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  • What is actually happening to this cancelled HTTP request?

    - by Brian Schroth
    When a user takes a particular action on a page, an AJAX call is made to save their data. Unfortunately, this call is synchronous as they need to wait to see if the data is valid before being allowed to continue. Obviously, this eliminates a lot of the benefit of using Asynchronous Javascript And XML, but that's a subject for another post. That's the design I'm working with. The request is made using the dojo.xhrPost function, with a 60s timeout parameter, and the error handler redirects to an error page. What I am finding in testing is that in Firefox, if I initiate the ajax request and then press ESC, the page hangs waiting for a response, and then eventually after exactly 90s (not 60s, the function's timeout), the error handler will kick in and redirect to the error page. I expected this to happen, but either immediately as soon as the request was cancelled, or after 60s due to the timeout value being 60s. What I don't understand is why is it 90s? What is actually happening under the hood when the user cancels their request in Firefox, and how does it differ from IE, where everything works fine exactly the same as if the request had not been cancelled? Is the 90s related to any user-configurable browser settings?

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  • log4js ConsoleAppender initialization

    - by perrierism
    I'm wondering if anyone happens to have some experience using Log4js? It seems its normal ConsoleAppender isn't always ready to use immediately after it's added to a logger object... If I have two sequential script tags in a document like: //Initialize logger <script type="text/javascript"> var logger = new Log4js.getLogger("JSLOG"); logger.addAppender(new Log4js.ConsoleAppender(logger, false)); logger.setLevel(Log4js.Level.INFO); </script> //Use logger <script type="text/javascript"> logger.info('Test test'); </script> ... It causes the console pop-up (pop-up window) to appear with an error message on page load: 12:58:23 PM WARN Log4js - Could not run the listener function () { return fn.apply(object, arguments); }. TypeError: this.outputElement is null The console is still initialised, it's there afterward, but for just that first logger call it doesn't seem to be there fully. If I make the first logger call setTimeout("logger.info('test test')", 1000), it doesn't have the error. So it's like it's not ready immediately. Anyone see this before or know what a workaround might be? Cheers

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  • What is the best way to automatically transpose a LilyPond source file into multiple keys?

    - by Michael Steele
    problem I'm using LilyPond to typeset sheet music for a church choir to perform. Depending on who is available on any given week, songs will be played in various keys. We have an amazing pianist who can play anything we throw at her and the guitarists will typically pencil in alternate chords, but I want to make things easier by having beautifully typeset sheet music available in any key we want. So say we're going to sing our ABCs. First I'll take whatever source transcriptions available and enter it into a LilyPond script: melody = \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } I want the ability to transpose this automatically, so if I want the whole thing in 'G' I wrap the song in a \transpose call like so: melody = \transpose c g \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } What I really want is to substitute something for the 'g' and generate the output for melody multiple times. Simple LilyPond variables don't seem to work here, and so far I've been unsuccessful in defining a scheme function to do this. What I've resorted to for the moment is taking the above file, call it twinkle.ly and turning it into an M4 script called twinkle.ly.m4, the contents of which look like this: melody = \transpose c _key \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } I then compile the while thing by executing the following line: > m4 -D _key=g twinkle.ly.m4 > twinkle_g.ly && lilypond twinkle_g.ly I've written a Makefile to do this for me, defining rules for every song I have and every key I'm interested in. question There's got to be a better way of going about this. Given that Lilypond supports embedded scheme, I would prefer to not use a macro preprocessed on it. Has anybody else come up with a solution to this same problem?

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  • Sample twitter application.

