been wired up. Eg. // NOTE: Error handling removed from this example. public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; // Try and load the controller, based on the controllerType argument. // ... snip // Did we retrieve a controller? if (controller == null) { result = new MyCustomController(); ((MyCustomController)result).Execute404NotFound(); // <-- HERE! } return result; } } .. and that method is .. public static void Execute404NotFound(this Controller controller) { result = new 404NotFound(); // Setup any ViewData.Model stuff. result.ExecuteResult(controller.ControllerContext); // <-- RUNTIME // ERROR's HERE } Now, when I run the controller factory fails to find a controller, i then manually create my own basic controller. I then call the extension method 'Execute404NotFound' on this controller instance. That's fine .. until it runs the ExecuteResult(..) method. Why? the controller has no ControllerContext data. As such, the ExecuteResult crashes because it requires some ControllerContext. So - can someone out there help me? see what I'm doing wrong. Remember - i'm trying to get my controller factory to manually / programmatically call a method on a controller which of course would return an ActionResult. Please help!

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  • Using Build Manager Class to Load ASPX Files and Populate its Controls

    - by Sandhurst
    I am using BuildManager Class to Load a dynamically generated ASPX File, please note that it does not have a corresponding .cs file. Using Following code I am able to load the aspx file, I am even able to loop through the control collection of the dynamically created aspx file, but when I am assigning values to controls they are not showing it up. for example if I am binding the value "Dummy" to TextBox control of the aspx page, the textbox remains empty. Here's the code that I am using protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { LoadPage("~/Demo.aspx"); } public static void LoadPage(string pagePath) { // get the compiled type of referenced path Type type = BuildManager.GetCompiledType(pagePath); // if type is null, could not determine page type if (type == null) throw new ApplicationException("Page " + pagePath + " not found"); // cast page object (could also cast an interface instance as well) // in this example, ASP220Page is a custom base page System.Web.UI.Page pageView = (System.Web.UI.Page)Activator.CreateInstance(type); // call page title pageView.Title = "Dynamically loaded page..."; // call custom property of ASP220Page //pageView.InternalControls.Add( // new LiteralControl("Served dynamically...")); // process the request with updated object ((IHttpHandler)pageView).ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); LoadDataInDynamicPage(pageView); } private static void LoadDataInDynamicPage(Page prvPage) { foreach (Control ctrl in prvPage.Controls) { //Find Form Control if (ctrl.ID != null) { if (ctrl.ID.Equals("form1")) { AllFormsClass cls = new AllFormsClass(); DataSet ds = cls.GetConditionalData("1"); foreach (Control ctr in ctrl.Controls) { if (ctr is TextBox) { if (ctr.ID.Contains("_M")) { TextBox drpControl = (TextBox)ctr; drpControl.Text = ds.Tables[0].Rows[0][ctr.ID].ToString(); } else if (ctr.ID.Contains("_O")) { TextBox drpControl = (TextBox)ctr; drpControl.Text = ds.Tables[1].Rows[0][ctr.ID].ToString(); } } } } } } }

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  • How can I improve this design?

    - by klausbyskov
    Let's assume that our system can perform actions, and that an action requires some parameters to do its work. I have defined the following base class for all actions (simplified for your reading pleasure): public abstract class BaseBusinessAction<TActionParameters> : where TActionParameters : IActionParameters { protected BaseBusinessAction(TActionParameters actionParameters) { if (actionParameters == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("actionParameters"); this.Parameters = actionParameters; if (!ParametersAreValid()) throw new ArgumentException("Valid parameters must be supplied", "actionParameters"); } protected TActionParameters Parameters { get; private set; } protected abstract bool ParametersAreValid(); public void CommonMethod() { ... } } Only a concrete implementation of BaseBusinessAction knows how to validate that the parameters passed to it are valid, and therefore the ParametersAreValid is an abstract function. However, I want the base class constructor to enforce that the parameters passed are always valid, so I've added a call to ParametersAreValid to the constructor and I throw an exception when the function returns false. So far so good, right? Well, no. Code analysis is telling me to "not call overridable methods in constructors" which actually makes a lot of sense because when the base class's constructor is called the child class's constructor has not yet been called, and therefore the ParametersAreValid method may not have access to some critical member variable that the child class's constructor would set. So the question is this: How do I improve this design? Do I add a Func<bool, TActionParameters> parameter to the base class constructor? If I did: public class MyAction<MyParameters> { public MyAction(MyParameters actionParameters, bool something) : base(actionParameters, ValidateIt) { this.something = something; } private bool something; public static bool ValidateIt() { return something; } } This would work because ValidateIt is static, but I don't know... Is there a better way? Comments are very welcome.

