Search Results

Search found 12772 results on 511 pages for 'the little schemer'.

Page 402/511 | < Previous Page | 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409  | Next Page >

  • sybase - values from one table that aren't on another, on opposite ends of a 3-table join

    - by Lazy Bob
    Hypothetical situation: I work for a custom sign-making company, and some of our clients have submitted more sign designs than they're currently using. I want to know what signs have never been used. 3 tables involved: table A - signs for a company sign_pk(unique) | company_pk | sign_description 1 --------------------1 ---------------- small 2 --------------------1 ---------------- large 3 --------------------2 ---------------- medium 4 --------------------2 ---------------- jumbo 5 --------------------3 ---------------- banner table B - company locations company_pk | company_location(unique) 1 ------|------ 987 1 ------|------ 876 2 ------|------ 456 2 ------|------ 123 table C - signs at locations (it's a bit of a stretch, but each row can have 2 signs, and it's a one to many relationship from company location to signs at locations) company_location | front_sign | back_sign 987 ------------ 1 ------------ 2 987 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 876 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 456 ------------ 3 ------------ 4 123 ------------ 4 ------------ 3 So, a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location. What I want to try and find is how to query and get back that sign_pk 5 isn't at any location. Querying each sign_pk against all of the front_sign and back_sign values is a little impractical, since all the tables have millions of rows. Table a is indexed on sign_pk and company_pk, table b on both fields, and table c only on company locations. The way I'm trying to write it is along the lines of "each sign belongs to a company, so find the signs that are not the front or back sign at any of the locations that belong to the company tied to that sign." My original plan was: Select a.sign_pk from a, b, c where a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location and a.sign_pk *= c.front_sign group by a.sign_pk having count(c.front_sign) = 0 just to do the front sign, and then repeat for the back, but that won't run because c is an inner member of an outer join, and also in an inner join. This whole thing is fairly convoluted, but if anyone can make sense of it, I'll be your best friend.

    Read the article

  • c++ use of winmain()

    - by Jack
    Hi, I just started learning programming for windows in c++. I had this crazy image, that win32 programming is based on calling windows functions and sending parameters to and from them. Like, when you want to create window, you call some win32 function that handles windows GUI and say "Hi, please, create me new window, 100 x 100 px, with two buttons", and that GUI function says "Hi, no problem, when something happends, like user clicks one button, I will change this variable xy located in this location". So, I thought that it will be very similiar to console programming. But the very first instruction surprised me. I always thought that every program executes main() function first. So, when I launch app, windows stores some parameters on top of stack and run that application. So I assumed that initializing main() is just a c++ way to tell the compiler where the first instruction should be. But in win32 programming, there is function called winmain() which starts first. So I am little confused. I thought it´s rule that compiler must have main() to start with, that main just defines where ti start, like some start point identifier. So, please, why is there winmain() function instead of main()? When I thought that C++ programming is as logical as assembler, it confuses me once again.

    Read the article

  • c++ use of winmain()

    - by Jack
    Hi, I just started learning programming for windows in c++. I had this crazy image, that win32 programming is based on calling windows functions and sending parameters to and from them. Like, when you want to create window, you call some win32 function that handles windows GUI and say "Hi, please, create me new window, 100 x 100 px, with two buttons", and that GUI function says "Hi, no problem, when something happends, like user clicks one button, I will change this variable xy located in this location". So, I thought that it will be very similiar to console programming. But the very first instruction surprised me. I always thought that every program executes main() function first. So, when I launch app, windows stores some parameters on top of stack and run that application. So I assumed that initializing main() is just a c++ way to tell the compiler where the first instruction should be. But in win32 programming, there is function called winmain() which starts first. So I am little confused. I thought it´s rule that compiler must have main() to start with, that main just defines where ti start, like some start point identifier. So, please, why is there winmain() function instead of main()? When I thought that C++ programming is as logical as assembler, it confuses me once again.