    - by Jack
    <?php function updateTwitter($status) { // Twitter login information $username = 'xxxxx'; $password = 'xxxxxx'; // The url of the update function $url = 'http://twitter.com/statuses/update.xml'; // Arguments we are posting to Twitter $postargs = 'status='.urlencode($status); // Will store the response we get from Twitter $responseInfo=array(); // Initialize CURL $ch = curl_init($url); // Tell CURL we are doing a POST curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); // Give CURL the arguments in the POST curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postargs); // Set the username and password in the CURL call curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERPWD, $username.':'.$password); // Set some cur flags (not too important) curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_NOBODY, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); // execute the CURL call $response = curl_exec($ch); // Get information about the response $responseInfo=curl_getinfo($ch); // Close the CURL connection curl_close($ch); // Make sure we received a response from Twitter if(intval($responseInfo['http_code'])==200){ // Display the response from Twitter echo $response; }else{ // Something went wrong echo "Error: " . $responseInfo['http_code']; } } updateTwitter("Just finished a sweet tutorial on http://brandontreb.com"); ?> I get the following output Error: 0 Please help.

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  • Why not lump all service classes into a Factory method (instead of injecting interfaces)?

    - by Andrew
    We are building an ASP.NET project, and encapsulating all of our business logic in service classes. Some is in the domain objects, but generally those are rather anemic (due to the ORM we are using, that won't change). To better enable unit testing, we define interfaces for each service and utilize D.I.. E.g. here are a couple of the interfaces: IEmployeeService IDepartmentService IOrderService ... All of the methods in these services are basically groups of tasks, and the classes contain no private member variables (other than references to the dependent services). Before we worried about Unit Testing, we'd just declare all these classes as static and have them call each other directly. Now we'll set up the class like this if the service depends on other services: public EmployeeService : IEmployeeService { private readonly IOrderService _orderSvc; private readonly IDepartmentService _deptSvc; private readonly IEmployeeRepository _empRep; public EmployeeService(IOrderService orderSvc , IDepartmentService deptSvc , IEmployeeRepository empRep) { _orderSvc = orderSvc; _deptSvc = deptSvc; _empRep = empRep; } //methods down here } This really isn't usually a problem, but I wonder why not set up a factory class that we pass around instead? i.e. public ServiceFactory { virtual IEmployeeService GetEmployeeService(); virtual IDepartmentService GetDepartmentService(); virtual IOrderService GetOrderService(); } Then instead of calling: _orderSvc.CalcOrderTotal(orderId) we'd call _svcFactory.GetOrderService.CalcOrderTotal(orderid) What's the downfall of this method? It's still testable, it still allows us to use D.I. (and handle external dependencies like database contexts and e-mail senders via D.I. within and outside the factory), and it eliminates a lot of D.I. setup and consolidates dependencies more. Thanks for your thoughts!

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  • retrieve events where uid is the creator and application id is the admin - Facebook API

    - by Anup Parekh
    I would like to know if there is a Facebook API call to retrieve the events (eids) for all the events a user has created using my facebook connect application. The events are created using the following REST api call: https://api.facebook.com/method/events.create?event_info=' . $e_i . '&access_token=' . $cookie['access_token'] $e_i is the event info array where the 'host' value is set to 'Me' as follows $event_info['host'] = 'Me'; On Facebook events under the "Created by:" section it lists "My user name,Application Name", I presume this is because I am the creator and the application is the admin as stated in the REST api documentation http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/rest/events.create/ Unfortunately I cannot seem to find out how (neither REST nor GPRAPH API) to return a list of events where I am the creator and the application is the admin as in the above scenario. If this is possible I would really appreciate some assistance with how it is done. So far I have tried: REST API events.get using uid=application_id. This only returns events created by the application not those including the user who created them GRAPH API https://graph.facebook.com/me/events?fields=owner&access_token=... this returns all the events for 'me' but not where the application is also the admin. It seems strange that there's no reference to the linkage between the event creator and the event admin through the API but in Facebook it is able to pull both and display them on the event details.

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  • How to define Module and use it in dojo with AMD?