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  • Restrict access to connection pool in Weblogic?

    - by Andrew White
    In short, how can I restrict access to connection pool X based on application name or JAR name? A simple use case might help... A business web-app (call it WEB_APP_A) uses pool Y to do basic look-up SQL. Some users of this web-app have access to also update some sensitive data in the database. This code is provided by a JAR file (call it HR_JAR) that can be dropped in where needed. This JAR uses pool X for all of it's connections. We don't want developers of WEB_APP_A using pool X. We only want HR_JAR using pool X. This is to keep devs of WEB_APP_A from accidentally or intentionally abusing the access pool X provides. Some considerations: This is legacy code so HR_JAR is here to stay We are running on Weblogic 9.2 We can not keep passwords in any from in the source code We have researched weblogic user level authn/authz for JDBC resources but then this begs the question; how do we secure the user creds we use to become a user per app/jar? Ideas? Thoughts? I can elaborate more on what I have tried, but I wanted fresh ideas.

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  • How can I use ToUnicode without breaking dead key support?

    - by Cypherjb
    A similar question has already been asked, so I'm not going to waste time re-explaining it, an existing discussion can be found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1964614/toascii-tounicode-in-a-keyboard-hook-destroys-dead-keys The reason I'm posting a new question however is that I seem to have come across a 'solution', but I'm not quite sure how to implement it. This blog post seems to propose a solution to the problem of ToUnicode killing dead-key support: http://blogs.msdn.com/michkap/archive/2005/01/19/355870.aspx However I'm not sure how to implement the suggested solution. A push in the right direction would be greatly appreciated. To be clear, the part I'm referring to is this: "There are two ways to work around this: 1) You can keep calling ToUnicode with the same info until it is cleared out and then call it one more time to put the state back where it was if you had never typed anything, or 2) You can load all of the keyboard info ahead of time and then when they type information you can look up in your own info cache what the keystrokes mean, without having to call APIs later." I'm not quite sure how to do either of those things (keyboards and internationalization are far from my strong point), so any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • How do you clear a CustomValidator Error on a Button click event?

    - by George
    I have a composite User control for entering dates: The CustomValidator will include server sided validation code. I would like the error message to be cleared via client sided script if the user alters teh date value in any way. To do this, I included the following code to hook up the two drop downs and the year text box to the validation control: <script type="text/javascript"> ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlMonth.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlDate.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= txtYear.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); </script> However, I would also like the Validation error to be cleared when the user clicks the clear button. When the user clicks the Clear button, the other 3 controls are reset. To avoid a Post back, the Clear button is a regular HTML button with an OnClick event that resets the 3 controls. Unfortunately, the ValidatorHookupControlID method does not seem to work on HTML controls, so I thought to change the HTML Button to an ASP button and to Hookup to that control instead. However, I cannot seem to eliminate the Postback functionality associated by default with the ASP button control. I tried to set the UseSubmitBehavior to False, but it still submits. I tried to return false in my btnClear_OnClick client code, but the code sent to the browser included a DoPostback call after my call. btnClear.Attributes.Add("onClick", "btnClear_OnClick();") Instead of adding OnClick code, I tried overwriting it, but the DoPostBack code was still included in the final code that was sent to the browser. What do I have to do to get the Clear button to clear the CustomValidator error when clicked and avoid a postback? btnClear.Attributes.Item("onClick") = "btnClear_OnClick();"

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  • What is the best way to automatically transpose a LilyPond source file into multiple keys?