    Read the article

  • How to install previously-archived apps from xcode organizer to my iphone

    - by Ben Clayton
    Hi all. Xcode keeps an archive of all the versions of my apps that I've submitted to the app store in the 'archived applications' section. I assumed using this I could install an old version of an app to my device, in order to reproduce any problems my client may have had with that particular version. However, when I try to do this I get an error: 'this executable was signed with invalid entitlements, the entitlements specified in your applications code signing entitlements do not match those specified in your provisioning profile' The original app was signed using our App Store distribution certificate, and I use the Organizer interface to re-sign it using our Developer profile. select the archived app select the version I want to test click 'share' select 'iphone developer' next to identity save to disk (saves the ipa file) then copy the ipa to the device using the little + button you see next to 'applications' on the screen you get when you select the connected device. Then I get the error, and the app isn't installed. Is there something obvious I'm doing wrong here? Or is there a different process to re-install an archived app to my device? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Any merit to a lazy-ish juxt function?

    - by NielsK
    In answering a question about a function that maps over multiple functions with the same arguments (A: juxt), I came up with a function that basically took the same form as juxt, but used map: (defn could-be-lazy-juxt [& funs] (fn [& args] (map #(apply %1 %2) funs (repeat args)))) => ((juxt inc dec str) 1) [2 0 "1"] => ((could-be-lazy-juxt inc dec str) 1) (2 0 "1") => ((juxt * / -) 6 2) [12 3 4] => ((could-be-lazy-juxt * / -) 6 2) (12 3 4) As posted in the original question, I have little clue about the laziness or performance of it, but timing in the REPL does suggest something lazy-ish is going on. => (time (apply (juxt + -) (range 1 100))) "Elapsed time: 0.097198 msecs" [4950 -4948] => (time (apply (could-be-lazy-juxt + -) (range 1 100))) "Elapsed time: 0.074558 msecs" (4950 -4948) => (time (apply (juxt + -) (range 10000000))) "Elapsed time: 1019.317913 msecs" [49999995000000 -49999995000000] => (time (apply (could-be-lazy-juxt + -) (range 10000000))) "Elapsed time: 0.070332 msecs" (49999995000000 -49999995000000) I'm sure this function is not really that quick (the print of the outcome 'feels' about as long in both). Doing a 'take x' on the function only limits the amount of functions evaluated, which probably is limited in it's applicability, and limiting the other parameters by 'take' should be just as lazy in normal juxt. Is this juxt really lazy ? Would a lazy juxt bring anything useful to the table, for instance as a compositing step between other lazy functions ? What are the performance (mem / cpu / object count / compilation) implications ? Is that why the Clojure juxt implementation is done with a reduce and returns a vector ? Edit: Somehow things can always be done simpler in Clojure. (defn could-be-lazy-juxt [& funs] (fn [& args] (map #(apply % args) funs)))

    Read the article

  • Making a jQuery plugin to feed Tumblr to site

    - by tylorreimer
    I have some experience with PHP and a little with JS but I'm far from anything proficient. I'm trying to make a jQuery plugin for my site that I can call in my HTML via something like this: $('.new').tumble({username: "tylor", count: 9}); Which would basically put the Tumblr list the code should make into the DIV with class 'new' in this case. Here is my code so far; the problem seems to be how to get it to pick up class/id from the original call (in the HTML) and use that in the jQuery. Here's the code so far: (function($) { $.fn.tumble = function(options){ var settings = $.extend({ username: null, // [string or array] required to get url for tumblr account count: 3, // [integer] how many posts to display? }, options); //url construction var url = "http://" + settings.username + ".tumblr.com"; var jsonurl = url + "/api/read/json?num=" + settings.count + "&callback=?"; $.getJSON(jsonurl, function(data) { var items = []; $.each(data.posts, function(id, url) { // Goes over each post in the JSON document retrieved from data URL var url = this.url; // Just assigns a variable to the url to avoid constantly writing "this.whatever" var photourl = this['photo-url-250']; // photo-url-xxx needs to be called this way due to integers in the name items.push('<li><a href="' + url + '">' + photourl + '</a></li>'); }); $('<ul/>', { // Creates an empty list html: items.join('') // Takes the values in the item array and puts 'em together }).appendTo('.new'); // I don't want this to have the class set in the jQuery itself }); //end json }; })( jQuery ); Any help you can lend would be wonderful. Thank you

    Read the article

  • C#. How to pass message from unsafe callback to managed code?