    - by Devdatta Tengshe
    I am maintaining and extending an old project which was pre-AMD. I wish to add an Chart to the application. for this, I have created a js file as follows: define(["dojox/charting/Chart",...."dijit/Dialog","dojo/dom-construct"], function (Chart) { function showDailyChart(data){ //code to show the chart in a dialog } return customModules.singleChart; }); I have saved this file as /customModules/singleChart.js In My main HTML Page, I have added it to the packages as follows: var dojoConfig = { parseOnLoad: true, packages: [....,{"name":"customModules", "location":location.pathname.replace(/\/[^/]+$/, "")+"/modules" } ]}; The function from which I want to call it, is pre-AMD. So I am calling it as follows: dojo.require("customModules.singleChart"); . . . customModules.singleChart.showDailyChart(data); I can see that /customModules/singleChart.js is loaded in the Firebug console as well as Net Tab. However there is no customModules.singleChart object. Strangely enough there is no error either. I have tested this in Firebug, as well as Google Chrome's developer tools. What is the correct way to call an AMD Module using dojo.require? Or is there a better way to do what I need?

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  • How to structure an enterprise MVC app, and where does Business Logic go?

    - by James
    I am an MVC newbie. As far as I can tell: Controller: deals with routing requests View: deals with presentation of data Model: looks a whole lot like a Data Access layer Where does the Business Logic go? Take a large enterprise application with: Several different sources of data (WCF, WebServices and ADO) tied together in a data access layer (useing multiple different DTOs). A lot business logic segmented over several dlls. What is an appropriate way for an MVC web application to sit on top of this (in terms of code and project structure)? The example I have seen where everything just goes in the Model folder don't seem like they are appropriate for very large applications. Thanks for any advice!

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  • Ubuntu: pip not working with python3.4

    - by val_
    Trying to get pip working on my Ubuntu pc. pip seems to be working for python2.7, but not for others. Here's the problem: $ pip Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/local/bin/pip", line 9, in <module> load_entry_point('pip==1.4.1', 'console_scripts', 'pip')() File "/usr/local/lib/python3.4/dist-packages/setuptools-1.1.5-py3.4.egg /pkg_resources.py", line 357, in load_entry_point def get_entry_info(dist, group, name): File "/usr/local/lib/python3.4/dist-packages/setuptools-1.1.5-py3.4.egg/pkg_resources.py", line 2394, in load_entry_point break File "/usr/local/lib/python3.4/dist-packages/setuptools-1.1.5-py3.4.egg/pkg_resources.py", line 2108, in load name = some.module:some.attr [extra1,extra2] ImportError: No module named 'pip' $ which pip /usr/local/bin/pip $ python2.7 -m pip //here can be just python, btw Usage: /usr/bin/python2.7 -m pip <command> [options] //and so on... $ python3.4 -m pip /usr/bin/python3.4: No module named pip From the home/user/.pip/pip.log : Exception: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/pip/basecommand.py", line 122, in main status = self.run(options, args) File "/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/pip/commands/install.py", line 283, in run requirement_set.install(install_options, global_options, root=options.root_path) File "/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/pip/req.py", line 1431, in install requirement.uninstall(auto_confirm=True) File "/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/pip/req.py", line 598, in uninstall paths_to_remove.remove(auto_confirm) File "/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/pip/req.py", line 1836, in remove renames(path, new_path) File "/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/pip/util.py", line 295, in renames shutil.move(old, new) File "/usr/lib/python2.7/shutil.py", line 303, in move os.unlink(src) OSError: [Errno 13] Permission denied: '/usr/bin/pip' There's no /usr/bin/pip btw. How can I fix this issue to work with pip and python 3.4 normally? I am trying to use pycharm, but it's package manager also stucks in this problem. Thanks for attention!