    - by Michael Steele
    problem I'm using LilyPond to typeset sheet music for a church choir to perform. Depending on who is available on any given week, songs will be played in various keys. We have an amazing pianist who can play anything we throw at her and the guitarists will typically pencil in alternate chords, but I want to make things easier by having beautifully typeset sheet music available in any key we want. So say we're going to sing our ABCs. First I'll take whatever source transcriptions available and enter it into a LilyPond script: melody = \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } I want the ability to transpose this automatically, so if I want the whole thing in 'G' I wrap the song in a \transpose call like so: melody = \transpose c g \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } What I really want is to substitute something for the 'g' and generate the output for melody multiple times. Simple LilyPond variables don't seem to work here, and so far I've been unsuccessful in defining a scheme function to do this. What I've resorted to for the moment is taking the above file, call it twinkle.ly and turning it into an M4 script called twinkle.ly.m4, the contents of which look like this: melody = \transpose c _key \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } I then compile the while thing by executing the following line: > m4 -D _key=g twinkle.ly.m4 > twinkle_g.ly && lilypond twinkle_g.ly I've written a Makefile to do this for me, defining rules for every song I have and every key I'm interested in. question There's got to be a better way of going about this. Given that Lilypond supports embedded scheme, I would prefer to not use a macro preprocessed on it. Has anybody else come up with a solution to this same problem?

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  • Buttons OnClick Event not firing when it causes a textboxes onChange event to fire first

    - by user48408
    I have a few textboxes and button to save their values on a webpage. The onchange event of the textboxes fires some js which adds the changed text to a js array. The ok button when clicked flushes this to the database via a webservice. This works fine except when the onchange event is caused by clicking the ok button. In this scenario the onchange of the textboxes still fires but the onClick event of the button does not. Any ideas? textboxes look something like <input name="ctrlJPView$tbcTabContainer$Details$JP_Details_Address2Text" type="text" value="test" id="ctrlJPView_tbcTabContainer_Details_JP_Details_Address2Text" onchange="addSaveDetails('Jobs###' + document.getElementById('ctrlJPView_tbcTabContainer_Details_JP_Details_Address2Text').value + ');" style="font-size:8pt;Left:110px;Top:29px;Width:420px;Height:13px;Position:absolute;" /> My save button <input type="button" name="ctrlJPView$btnOk" value="OK" onclick="saveAmendments();refreshJobGrids();return false;__doPostBack('ctrlJPView$btnOk','')" id="ctrlJPView_btnOk" class="ControlText" style="width:60px;" /> UPDATE: I guess this comes down to one of two things. 1) Something is happening before the onClick of the button gets called to surpress that call such as an inadvertent return false; or 2) the onClick event isn't firing at all. Now I've rem'd out everything actually inside the functions that are being called beforehand but the problem persists. But if i remove the call altogether it works (???)

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  • Linq to SQL generates StackOverflowException in tight Insert loop

    - by ChrisW
    I'm parsing an XML file and inserting the rows into a table (and related tables) using LinqToSQL. I parse the XML file using LinqToXml into IEnumerable. Then, I create a foreach loop, where I build my LinqToSQL objects and call InsertOnSubmit and SubmitChanges at the end of each loop. Nothing special here. Usually, I make it through around 4,100 records before receiving a StackOverflowException from LinqToSql, right as I call SubmitChanges. It's not always on 4,100... sometimes it's 4102, sometimes, less, etc. I've tried inserting the records that generate the failure individually, but putting them in their own Xml file, but that inserts fine... so it's not the data. I'm running the whole process from an MVC2 app that is uploading the Xml file to the server. I've adjusted my WebRequest timeouts to appropriate values, and again, I'm not getting timeout errors, just StackOverflowExceptions. So is there some pattern that I should follow for times when I have to do many insertions into the database? I never encounter this exception on smaller Xml files, just larger ones.

