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  • How do I repopulate the view model in ASP.NET MVC 2 after a validation error?

    - by Keltex
    I'm using ASP.NET MVC 2 and here's the issue. My View Model looks something like this. It includes some fields which are edited by the user and others which are used for display purposes. Here's a simple version public class MyModel { public decimal Price { get; set; } // for view purpose only [Required(ErrorMessage="Name Required")] public string Name { get; set; } } The controller looks something like this: public ActionResult Start(MyModel rec) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { Repository.SaveModel(rec); return RedirectToAction("NextPage"); } else { // validation error return View(rec); } } The issue is when there's a validation error and I call View(rec), I'm not sure the best way to populate my view model with the values that are displayed only. The old way of doing it, where I pass in a form collection, I would do something like this: public ActionResult Start(FormCollection collection) { var rec = Repository.LoadModel(); UpdateModel(rec); if (ModelState.IsValid) { Repository.SaveModel(rec); return RedirectToAction("NextPage"); } else { // validation error return View(rec); } } But doing this, I get an error on UpdateModel(rec): The model of type 'MyModel' could not be updated. Any ideas?

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  • Webservice returning 403 error

    - by user48408
    I'm wondering whether I'm receiving the 403 errors because there are too many attempted connections being made to the webservice. If this is the case how do I get around it? I've tried creating a new instance of InternalWebService each time and disposing of the old one but I get the same problem. I've disabled the firewall and the webservice is located locally at the moment. I beginning to think it may be a problem with the credentials but the control tree is populated via the webservice at some stage. If I browse to the webmethods in my browser I can run them all. I return an instance of the webservice from my login handler loginsession.cs: static LoginSession() { ... g_NavigatorWebService = new InternalWebService(); g_NavigatorWebService.Credentials = System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials; ... } public static InternalWebService NavigatorWebService { get { return g_NavigatorWebService; } } I have a tree view control which uses the webservice to populate itself. IncidentTreeViewControl.cs: public IncidentTreeView() { InitializeComponent(); m_WebService = LoginSession.NavigatorWebService; ... } public void Populate() { m_WebService.BeginGetIncidentSummaryByCompany(new AsyncCallback(IncidentSummaryByClientComplete), null); m_WebService.BeginGetIncidentSummaryByDepartment(new AsyncCallback(IncidentSummaryByDepartmentComplete), null); ... } private void IncidentSummaryByClientComplete(IAsyncResult ar) { MyTypedDataSet data = m_WebService.EndGetIncidentSummaryByCompany(ar); //403 ..cont... } I'm getting the 403 on the last line.

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  • Java List with Objects - find and replace (delete) entry if Object with certain attribute already ex

    - by Sophomore
    Hi there I've been working all day and I somehow can't get this probably easy task figured out - probably a lack of coffee... I have a synchronizedList where some Objects are being stored. Those objects have a field which is something like an ID. These objects carry information about a user and his current state (simplified). The point is, that I only want one object for each user. So when the state of this user changes, I'd like to remove the "old" entry and store a new one in the List. protected static class Objects{ ... long time; Object ID; ... } ... if (Objects.contains(ID)) { Objects.remove(ID); Objects.add(newObject); } else { Objects.add(newObject); } Obviously this is not the way to go but should illustrate what I'm looking for... Maybe the data structure is not the best for this purpose but any help is welcome!

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  • RubyGems installation errors when using 'sudo' or not

    - by Kenny Peng
    I have a machine that is running Ubuntu Hardy, which provides its own RubyGems package. Unfortunately that version of RubyGems (1.1.1) is too old to do anything useful with, so I decided to manually update RubyGems to the current version (1.3.6). That part went smoothly, and if I do gem -v, I get 1.3.6 which is expected. The problem is when I try to do: sudo gem install rack, it returns this error: ERROR: While executing gem ... (Errno::EACCES) Permission denied - /home/username/.gem Usually when I install gems as root, it knows to install it into /usr/lib/ruby/gems, so why is it checking my home directory at all? Another quirk is when I do gem install rack (not as root), it says: ERROR: While executing gem ... (Gem::FilePermissionError) You don't have write permissions into the /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8 directory. which is where I want it to go. I've already tried clearing source_caches, trying different versions of RubyGems (1.3.5), forcing installation into /usr/lib with -i to no avail. Any ideas on why RubyGems is so insistent on checking my /home directory when installing as root?