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  • Overriding equals method without breaking symmetry in a class that has a primary key

    - by Kosta
    Hi, the answer to this question is probably "not possible", but let me ask regardless :) Assuming we have a very simple JAVA class that has a primary key, for example: class Person { String ssid; String name; String address; ... } Now, I want to store people in a collection, meaning I will have to override the equals method. Not a completely trivial matter, but on a bare basis I will have something along the lines of: @Override public boolean equals (Object other) { if(other==this) return true; if(!other.getClass().equals(this.getClass()) return false; Person otherPerson = (Person)other; if(this.ssid.equals(otherPerson.getSsid()) return true; } Excuse any obvious blunders, just typing this out of my head. Now, let's say later on in the application I have a ssid I obtained through user input. If I want to compare my ssid to a Person, I would have to call something like: String mySsid = getFromSomewhere(); Person myPerson = getFromSomewhere(); if(myPerson.equals(new Person(mySsid)) doSomething(); This means I have to create a convenience constructor to create a Person based on ssid (if I don't already have one), and it's also quite verbose. It would be much nicer to simply call myPerson.equals(mySsid) but if I added a string comparison to my Person equals class, that would break the symmetry property, since the String hasn't got a clue on how to compare itself to a Person. So finally, the big question, is there any way to enable this sort of "shorthand" comparisons using the overriden equals method, and without breaking the symmetry rule? Thanks for any thoughts on this!

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  • I can't get datepicker to work

    - by vikitor
    Hi, I need a field that displays the datepicker. I followed the example given by the JQuery UI documentation and haven't managed to get it to work. My html where I have my text field is: <div class="editor-field"> <input type = "text" name = "DatePublished" id = "Published" /> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("DatePublished" ,"*") %> </div> This HTML is in a partial view, lets call it pv.ascx, and it is called in the main page as a modal box: <div id = "ModalBox"> <% Html.RenderAction("pv", "Example"); %> </div> The thing is, that I try to call the datepicker creation anytime I enter the main page, and I do it in my javascript file app.js: $().ready(function() { var place = window.location.pathname; var placesplit = place.split("/"); //Depending on the location we are on, we execute different subroutines $('#Published').datepicker(); }); But nothing happens when I focus on the text field. What is wrong? Could it be that being called from a partial view it doesn't work? Thank you everyone, vikitor

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  • Restrict access to connection pool in Weblogic?

    - by Andrew White
    In short, how can I restrict access to connection pool X based on application name or JAR name? A simple use case might help... A business web-app (call it WEB_APP_A) uses pool Y to do basic look-up SQL. Some users of this web-app have access to also update some sensitive data in the database. This code is provided by a JAR file (call it HR_JAR) that can be dropped in where needed. This JAR uses pool X for all of it's connections. We don't want developers of WEB_APP_A using pool X. We only want HR_JAR using pool X. This is to keep devs of WEB_APP_A from accidentally or intentionally abusing the access pool X provides. Some considerations: This is legacy code so HR_JAR is here to stay We are running on Weblogic 9.2 We can not keep passwords in any from in the source code We have researched weblogic user level authn/authz for JDBC resources but then this begs the question; how do we secure the user creds we use to become a user per app/jar? Ideas? Thoughts? I can elaborate more on what I have tried, but I wanted fresh ideas.

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  • How to Bind Data and manipulate it in a GridView with MVP