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  • Why is it assumed that send may return with less than requested data transmitted on a blocking socke

    - by Ernelli
    The standard method to send data on a stream socket has always been to call send with a chunk of data to write, check the return value to see if all data was sent and then keep calling send again until the whole message has been accepted. For example this is a simple example of a common scheme: int send_all(int sock, unsigned char *buffer, int len) { int nsent; while(len 0) { nsent = send(sock, buffer, len, 0); if(nsent == -1) // error return -1; buffer += nsent; len -= nsent; } return 0; // ok, all data sent } Even the BSD manpage mentions that ...If no messages space is available at the socket to hold the message to be transmitted, then send() normally blocks... Which indicates that we should assume that send may return without sending all data. Now I find this rather broken but even W. Richard Stevens assumes this in his standard reference book about network programming, not in the beginning chapters, but the more advanced examples uses his own writen (write all data) function instead of calling write. Now I consider this still to be more or less broken, since if send is not able to transmit all data or accept the data in the underlying buffer and the socket is blocking, then send should block and return when the whole send request has been accepted. I mean, in the code example above, what will happen if send returns with less data sent is that it will be called right again with a new request. What has changed since last call? At max a few hundred CPU cycles have passed so the buffer is still full. If send now accepts the data why could'nt it accept it before? Otherwise we will end upp with an inefficient loop where we are trying to send data on a socket that cannot accept data and keep trying, or else? So it seems like the workaround, if needed, results in heavily inefficient code and in those circumstances blocking sockets should be avoided at all an non blocking sockets together with select should be used instead.

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  • What is the prefered or accepted method for testing proxy settings?

    - by Mike Webb
    I have a lot of trouble with the internet connectivity in the program I am working on and it all seems to spawn from some issue with the proxy settings. Most of the issues at this point are fixed, but the issue I am having now is that my method of testing the proxy settings makes some users wait for long periods of time. Here is what I do: System.Net.WebClient webClnt = new System.Net.WebClient(); webClnt.Proxy = proxy; webClnt.Credentials = proxy.Credentials; byte[] tempBytes; try { tempBytes = webClnt.DownloadData(url.Address); } catch { //Invalid proxy settings //Code to handle the exception goes here } This is the only way that I've found to test if the proxy settings are correct. I tried making a web service call to our web service, but no proxy settings are needed when making the call. It will work even if I have bogus proxy settings. The above method, though, has no timeout member that I can set that I can find and I use the DownloadData as opposed to the DownloadDataAsync because I need to wait til the method is done so that I can know if the settings are correct before continuing on in the program. Any suggestions on a better method or a work around for this method is appreciated. Mike

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  • Getting Argument Names In Ruby Reflection

    - by Joe Soul-bringer
    I would like to do some fairly heavy-duty reflection in the Ruby programming language. I would like to create a function which would return the names of the arguments of various calling functions higher up the call stack (just one higher would be enough but why stop there?). I could use Kernel.caller go to the file and parse the argument list but that would be ugly and unreliable. The function that I would like would work in the following way: module A def method1( tuti, fruity) foo end def method2(bim, bam, boom) foo end def foo print caller_args[1].join(",") #the "1" mean one step up the call stack end end A.method1 #prints "tuti,fruity" A.method2 #prints "bim, bam, boom" I would not mind using ParseTree or some similar tool for this task but looking at Parsetree, it is not obvious how to use it for this purpose. Creating a C extension like this is another possibility but it would be nice if someone had already done it for me. Edit2: I can see that I'll probably need some kind of C extension. I suppose that means my question is what combination of C extension would work most easily. I don't think caller+ParseTree would be enough by themselves. As far as why I would like to do this goes, rather than saying "automatic debugging", perhaps I should say that I would like to use this functionality to do automatic checking of the calling and return conditions of functions. Say def add x, y check_positive return x + y end Where check_positive would throw an exception if x and y weren't positive (obviously, there would be more to it than that but hopefully this gives enough motivation)

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  • allowDefinition='MachineToApplication'

    - by Jayesh
    Hi, I was working on a Silverlight + WCF application. One fine day when I opened the Website in Visual Studio 2008, it gave me an error "Error 99 It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS. D:\IVY\AdminWCFWorking\AdminWCFWorking\AdminWCF\AdminWCF.Web\Web.config 46" I have 3 folders in the application. Each having different functionalities. I could find that these folders are not configured as application and hence the Visual Studio Web Server is throwing this error. I also found a way out for this, which said that I need to right click on these folders and select properties and do something, but at first place, when I right click the folder, when in VS, I cannot find the properties link! Can anyone please help me on removing this error. Thank You

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  • Rails fields_for parameters for a has_many relation don't yield an Array in params