    - by maxima120
    Is there a simple example of how to pass messages from unsafe callback to managed code? I have a proprietary dll which receives some messages packed in structs and all is coming to a callback function. The example of usage is as follows but it calls unsafe code too. I want to pass the messages into my application which is all managed code. *P.S. I have no experience in interop or unsafe code. I used to develop in C++ 8 yrs ago but remember very little from that nightmarish times :) P.P.S. The application is loaded as hell, the original devs claim it processes 2mil messages per sec.. I need a most efficient solution.* static unsafe int OnCoreCallback(IntPtr pSys, IntPtr pMsg) { // Alias structure pointers to the pointers passed in. CoreSystem* pCoreSys = (CoreSystem*)pSys; CoreMessage* pCoreMsg = (CoreMessage*)pMsg; // message handler function. if (pCoreMsg->MessageType == Core.MSG_STATUS) OnCoreStatus(pCoreSys, pCoreMsg); // Continue running return (int)Core.CALLBACKRETURN_CONTINUE; } Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Why are compilers so stupid?

    - by martinus
    I always wonder why compilers can't figure out simple things that are obvious to the human eye. They do lots of simple optimizations, but never something even a little bit complex. For example, this code takes about 6 seconds on my computer to print the value zero (using java 1.6): int x = 0; for (int i = 0; i < 100 * 1000 * 1000 * 1000; ++i) { x += x + x + x + x + x; } System.out.println(x); It is totally obvious that x is never changed so no matter how often you add 0 to itself it stays zero. So the compiler could in theory replace this with System.out.println(0). Or even better, this takes 23 seconds: public int slow() { String s = "x"; for (int i = 0; i < 100000; ++i) { s += "x"; } return 10; } First the compiler could notice that I am actually creating a string s of 100000 "x" so it could automatically use s StringBuilder instead, or even better directly replace it with the resulting string as it is always the same. Second, It does not recognize that I do not actually use the string at all, so the whole loop could be discarded! Why, after so much manpower is going into fast compilers, are they still so relatively dumb? EDIT: Of course these are stupid examples that should never be used anywhere. But whenever I have to rewrite a beautiful and very readable code into something unreadable so that the compiler is happy and produces fast code, I wonder why compilers or some other automated tool can't do this work for me.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate / Fluent - Mapping multiple objects to single lookup table

    - by Al
    Hi all I am struggling a little in getting my mapping right. What I have is a single self joined table of look up values of certain types. Each lookup can have a parent, which can be of a different type. For simplicities sake lets take the Country and State example. So the lookup table would look like this: Lookups Id Key Value LookupType ParentId - self joining to Id base class public class Lookup : BaseEntity { public Lookup() {} public Lookup(string key, string value) { Key = key; Value = value; } public virtual Lookup Parent { get; set; } [DomainSignature] [NotNullNotEmpty] public virtual LookupType LookupType { get; set; } [NotNullNotEmpty] public virtual string Key { get; set; } [NotNullNotEmpty] public virtual string Value { get; set; } } The lookup map public class LookupMap : IAutoMappingOverride<DBLookup> { public void Override(AutoMapping<Lookup> map) { map.Table("Lookups"); map.References(x => x.Parent, "ParentId").ForeignKey("Id"); map.DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn<string>("LookupType").CustomType(typeof(LookupType)); } } BASE SubClass map for subclasses public class BaseLookupMap : SubclassMap where T : DBLookup { protected BaseLookupMap() { } protected BaseLookupMap(LookupType lookupType) { DiscriminatorValue(lookupType); Table("Lookups"); } } Example subclass map public class StateMap : BaseLookupMap<State> { protected StateMap() : base(LookupType.State) { } } Now I've almost got my mappings set, however the mapping is still expecting a table-per-class setup, so is expecting a 'State' table to exist with a reference to the states Id in the Lookup table. I hope this makes sense. This doesn't seem like an uncommon approach when wanting to keep lookup-type values configurable. Thanks in advance. Al

    Read the article

  • How does Amazon's Statistically Improbable Phrases work?