    - by DotNetDan
    I am new to the whole MVP thing and slowly getting my head around it all. The a problem I am having is how to stay consistent with the MVP methodology when populating GridViews (and ddls, but we will tackle that later). Is it okay to have it connected straight to an ObjectDataSourceID? To me this seems wrong because it bypasses all the separation of concerns MVP was made to do. So, with that said, how do I do it? How do I handle sorting (do I send over handler events to the presentation layer, if so how does that look in code)? Right now I have a GridView that has no sorting. Code below. ListCustomers.aspx.cs: public partial class ListCustomers : System.Web.UI.Page, IlistCustomer { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { //On every page load, create a new presenter object with //constructor recieving the // page's IlistCustomer view ListUserPresenter ListUser_P = new ListUserPresenter(this); //Call the presenter's PopulateList to bind data to gridview ListUser_P.PopulateList(); } GridView IlistCustomer.UserGridView { get { return gvUsers; } set { gvUsers = value; } } } Interface ( IlistCustomer.cs): is this bad sending in an entire Gridview control? public interface IlistCustomer { GridView UserGridView { set; get; } } The Presenter (ListUserPresenter.cs): public class ListUserPresenter { private IlistCustomer view_listCustomer; private GridView gvListCustomers; private DataTable objDT; public ListUserPresenter( IlistCustomer view) { //Handle an error if an Ilistcustomer was not sent in) if (view == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("ListCustomer View cannot be blank"); //Set local IlistCustomer interface view this.view_listCustomer = view; } public void PopulateList() { //Fill local Gridview with local IlistCustomer gvListCustomers = view_listCustomer.UserGridView; // Instantiate a new CustomerBusiness object to contact database CustomerBusiness CustomerBiz = new CustomerBusiness(); //Call CustomerBusiness's GetListCustomers to fill DataTable object objDT = CustomerBiz.GetListCustomers(); //Bind DataTable to gridview; gvListCustomers.DataSource = objDT; gvListCustomers.DataBind(); } }

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  • Modifying UINavigation Bar Buttons in SubViews

    - by james
    I'm having trouble trying to modify the navigation bar in the subview portion of my application. self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemDone target:self action:@selector(add_Clicked:)] autorelease]; I have no issues modifying the navigation bar in any of my UIViewControllers classes. The simplified application class outline is as such: AppDelegate - UIViewControllerA (has a left and a right navigationBarButton) - Subview is displayed when a SegmentControl is selected. (Within the subview, I'm trying to modify the right NavigationBarButton that is displayed) [self.view addSubview:newControllerName.view]; Methods I have attempted: Trying to set self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem within my subview to a new UIBarButtonItem. Creating a pointer to UIViewControllerA within my AppDelegate. The UIViewControllerA contains a function setNavButton I wrote to set the rightBarButtonItem to a button. Then I am referencing the AppDelegate's reference to UIViewControllerA and attempting to call setNavButton. I included a NSLog call to see if that function is being called and it is executing but the NavigationBar isn't being modified. I'm trying to avoid having to push a UIViewController after the SegmentControl is clicked in UIViewControllerA so that I can simulate the SegmentControl as tabs. I'm not getting any errors during compile or run time. Anyone have any ideas?

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  • Dynamically load Jquery into .js page

    - by RussP
    Please excuse me if I'm simple here, I want to create a simple widget that people can access from their websites - e.g by copy/past something like <script language="javascript" src="test2.js"></script> <div id="test"></div> anywhere in their web pages. where is dynamically filled via Jquery and the functions in/on test2.js. I can do it if JQuery is actually "printed" on the page of test2.js, but I cannot get any JQuery functions to work if I try to include/call JQuery dynamically. How do you call JQuery via javascript and then get it to work with the functions on the page? And/Or is there an easy way to add the <div id="test"></div> dynamically aswell? Sure I can body.append etc. but that only adds at the bottom of the page. Is there a way to .append in the position where the script include <script language="javascript" src="test2.js"></script> is actually placed? Hope I make sence.

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  • Using Build Manager Class to Load ASPX Files and Populate its Controls