    - by user1289061
    I have a model Sensor with has_many and accepts_nested_attributes_for relationships to another model Watch. In a form to update a Sensor, I have something like the following <%= sensor_form.fields_for :watches do |watches_form| %> <%= watches_form.label :label %><br /> <%= watches_form.text_field :label %> <% end %> This is indended to allow editting of the already-created Watches belonging to a Sensor. This call spits form inputs as so: <input name="sensor[watches_attributes][0][label]" ... /> <input name="sensor[watches_attributes][0][id]" ... /> When this gets submitted, the params object in the Sensor controller gets an assoc like "sensor" => { "id"=>"1", "watches_attributes"=> { "0"=>{"id" => "1", "label" => "foo"}, "1"=>{"id" => "2", "label" => "bar"} } } For a has_many, accepts_nested_attributes_for update to work upon the @sensor.update_attributes call, it seems that that attributes key really must map to an Array. From what I've seen in the examples, the combination of has_many, accepts_nested_attributes_for, and sensor_form.fields_for should allow me to pass the resulting params object directly to @sensor.update_attributes and update each related object as intended. Instead the Sensor takes place, with no errors, but the Watch objects are not updated (since "watches_attributes" maps to a Hash instead of an Array?) Have I missed something?

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  • How to test if raising an event results in a method being called conditional on value of parameters

    - by MattC
    I'm trying to write a unit test that will raise an event on a mock object which my test class is bound to. What I'm keen to test though is that when my test class gets it's eventhandler called it should only call a method on certain values of the eventhandlers parameters. My test seems to pass even if I comment the code that calls ProcessPriceUpdate(price); I'm in VS2005 so no lambdas please :( So... public delegate void PriceUpdateEventHandler(decimal price); public interface IPriceInterface{ event PriceUpdateEventHandler PriceUpdate; } public class TestClass { IPriceInterface priceInterface = null; TestClass(IPriceInterface priceInterface) { this.priceInterface = priceInterface; } public void Init() { priceInterface.PriceUpdate += OnPriceUpdate; } public void OnPriceUpdate(decimal price) { if(price > 0) ProcessPriceUpdate(price); } public void ProcessPriceUpdate(decimal price) { //do something with price } } And my test so far :s public void PriceUpdateEvent() { MockRepository mock = new MockRepository(); IPriceInterface pi = mock.DynamicMock<IPriceInterface>(); TestClass test = new TestClass(pi); decimal prc = 1M; IEventRaiser raiser; using (mock.Record()) { pi.PriceUpdate += null; raiser = LastCall.IgnoreArguments().GetEventRaiser(); Expect.Call(delegate { test.ProcessPriceUpdate(prc); }).Repeat.Once(); } using (mock.Playback()) { test.Init(); raiser.Raise(prc); } }

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  • instantiate python object within a c function called via ctypes

    - by gwk
    My embedded Python 3.3 program segfaults when I instantiate python objects from a c function called by ctypes. After setting up the interpreter, I can successfully instantiate a python Int (as well as a custom c extension type) from c main: #import <Python/Python.h> #define LOGPY(x) \ { fprintf(stderr, "%s: ", #x); PyObject_Print((PyObject*)(x), stderr, 0); fputc('\n', stderr); } // c function to be called from python script via ctypes. void instantiate() { PyObject* instance = PyObject_CallObject((PyObject*)&PyLong_Type, NULL); LOGPY(instance); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Py_Initialize(); instantiate(); // works fine // run a script that calls instantiate() via ctypes. FILE* scriptFile = fopen("emb.py", "r"); if (!scriptFile) { fprintf(stderr, "ERROR: cannot open script file\n"); return 1; } PyRun_SimpleFileEx(scriptFile, scriptPath, 1); // close on completion return 0; } I then run a python script using PyRun_SimpleFileEx. It appears to run just fine, but when it calls instantiate() via ctypes, the program segfaults inside PyObject_CallObject: import ctypes as ct dy = ct.CDLL('./emb') dy.instantiate() # segfaults lldb output: instance: 0 Process 52068 stopped * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 Python`PyObject_Call + 69: -> 0x10000d3f5: movl 24(%rax), %edx 0x10000d3f8: incl %edx 0x10000d3fa: movl %edx, 24(%rax) 0x10000d3fd: leaq 2069148(%rip), %rax ; _Py_CheckRecursionLimit (lldb) bt * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 frame #1: 0x00000001000d5197 Python`PyEval_CallObjectWithKeywords + 87 frame #2: 0x0000000201100d8e emb`instantiate + 30 at emb.c:9 Why does the call to instantiate() fail from ctypes only? The function only crashes when it calls into the python lib, so perhaps some interpreter state is getting munged by the ctypes FFI call?