    - by ??iu
    How does something like Statistically Improbable Phrases work? According to amazon: Amazon.com's Statistically Improbable Phrases, or "SIPs", are the most distinctive phrases in the text of books in the Search Inside!™ program. To identify SIPs, our computers scan the text of all books in the Search Inside! program. If they find a phrase that occurs a large number of times in a particular book relative to all Search Inside! books, that phrase is a SIP in that book. SIPs are not necessarily improbable within a particular book, but they are improbable relative to all books in Search Inside!. For example, most SIPs for a book on taxes are tax related. But because we display SIPs in order of their improbability score, the first SIPs will be on tax topics that this book mentions more often than other tax books. For works of fiction, SIPs tend to be distinctive word combinations that often hint at important plot elements. For instance, for Joel's first book, the SIPs are: leaky abstractions, antialiased text, own dog food, bug count, daily builds, bug database, software schedules One interesting complication is that these are phrases of either 2 or 3 words. This makes things a little more interesting because these phrases can overlap with or contain each other.

    Read the article

  • Tail recursion and memoization with C#

    - by Jay
    I'm writing a function that finds the full path of a directory based on a database table of entries. Each record contains a key, the directory's name, and the key of the parent directory (it's the Directory table in an MSI if you're familiar). I had an iterative solution, but it started looking a little nasty. I thought I could write an elegant tail recursive solution, but I'm not sure anymore. I'll show you my code and then explain the issues I'm facing. Dictionary<string, string> m_directoryKeyToFullPathDictionary = new Dictionary<string, string>(); ... private string ExpandDirectoryKey(Database database, string directoryKey) { // check for terminating condition string fullPath; if (m_directoryKeyToFullPathDictionary.TryGetValue(directoryKey, out fullPath)) { return fullPath; } // inductive step Record record = ExecuteQuery(database, "SELECT DefaultDir, Directory_Parent FROM Directory where Directory.Directory='{0}'", directoryKey); // null check string directoryName = record.GetString("DefaultDir"); string parentDirectoryKey = record.GetString("Directory_Parent"); return Path.Combine(ExpandDirectoryKey(database, parentDirectoryKey), directoryName); } This is how the code looked when I realized I had a problem (with some minor validation/massaging removed). I want to use memoization to short circuit whenever possible, but that requires me to make a function call to the dictionary to store the output of the recursive ExpandDirectoryKey call. I realize that I also have a Path.Combine call there, but I think that can be circumvented with a ... + Path.DirectorySeparatorChar + .... I thought about using a helper method that would memoize the directory and return the value so that I could call it like this at the end of the function above: return MemoizeHelper( m_directoryKeyToFullPathDictionary, Path.Combine(ExpandDirectoryKey(database, parentDirectoryKey)), directoryName); But I feel like that's cheating and not going to be optimized as tail recursion. Any ideas? Should I be using a completely different strategy? This doesn't need to be a super efficient algorithm at all, I'm just really curious. I'm using .NET 4.0, btw. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

    - by Jason
    I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

    Read the article

  • Problems with string parameter insertion into prepared statement

    - by c0d3x
    Hi, I have a database running on an MS SQL Server. My application communicates via JDBC and ODBC with it. Now I try to use prepared statements. When I insert a numeric (Long) parameter everything works fine. When I insert a string parameter it does not work. There is no error message, but an empty result set. WHERE column LIKE ('%' + ? + '%') --inserted "test" -> empty result set WHERE column LIKE ? --inserted "%test%" -> empty result set WHERE column = ? --inserted "test" -> works But I need the LIKE functionality. When I insert the same string directly into the query string (not as a prepared statement parameter) it runs fine. WHERE column LIKE '%test%' It looks a little bit like double quoting for me, but I never used quotes inside a string. I use preparedStatement.setString(int index, String x) for insertion. What is causing this problem? How can I fix it? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Just need someone familiar with HTTPClient to check over a piece of code