    - by Sandhurst
    I am using BuildManager Class to Load a dynamically generated ASPX File, please note that it does not have a corresponding .cs file. Using Following code I am able to load the aspx file, I am even able to loop through the control collection of the dynamically created aspx file, but when I am assigning values to controls they are not showing it up. for example if I am binding the value "Dummy" to TextBox control of the aspx page, the textbox remains empty. Here's the code that I am using protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { LoadPage("~/Demo.aspx"); } public static void LoadPage(string pagePath) { // get the compiled type of referenced path Type type = BuildManager.GetCompiledType(pagePath); // if type is null, could not determine page type if (type == null) throw new ApplicationException("Page " + pagePath + " not found"); // cast page object (could also cast an interface instance as well) // in this example, ASP220Page is a custom base page System.Web.UI.Page pageView = (System.Web.UI.Page)Activator.CreateInstance(type); // call page title pageView.Title = "Dynamically loaded page..."; // call custom property of ASP220Page //pageView.InternalControls.Add( // new LiteralControl("Served dynamically...")); // process the request with updated object ((IHttpHandler)pageView).ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); LoadDataInDynamicPage(pageView); } private static void LoadDataInDynamicPage(Page prvPage) { foreach (Control ctrl in prvPage.Controls) { //Find Form Control if (ctrl.ID != null) { if (ctrl.ID.Equals("form1")) { AllFormsClass cls = new AllFormsClass(); DataSet ds = cls.GetConditionalData("1"); foreach (Control ctr in ctrl.Controls) { if (ctr is TextBox) { if (ctr.ID.Contains("_M")) { TextBox drpControl = (TextBox)ctr; drpControl.Text = ds.Tables[0].Rows[0][ctr.ID].ToString(); } else if (ctr.ID.Contains("_O")) { TextBox drpControl = (TextBox)ctr; drpControl.Text = ds.Tables[1].Rows[0][ctr.ID].ToString(); } } } } } } }

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  • How can I use ToUnicode without breaking dead key support?

    - by Cypherjb
    A similar question has already been asked, so I'm not going to waste time re-explaining it, an existing discussion can be found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1964614/toascii-tounicode-in-a-keyboard-hook-destroys-dead-keys The reason I'm posting a new question however is that I seem to have come across a 'solution', but I'm not quite sure how to implement it. This blog post seems to propose a solution to the problem of ToUnicode killing dead-key support: http://blogs.msdn.com/michkap/archive/2005/01/19/355870.aspx However I'm not sure how to implement the suggested solution. A push in the right direction would be greatly appreciated. To be clear, the part I'm referring to is this: "There are two ways to work around this: 1) You can keep calling ToUnicode with the same info until it is cleared out and then call it one more time to put the state back where it was if you had never typed anything, or 2) You can load all of the keyboard info ahead of time and then when they type information you can look up in your own info cache what the keystrokes mean, without having to call APIs later." I'm not quite sure how to do either of those things (keyboards and internationalization are far from my strong point), so any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • Python3 and ftplib uploading files

    - by Teifion
    My python2 script uploads files nicely using this method but python3 is presenting problems and I'm stuck as to where to go next (googling hasn't helped). from ftplib import FTP ftp = FTP(ftp_host, ftp_user, ftp_pass) ftp.storbinary('STOR myfile.txt', open('myfile.txt')) The error I get is Traceback (most recent call last): File "/Library/WebServer/CGI-Executables/rob3/functions/cli_f.py", line 12, in upload ftp.storlines('STOR myfile.txt', open('myfile.txt')) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/3.1/lib/python3.1/ftplib.py", line 454, in storbinary conn.sendall(buf) TypeError: must be bytes or buffer, not str I tried altering the code to from ftplib import FTP ftp = FTP(ftp_host, ftp_user, ftp_pass) ftp.storbinary('STOR myfile.txt'.encode('utf-8'), open('myfile.txt')) But instead I got this Traceback (most recent call last): File "/Library/WebServer/CGI-Executables/rob3/functions/cli_f.py", line 12, in upload ftp.storbinary('STOR myfile.txt'.encode('utf-8'), open('myfile.txt')) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/3.1/lib/python3.1/ftplib.py", line 450, in storbinary conn = self.transfercmd(cmd) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/3.1/lib/python3.1/ftplib.py", line 358, in transfercmd return self.ntransfercmd(cmd, rest)[0] File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/3.1/lib/python3.1/ftplib.py", line 329, in ntransfercmd resp = self.sendcmd(cmd) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/3.1/lib/python3.1/ftplib.py", line 244, in sendcmd self.putcmd(cmd) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/3.1/lib/python3.1/ftplib.py", line 179, in putcmd self.putline(line) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/3.1/lib/python3.1/ftplib.py", line 172, in putline line = line + CRLF TypeError: can't concat bytes to str Can anybody point me in the right direction