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  • Javascript: Whitespace Characters being Removed in Chrome (but not Firefox)

    - by Matrym
    Why would the below eliminate the whitespace around matched keyword text when replacing it with an anchor link? Note, this error only occurs in Chrome, and not firefox. For complete context, the file is located at: http://seox.org/lbp/lb-core.js To view the code in action (no errors found yet), the demo page is at http://seox.org/test.html. Copy/Pasting the first paragraph into a rich text editor (ie: dreamweaver, or gmail with rich text editor turned on) will reveal the problem, with words bunched together. Pasting it into a plain text editor will not. // Find page text (not in links) -> doxdesk.com function findPlainTextExceptInLinks(element, substring, callback) { for (var childi= element.childNodes.length; childi-->0;) { var child= element.childNodes[childi]; if (child.nodeType===1) { if (child.tagName.toLowerCase()!=='a') findPlainTextExceptInLinks(child, substring, callback); } else if (child.nodeType===3) { var index= child.data.length; while (true) { index= child.data.lastIndexOf(substring, index); if (index===-1 || limit.indexOf(substring.toLowerCase()) !== -1) break; // don't match an alphanumeric char var dontMatch =/\w/; if(child.nodeValue.charAt(index - 1).match(dontMatch) || child.nodeValue.charAt(index+keyword.length).match(dontMatch)) break; // alert(child.nodeValue.charAt(index+keyword.length + 1)); callback.call(window, child, index) } } } } // Linkup function, call with various type cases (below) function linkup(node, index) { node.splitText(index+keyword.length); var a= document.createElement('a'); a.href= linkUrl; a.appendChild(node.splitText(index)); node.parentNode.insertBefore(a, node.nextSibling); limit.push(keyword.toLowerCase()); // Add the keyword to memory urlMemory.push(linkUrl); // Add the url to memory } // lower case (already applied) findPlainTextExceptInLinks(lbp.vrs.holder, keyword, linkup); Thanks in advance for your help. I'm nearly ready to launch the script, and will gladly comment in kudos to you for your assistance.

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  • Overriding equals method without breaking symmetry in a class that has a primary key

    - by Kosta
    Hi, the answer to this question is probably "not possible", but let me ask regardless :) Assuming we have a very simple JAVA class that has a primary key, for example: class Person { String ssid; String name; String address; ... } Now, I want to store people in a collection, meaning I will have to override the equals method. Not a completely trivial matter, but on a bare basis I will have something along the lines of: @Override public boolean equals (Object other) { if(other==this) return true; if(!other.getClass().equals(this.getClass()) return false; Person otherPerson = (Person)other; if(this.ssid.equals(otherPerson.getSsid()) return true; } Excuse any obvious blunders, just typing this out of my head. Now, let's say later on in the application I have a ssid I obtained through user input. If I want to compare my ssid to a Person, I would have to call something like: String mySsid = getFromSomewhere(); Person myPerson = getFromSomewhere(); if(myPerson.equals(new Person(mySsid)) doSomething(); This means I have to create a convenience constructor to create a Person based on ssid (if I don't already have one), and it's also quite verbose. It would be much nicer to simply call myPerson.equals(mySsid) but if I added a string comparison to my Person equals class, that would break the symmetry property, since the String hasn't got a clue on how to compare itself to a Person. So finally, the big question, is there any way to enable this sort of "shorthand" comparisons using the overriden equals method, and without breaking the symmetry rule? Thanks for any thoughts on this!