    - by jax
    here are two little helper methods I have made for downloading files. I have had to mix and match different tutorials of the web to get what I have here. Now is there anything that I have done blatantly wrong here? public static InputStream simplePostRequest(URL url, List<NameValuePair> postData) throws ClientProtocolException, IOException { DefaultHttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost postMethod=new HttpPost(url.toExternalForm()); postMethod.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(postData, HTTP.UTF_8)); HttpResponse response = httpclient.execute(postMethod); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); return entity.getContent(); } public static InputStream simpleGetRequest(URL url, List<NameValuePair> queryString) throws ClientProtocolException, IOException { Uri.Builder uri = new Uri.Builder(); uri.path(url.getPath()); for(NameValuePair nvp: queryString) { uri.appendQueryParameter(nvp.getName(), nvp.getValue()); } DefaultHttpClient httpClient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpHost host = new HttpHost(url.getHost()); HttpResponse response = httpClient.execute(host, new HttpGet(uri.build().toString())); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); return entity.getContent(); }

    Read the article

  • Javascript timezone solution needed(taking into account the actual difference in UTC timestamps)

    - by user198729
    I have unix timestamps from time zone X which is not known, the current timestamp(now()) in TZ X is known 1275143019, how to approach a javascript function so that it can generate the datetime in the users current TZ in the format 2010-05-29 15:32:35 ? UPDATE I'm not a unix timestamp expert,if unix timestamp is always the same in different TZ, then I have to change the question a little,so that the current datetime in TZ X is known(like 2010-05-29 22:32:28),and the other datetime is also in this format,how to convert them to the user's TZ based on the difference between now() ? UPDATE Something strange from MySQL: On server: mysql> select now(); +---------------------+ | now() | +---------------------+ | 2010-05-29 18:34:30 | +---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) mysql> select UNIX_TIMESTAMP(); +------------------+ | UNIX_TIMESTAMP() | +------------------+ | 1275143674 | +------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) On local: mysql> select now(); +---------------------+ | now() | +---------------------+ | 2010-05-29 22:41:30 | +---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) mysql> select UNIX_TIMESTAMP(); +------------------+ | UNIX_TIMESTAMP() | +------------------+ | 1275144091 | +------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Why the difference between now() (2010-05-29 22:41:30-2010-05-29 18:34:30=6hours) and UNIX_TIMESTAMP() (1275144091 - 1275143674 = 417seconds) is not the same ?

    Read the article

  • How to use dirent.h correctly.

    - by Nick
    Hello, I am new to C++ and I am experimenting with the dirent.h header to manipulate directory entries. The following little app compiles but pukes after you supple a directory name. Can someone give me a hint? The int quit is there to provide a while loop. I removed the loop in an attempt to isolate my problem. thanks! #include <iostream> #include <dirent.h> using namespace std; int main() { char *dirname = 0; DIR *pd = 0; struct dirent *pdirent = 0; int quit = 1; cout<< "Enter a directory path to open (leave blank to quit):\n"; cin >> dirname; if(dirname == NULL) { quit = 0; } pd = opendir(dirname); if(pd == NULL) { cout << "ERROR: Please provide a valid directory path.\n"; } return 0; }

    Read the article

  • Endianness and C API's: Specifically OpenSSL.

    - by Hassan Syed
    I have an algorithm that uses the following OpenSSL calls: HMAC_update() / HMAC_final() // ripe160 EVP_CipherUpdate() / EVP_CipherFinal() // cbc_blowfish These algorithm take a unsigned char * into the "plain text". My input data is comes from a C++ std::string::c_str() which originate from a protocol buffer object as a encoded UTF-8 string. UTF-8 strings are meant to be endian neutrial. However I'm a bit paranoid about how OpenSSL may perform operations on the data. My understanding is that encryption algorithms work on 8-bit blocks of data, and if a unsigned char * is used for pointer arithmetic when the operations are performed the algorithms should be endian neutral and I do not need to worry about anything. My uncertainty is compounded by the fact that I am working on a little-endian machine and have never done any real cross-architecture programming. My beliefs/reasoning are/is based on the following two properties std::string (not wstring) internally uses a 8-bit ptr and a the resulting c_str() ptr will itterate the same way regardless of the CPU architecture. Encryption algorithms are either by design, or by implementation, endian neutral. I know the best way to get a definitive answer is to use QEMU and do some cross-platform unit tests (which I plan to do). My question is a request for comments on my reasoning, and perhaps will assist other programmers when faced with similar problems.