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  • SQL UNION ALL problem after using UNION ALL more than 10 times

    - by VBGKM
    I'm getting a formatting problem if I use more than 10 UNION ALL statements in my VBA Code. If I use 10 or less everything works great. What I'm trying to do is combine 12 worksheets (Excel 2007). I have a numerical column called SC that turns into string and date if I have more than 10 UNION ALL. If I try to use ROUND with more than 10 UNION ALL my last selection will change all the records by one unit. I'm using Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0 as my provider and my connection string has worked for several things in my code so far. Is there any limit for UNION ALL statements when using OLEDB? Here is my code. Dim StrOr As String Dim i As Variant Dim Cnt As ADODB.Connection Dim Rs As ADODB.Recordset For i = 1 To 12 StrOr = StrOr & " " & "SELECT SC FROM [" & MonthName(i, True) & "$" & "] UNION ALL" Next StrOr = Left(StrOr, Len(StrOr) - 9) & ";" Call GetADOCnt Call ADORs

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  • Mocking an object that uses jni using EasyMock

    - by Visage
    So my class under test has code that looks braodly like this public void doSomething(int param) { Report report = new Report() ...do some calculations report.someMethod(someData) } my intention was to extract the construction of report into a protected method and override it to use a mock object that I could then test to ensure that someMethod had been called with the right data. So far so good. But Report isnt under my control, and to mkae things worse it uses JNI to load a library at runtime. If I do Report report = EasyMock.createMock(Report.class) then EasyMock attempts to use reflection to find out the class members, but this causes an attempt to load the JNI library, which fails (the JNI libraries are only available on UNIX). Im considering two things: a) Introduce a ReportWrapper interface with two implementations, one of which will delegate calls to an real Report (so basically a Proxy), and a second which will basically use a mock object. or b) instead of calling someMethod, call a protected method which will in turn call someMethod that I can override in a testing subclass. Either way it seems nasty. Any better ways?

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  • How can i Execute a Controller's ActionMethod programatically?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to execute a controller's Action Method programatically and I'm not sure how. Scenario: When my ControllerFactory fails to find the controller, I wish it to manually execute a single action method which i have on a simple, custom controller. I don't want to rely on using any route data to determine the controller/method .. because that route might not have been wired up. Eg. // NOTE: Error handling removed from this example. public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; // Try and load the controller, based on the controllerType argument. // ... snip // Did we retrieve a controller? if (controller == null) { result = new MyCustomController(); ((MyCustomController)result).Execute404NotFound(); // <-- HERE! } return result; } } .. and that method is .. public static void Execute404NotFound(this Controller controller) { result = new 404NotFound(); // Setup any ViewData.Model stuff. result.ExecuteResult(controller.ControllerContext); // <-- RUNTIME // ERROR's HERE } Now, when I run the controller factory fails to find a controller, i then manually create my own basic controller. I then call the extension method 'Execute404NotFound' on this controller instance. That's fine .. until it runs the ExecuteResult(..) method. Why? the controller has no ControllerContext data. As such, the ExecuteResult crashes because it requires some ControllerContext. So - can someone out there help me? see what I'm doing wrong. Remember - i'm trying to get my controller factory to manually / programmatically call a method on a controller which of course would return an ActionResult. Please help!

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  • What is the prefered or accepted method for testing proxy settings?