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  • retrieve events where uid is the creator and application id is the admin - Facebook API

    - by Anup Parekh
    I would like to know if there is a Facebook API call to retrieve the events (eids) for all the events a user has created using my facebook connect application. The events are created using the following REST api call: https://api.facebook.com/method/events.create?event_info=' . $e_i . '&access_token=' . $cookie['access_token'] $e_i is the event info array where the 'host' value is set to 'Me' as follows $event_info['host'] = 'Me'; On Facebook events under the "Created by:" section it lists "My user name,Application Name", I presume this is because I am the creator and the application is the admin as stated in the REST api documentation http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/rest/events.create/ Unfortunately I cannot seem to find out how (neither REST nor GPRAPH API) to return a list of events where I am the creator and the application is the admin as in the above scenario. If this is possible I would really appreciate some assistance with how it is done. So far I have tried: REST API events.get using uid=application_id. This only returns events created by the application not those including the user who created them GRAPH API https://graph.facebook.com/me/events?fields=owner&access_token=... this returns all the events for 'me' but not where the application is also the admin. It seems strange that there's no reference to the linkage between the event creator and the event admin through the API but in Facebook it is able to pull both and display them on the event details.

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  • 406 Not Acceptable error when using Jquery $.post in Firefox but not in Safari or Chrome

    - by jlfenaux
    I'm using Jquery (1.3.2) $.post command to trigger an ajax call to a rails server. The code works great on Safari and on Google Chrome (mac), but when I tried it on Firefox (3.5.7), I got a weird '406 Not Acceptable' error. When I look at the headers, it Firefox indicated that it accepted only ' text/javascript' responses. And the response Content-Type was 'text/html; charset=utf-8'. In Chrome the accepted types were 'application/json, text/javascript, /, text/javascript' and the response Content-Type was 'application/json; charset=utf-8'. I tried to force the content type in rails to 'text/javascript' format.json do render :json => @races.to_json, :content_type => 'text/javascript' end The content type is indeed changed in Chrome, but not in Firefox where it remains 'text/html'. Here is the code I used to trigger the ajax call. $.post( "/locator", params, function(data){...}, "json" ); Is there something I can do to make this work in Firefox? Thanks

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  • Override ActiveRecord#save, Method Alias? Trying to mixin functionality into save method...

    - by viatropos
    Here's the situation: I have a User model, and two modules for authentication: Oauth and Openid. Both of them override ActiveRecord#save, and have a fair share of implementation logic. Given that I can tell when the user is trying to login via Oauth vs. Openid, but that both of them have overridden save, how do "finally" override save such that I can conditionally call one of the modules' implementations of it? Here is the base structure of what I'm describing: module UsesOauth def self.included(base) base.class_eval do def save puts "Saving with Oauth!" end def save_with_oauth save end end end end module UsesOpenid def self.included(base) base.class_eval do def save puts "Saving with OpenID!" end def save_with_openid save end end end end module Sequencer def save if using_oauth? save_with_oauth elsif using_openid? save_with_openid else super end end end class User < ActiveRecord::Base include UsesOauth include UsesOpenid include Sequencer end I was thinking about using alias_method like so, but that got too complicated, because I might have 1 or 2 more similar modules. I also tried using those save_with_oauth methods (shown above), which almost works. The only thing that's missing is that I also need to call ActiveRecord::Base#save (the super method), so something like this: def save_with_oauth # do this and that super.save # the rest end But I'm not allowed to do that in ruby. Any ideas for a clever solution to this?

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  • I can't get datepicker to work

    - by vikitor
    Hi, I need a field that displays the datepicker. I followed the example given by the JQuery UI documentation and haven't managed to get it to work. My html where I have my text field is: <div class="editor-field"> <input type = "text" name = "DatePublished" id = "Published" /> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("DatePublished" ,"*") %> </div> This HTML is in a partial view, lets call it pv.ascx, and it is called in the main page as a modal box: <div id = "ModalBox"> <% Html.RenderAction("pv", "Example"); %> </div> The thing is, that I try to call the datepicker creation anytime I enter the main page, and I do it in my javascript file app.js: $().ready(function() { var place = window.location.pathname; var placesplit = place.split("/"); //Depending on the location we are on, we execute different subroutines $('#Published').datepicker(); }); But nothing happens when I focus on the text field. What is wrong? Could it be that being called from a partial view it doesn't work? Thank you everyone, vikitor