    Read the article

  • Unit testing, mocking - simple case: Service - Repository

    - by rafek
    Consider a following chunk of service: public class ProductService : IProductService { private IProductRepository _productRepository; // Some initlization stuff public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { return _productRepository.GetProduct(id); } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } } Let's consider a simple unit test: [Test] public void GetProduct_return_the_same_product_as_getProduct_on_productRepository() { var product = EntityGenerator.Product(); _productRepositoryMock.Setup(pr => pr.GetProduct(product.Id)).Returns(product); Product returnedProduct = _productService.GetProduct(product.Id); Assert.AreEqual(product, returnedProduct); _productRepositoryMock.VerifyAll(); } At first it seems that this test is ok. But let's change our service method a little bit: public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { var product = _productRepository.GetProduct(id); product.Owner = "totallyDifferentOwner"; return product; } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } How to rewrite a given test that it'd pass with the first service method and fail with a second one? How do you handle this kind of simple scenarios? HINT: A given test is bad coz product and returnedProduct is actually the same reference.

    Read the article

  • Find and replace certain part of value (jquery)

    - by Hakan
    This might be a little complicated. See code below. When image is clicked I want to change "MY-ID-NUMBER" in "value" and "src" of object. But I want the other information to remain. When link is clicked I want to restore "value" and "src" so I can use the same function for next image that is clicked. Is it possible? Please help! My HTML: <img height="186" width="134" alt="4988" src="i123.jpg"> <img height="186" width="134" alt="4567" src="i124.jpg"> <a class="restore-to-default" href="#">DVD</a> <div class="tdt"> <object width="960" height="540"><param name="movie" value="http://www.domain.com/v3.4/player.swf?file=http://se.player-feed.domain.com/cinema/MY-ID-NUMBER/123-1/><param name="wmode" value="transparent" /><param name="allowFullScreen" value="true" /><param name="allowScriptAccess" value="always" /><embed id="player" name="player" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" src="http://www.player.domain.com/v3.4/player.swf?file=http://se.player-feed.domain.com/cinema/MY-ID-NUMBER/123-1/&display_title=over&menu=true&enable_link=true&default_quality=xxlarge&controlbar=over&autostart=true&backcolor=000000&frontcolor=ffffff&share=0&repeat=always&displayclick=play&volume=80&linktarget=_blank" width="960" height="540"allowFullScreen="true" allowScriptAccess="always"></embed></object> My jquery: $('img').click(function(){ var alt = $(this).attr("alt"); $('.tdt object').val("alt", alt); // Some how change "MY-ID-NUMBER" into the "alt-value" of image }); $('a').click(function(){ //restore to "MY-ID-NUMBER" }); Thanks!

    Read the article

  • A C# Refactoring Question...

    - by james lewis
    I came accross the following code today and I didn't like it. It's fairly obvious what it's doing but I'll add a little explanation here anyway: Basically it reads all the settings for an app from the DB and the iterates through all of them looking for the DB Version and the APP Version then sets some variables to the values in the DB (to be used later). I looked at it and thought it was a bit ugly - I don't like switch statements and I hate things that carry on iterating through a list once they're finished. So I decided to refactor it. My question to all of you is how would you refactor it? Or do you think it even needs refactoring at all? Here's the code: using (var sqlConnection = new SqlConnection(Lfepa.Itrs.Framework.Configuration.ConnectionString)) { sqlConnection.Open(); var dataTable = new DataTable("Settings"); var selectCommand = new SqlCommand(Lfepa.Itrs.Data.Database.Commands.dbo.SettingsSelAll, sqlConnection); var reader = selectCommand.ExecuteReader(); while (reader.Read()) { switch (reader[SettingKeyColumnName].ToString().ToUpper()) { case DatabaseVersionKey: DatabaseVersion = new Version(reader[SettingValueColumneName].ToString()); break; case ApplicationVersionKey: ApplicationVersion = new Version(reader[SettingValueColumneName].ToString()); break; default: break; } } if (DatabaseVersion == null) throw new ApplicationException("Colud not load Database Version Setting from the database."); if (ApplicationVersion == null) throw new ApplicationException("Colud not load Application Version Setting from the database."); }