    - by Mike Webb
    I have a lot of trouble with the internet connectivity in the program I am working on and it all seems to spawn from some issue with the proxy settings. Most of the issues at this point are fixed, but the issue I am having now is that my method of testing the proxy settings makes some users wait for long periods of time. Here is what I do: System.Net.WebClient webClnt = new System.Net.WebClient(); webClnt.Proxy = proxy; webClnt.Credentials = proxy.Credentials; byte[] tempBytes; try { tempBytes = webClnt.DownloadData(url.Address); } catch { //Invalid proxy settings //Code to handle the exception goes here } This is the only way that I've found to test if the proxy settings are correct. I tried making a web service call to our web service, but no proxy settings are needed when making the call. It will work even if I have bogus proxy settings. The above method, though, has no timeout member that I can set that I can find and I use the DownloadData as opposed to the DownloadDataAsync because I need to wait til the method is done so that I can know if the settings are correct before continuing on in the program. Any suggestions on a better method or a work around for this method is appreciated. Mike

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  • Wrong getBounds() on LineScaleMode.NONE

    - by ghalex
    I have write a simple example that adds a canvas and draw a rectangle with stroke size 20 scale mode none. The problem is that if I call getBounds() first time I will get a correct result but after I call scale(); the getBounds() function will give me a wrong result. It will take in cosideration the stroke but stroke has scalemode to none and on the screen nothing happens but in the result I will have a x value smaller. Can sombody tell me how can I fix this ? protected var display :Canvas; protected function addCanvas():void { display = new Canvas(); display.x = display.y = 50; display.width = 100; display.height = 100; display.graphics.clear(); display.graphics.lineStyle( 20, 0x000000, 0.5, true, LineScaleMode.NONE ); display.graphics.beginFill( 0xff0000, 1 ); display.graphics.drawRect(0, 0, 100, 100); display.graphics.endFill(); area.addChild( display ); traceBounce(); } protected function scale():void { var m :Matrix = display.transform.matrix; var apply :Matrix = new Matrix(); apply.scale( 2, 1 ); apply.concat( m ); display.transform.matrix = apply; traceBounce(); } protected function traceBounce():void { trace( display.getBounds( this ) ); }

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  • Can a destructor be recursive?

    - by Cubbi
    Is this program well-defined, and if not, why exactly? #include <iostream> #include <new> struct X { int cnt; X (int i) : cnt(i) {} ~X() { std::cout << "destructor called, cnt=" << cnt << std::endl; if ( cnt-- > 0 ) this->X::~X(); // explicit recursive call to dtor } }; int main() { char* buf = new char[sizeof(X)]; X* p = new(buf) X(7); p->X::~X(); // explicit call to dtor delete[] buf; } My reasoning: although invoking a destructor twice is undefined behavior, per 12.4/14, what it says exactly is this: the behavior is undefined if the destructor is invoked for an object whose lifetime has ended Which does not seem to prohibit recursive calls. While the destructor for an object is executing, the object's lifetime has not yet ended, thus it's not UB to invoke the destructor again. On the other hand, 12.4/6 says: After executing the body [...] a destructor for class X calls the destructors for X's direct members, the destructors for X's direct base classes [...] which means that after the return from a recursive invocation of a destructor, all member and base class destructors will have been called, and calling them again when returning to the previous level of recursion would be UB. Therefore, a class with no base and only POD members can have a recursive destructor without UB. Am I right?

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  • Which is better Java programming practice for looping up to an int value: a converted for-each loop

    - by Arvanem
    Hi folks, Given the need to loop up to an arbitrary int value, is it better programming practice to convert the value into an array and for-each the array, or just use a traditional for loop? FYI, I am calculating the number of 5 and 6 results ("hits") in multiple throws of 6-sided dice. My arbitrary int value is the dicePool which represents the number of multiple throws. As I understand it, there are two options: Convert the dicePool into an array and for-each the array: public int calcHits(int dicePool) { int[] dp = new int[dicePool]; for (Integer a : dp) { // call throwDice method } } Use a traditional for loop. public int calcHits(int dicePool) { for (int i = 0; i < dicePool; i++) { // call throwDice method } } I apologise for the poor presentation of the code above (for some reason the code button on the Ask Question page is not doing what it should). My view is that option 1 is clumsy code and involves unnecessary creation of an array, even though the for-each loop is more efficient than the traditional for loop in Option 2. Thanks in advance for any suggestions you might have.

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