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  • Windows Task Scheduler: IAction.QueryInterface() returns an error I cannot find a definition for

    - by Sascha
    Hello I am attempting to schedule a task (to open an .exe at a specific time) using C++ win32. But at one specific point I am getting an error, I have searched & searched to try & find the definition of this error but I cannot find it? Do you know what this error means: Hexadecimal: 80004003 Decimal: 2147500035 I wont post the whole function because its rather long (unless you may need it to determine the error context?). The code I am using (that causes the error) is the following: // QI for the executable task pointer. hr = action -> QueryInterface( IID_IExecAction, (void**) execAction ); action -> Release(); if( FAILED(hr) ) { printf("QueryInterface call failed for IExecAction: %x %X %u \n", hr, hr, hr ); rootFolder -> Release(); task -> Release(); CoUninitialize(); return false; } The output is: QueryInterface call failed for IExecAction: 80004003 80004003 2147500035

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  • How to Bind Data and manipulate it in a GridView with MVP

    - by DotNetDan
    I am new to the whole MVP thing and slowly getting my head around it all. The a problem I am having is how to stay consistent with the MVP methodology when populating GridViews (and ddls, but we will tackle that later). Is it okay to have it connected straight to an ObjectDataSourceID? To me this seems wrong because it bypasses all the separation of concerns MVP was made to do. So, with that said, how do I do it? How do I handle sorting (do I send over handler events to the presentation layer, if so how does that look in code)? Right now I have a GridView that has no sorting. Code below. ListCustomers.aspx.cs: public partial class ListCustomers : System.Web.UI.Page, IlistCustomer { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { //On every page load, create a new presenter object with //constructor recieving the // page's IlistCustomer view ListUserPresenter ListUser_P = new ListUserPresenter(this); //Call the presenter's PopulateList to bind data to gridview ListUser_P.PopulateList(); } GridView IlistCustomer.UserGridView { get { return gvUsers; } set { gvUsers = value; } } } Interface ( IlistCustomer.cs): is this bad sending in an entire Gridview control? public interface IlistCustomer { GridView UserGridView { set; get; } } The Presenter (ListUserPresenter.cs): public class ListUserPresenter { private IlistCustomer view_listCustomer; private GridView gvListCustomers; private DataTable objDT; public ListUserPresenter( IlistCustomer view) { //Handle an error if an Ilistcustomer was not sent in) if (view == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("ListCustomer View cannot be blank"); //Set local IlistCustomer interface view this.view_listCustomer = view; } public void PopulateList() { //Fill local Gridview with local IlistCustomer gvListCustomers = view_listCustomer.UserGridView; // Instantiate a new CustomerBusiness object to contact database CustomerBusiness CustomerBiz = new CustomerBusiness(); //Call CustomerBusiness's GetListCustomers to fill DataTable object objDT = CustomerBiz.GetListCustomers(); //Bind DataTable to gridview; gvListCustomers.DataSource = objDT; gvListCustomers.DataBind(); } }

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  • Can a destructor be recursive?

    - by Cubbi
    Is this program well-defined, and if not, why exactly? #include <iostream> #include <new> struct X { int cnt; X (int i) : cnt(i) {} ~X() { std::cout << "destructor called, cnt=" << cnt << std::endl; if ( cnt-- > 0 ) this->X::~X(); // explicit recursive call to dtor } }; int main() { char* buf = new char[sizeof(X)]; X* p = new(buf) X(7); p->X::~X(); // explicit call to dtor delete[] buf; } My reasoning: although invoking a destructor twice is undefined behavior, per 12.4/14, what it says exactly is this: the behavior is undefined if the destructor is invoked for an object whose lifetime has ended Which does not seem to prohibit recursive calls. While the destructor for an object is executing, the object's lifetime has not yet ended, thus it's not UB to invoke the destructor again. On the other hand, 12.4/6 says: After executing the body [...] a destructor for class X calls the destructors for X's direct members, the destructors for X's direct base classes [...] which means that after the return from a recursive invocation of a destructor, all member and base class destructors will have been called, and calling them again when returning to the previous level of recursion would be UB. Therefore, a class with no base and only POD members can have a recursive destructor without UB. Am I right?

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