    Read the article

  • Having some fun - what is a good way to include a secret key functionality and fire the KeyDown event?

    - by Sisyphus
    To keep myself interested, I try to put little Easter Eggs in my projects (mostly to amuse myself). I've seen some websites where you can type a series of letters "aswzaswz" and you get a "secret function" - how would I achieve this in C#? I've assigned a "secret function" in the past by using modifier keys bool showFunThing = (Control.ModifierKeys & Keys.Control) == Keys.Control; but wanted to get a bit more secretive (without the modifier keys) I just wanted the form to detect a certain word typed without any input ... I've built a method that I think should do it: private StringBuilder _pressedKeys = new StringBuilder(); protected override void OnKeyDown(KeyEventArgs e) { const string kWord = "fun"; char letter = (char)e.KeyValue; if (!char.IsLetterOrDigit(letter)) { return; } _pressedKeys.Append(letter); if (_pressedKeys.Length == kWord.Length) { if (_pressedKeys.ToString().ToLower() == kWord) { MessageBox.Show("Fun"); _pressedKeys.Clear(); } } base.OnKeyDown(e); } Now I need to wire it up but I can't figure out how I'm supposed to raise the event in the form designer ... I've tried this: this.KeyDown +=new System.Windows.Forms.KeyEventHandler(OnKeyDown); and a couple of variations on this but I'm missing something because it won't fire (or compile). It tells me that the OnKeyDown method is expecting a certain signature but I've got other methods like this where I haven't specified arguments. I fear that I may have got myself confused so I am turning to SO for help ... anyone?

    Read the article

  • Do I really ned bindParam?

    - by sandelius
    Hi there! I'm trying to do a little PDO CRUD to learn some PDO. I have a question about bindParam. Here's my update method right now: public static function update($conditions = array(), $data = array(), $table = '') { self::instance(); // Late static bindings (PHP 5.3) $table = ($table === '') ? self::table() : $table; // Check which data array we want to use $values = (empty($data)) ? self::$_fields : $data; $sql = "UPDATE $table SET "; foreach ($values as $f => $v) { $sql .= "$f = ?, "; } // let's build the conditions self::build_conditions($conditions); // fix our WHERE, AND, OR, LIKE conditions $extra = self::$condition_string; // querystring $sql = rtrim($sql, ', ') . $extra; // let's merge the arrays into on $v_val = array_values($values); $c_val = array_values($conditions); $array = array_merge($v_val, self::$condition_array); $stmt = self::$db->prepare($sql); return $stmt->execute($array); } in my "self::$condition_array" I get all the right values from the ?. SO the query looks like this: UPDATE table SET this = ?, another = ? WHERE title = ? AND time = ? as you can see I dont use bindParams instead I pass the right values in the right order ($array) directly into the execute($array) method. This works like a charm BUT is it safe not use use bindParam here? If not then how can I do it? Thanks from Sweden Tobias

    Read the article

  • VB.NET editing existing that with a form

    - by user127147
    Hi there, I have a simple questions that puzzles me. I need a little bit of refreashment with VB as I have been away for a while. I have a form that adds new contacts. New contacts are added by pressing an appropriate button and they appear as an entry in the list on the form. I try now to add an edit button that will edit existing entries. User will select a given entry on the list and press edit button and will be presented with an appropriate form (AddContFrm). Right now it simply adds another entry with the same title. Logic is handled in a class called Contact.vb Here is my code. Public Class Contact Public Contact As String Public Title As String Public Fname As String Public Surname As String Public Address As String Private myCont As String Public Property Cont() Get Return myCont End Get Set(ByVal value) myCont = Value End Set End Property Public Overrides Function ToString() As String Return Me.Cont End Function Sub NewContact() FName = frmAddCont.txtFName.ToString frmStart.lstContact.Items.Add(FName) frmAddCont.Hide() End Sub Public Sub Display() Dim C As New Contact 'C.Cont = InputBox("Enter a title for this contact.") C.Cont = frmAddCont.txtTitle.Text C.Fname = frmAddCont.txtFName.Text C.Surname = frmAddCont.txtSName.Text C.Address = frmAddCont.txtAddress.Text 'frmStart.lstContact.Items.Add(C.Cont.ToString) frmStart.lstContact.Items.Add(C) End Sub End Class AddContFrm Public Class frmAddCont Public Class ControlObject Dim Title As String Dim FName As String Dim SName As String Dim Address As String Dim TelephoneNumber As Integer Dim emailAddress As String Dim Website As String Dim Photograph As String End Class Private Sub btnConfirmAdd_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnConfirmAdd.Click Dim C As New Contact C.Display() Me.Hide() End Sub Private Sub frmAddCont_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load End Sub End Class and frmStart.vb Public Class frmStart Private Sub btnAdd_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnAdd.Click frmAddCont.Show() End Sub Private Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnDel.Click Dim DelCont As Contact DelCont = Me.lstContact.SelectedItem() lstContact.Items.Remove(DelCont) End Sub Private Sub lstContact_SelectedIndexChanged(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles lstContact.SelectedIndexChanged End Sub Private Sub btnEdit_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnEdit.Click Dim C As Contact If lstContact.SelectedItem IsNot Nothing Then C = DirectCast(lstContact.SelectedItem, Contact) C.Display() End If End Sub End Class

    Read the article

  • Advice needed: cold backup for SQL Server 2008 Express?

    - by Mikey Cee
    What are my options for achieving a cold backup server for SQL Server Express instance running a single database? I have an SQL Server 2008 Express instance in production that currently represents a single point of failure for my application. I have a second physical box sitting at the installation that is currently doing nothing. I want to somehow replicate my database in near real time (a little bit of data loss is acceptable) to the second box. The database is very small and resources are utilized very lightly. In the case that the production server dies, I would manually reconfigure my application to point to the backup server instead. Although Express doesn't support log shipping, I am thinking that I could manually script a poor man's version of it, where I use batch files to take the logs and copy them across the network and apply them to the second server at 5 minute intervals. Does anyone have any advice on whether this is technically achievable, or if there is a better way to do what I am trying to do? Note that I want to avoid having to pay for the full version of SQL Server and configure mirroring as I think it is an overkill for this application. I understand that other DB platforms may present suitable options (eg. a MySQL Cluster), but for the purposes of this discussion, let's assume we have to stick to SQL Server.

    Read the article

  • Force windows video driver reload. Is it possible at all?

    - by somemorebytes
    Hi there, Some drivers use parameters written in the registry to configure themselves when they get loaded at boot time. I can modify those values and then reboot, but I would like to know if it is possible to force the driver reload, making the changes effective without rebooting. Specifically, I am talking about the video driver (nvidia). I read somewhere, that calling through pINvoke() [User32.ll]::ChangeDisplaySettings() with a 640x480x8bits resolution,(which is so low that it should not be supported by a modern driver) will force windows to load the "Standard VGA driver", and making another call with the current resolution will load the nvidia driver again. This does not work though. At least in Windows 7, even if the low res is not displayed as "supported" the system reduces the screen to a little square in the center of the screen, showing the low res wihtout unloading the nvidia driver. So, is there any .NET/Win32 API, service to restart, or any way at all to force a video driver reload? Perhaps programatically disabling the device (as you could do from the Device Manager) and reenabling it again? Any idea? Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409  | Next Page >