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  • What are alternatives to Win32 PulseEvent() function?

    - by Bill
    The documentation for the Win32 API PulseEvent() function (kernel32.dll) states that this function is “… unreliable and should not be used by new applications. Instead, use condition variables”. However, condition variables cannot be used across process boundaries like (named) events can. I have a scenario that is cross-process, cross-runtime (native and managed code) in which a single producer occasionally has something interesting to make known to zero or more consumers. Right now, a well-known named event is used (and set to signaled state) by the producer using this PulseEvent function when it needs to make something known. Zero or more consumers wait on that event (WaitForSingleObject()) and perform an action in response. There is no need for two-way communication in my scenario, and the producer does not need to know if the event has any listeners, nor does it need to know if the event was successfully acted upon. On the other hand, I do not want any consumers to ever miss any events. In other words, the system needs to be perfectly reliable – but the producer does not need to know if that is the case or not. The scenario can be thought of as a “clock ticker” – i.e., the producer provides a semi-regular signal for zero or more consumers to count. And all consumers must have the correct count over any given period of time. No polling by consumers is allowed (performance reasons). The ticker is just a few milliseconds (20 or so, but not perfectly regular). Raymen Chen (The Old New Thing) has a blog post pointing out the “fundamentally flawed” nature of the PulseEvent() function, but I do not see an alternative for my scenario from Chen or the posted comments. Can anyone please suggest one? Please keep in mind that the IPC signal must cross process boundries on the machine, not simply threads. And the solution needs to have high performance in that consumers must be able to act within 10ms of each event.

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  • Machine Learning Algorithm for Predicting Order of Events?

    - by user213060
    Simple machine learning question. Probably numerous ways to solve this: There is an infinite stream of 4 possible events: 'event_1', 'event_2', 'event_4', 'event_4' The events do not come in in completely random order. We will assume that there are some complex patterns to the order that most events come in, and the rest of the events are just random. We do not know the patterns ahead of time though. After each event is received, I want to predict what the next event will be based on the order that events have come in in the past. The predictor will then be told what the next event actually was: Predictor=new_predictor() prev_event=False while True: event=get_event() if prev_event is not False: Predictor.last_event_was(prev_event) predicted_event=Predictor.predict_next_event(event) The question arises of how long of a history that the predictor should maintain, since maintaining infinite history will not be possible. I'll leave this up to you to answer. The answer can't be infinte though for practicality. So I believe that the predictions will have to be done with some kind of rolling history. Adding a new event and expiring an old event should therefore be rather efficient, and not require rebuilding the entire predictor model, for example. Specific code, instead of research papers, would add for me immense value to your responses. Python or C libraries are nice, but anything will do. Thanks! Update: And what if more than one event can happen simultaneously on each round. Does that change the solution?

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  • What is the WCF equivalent?

    - by klausbyskov
    I am trying to port some code that is based on WSE3.0 to WCF. Basically, the old code has the following configuration: <microsoft.web.services3> <diagnostics> <trace enabled="true" input="InputTrace.webinfo" output="OutputTrace.webinfo" /> </diagnostics> <tokenIssuer> <statefulSecurityContextToken enabled="false" /> </tokenIssuer> </microsoft.web.services3> When calling the same service through my "Service Reference" I get this error: Request does not contain required Security header My binding looks like this: <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="LegalUnitGetBinding" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="Transport"> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> From what I have understood, the service I'm calling only requires an SSL connection, since it receives a username and password as part of a request parameter. Any help or suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Apache Axis: How to set call properties using code generated from wsdl2java?

    - by marc esher
    I'm using Apache Axis 1.4 (yes, the old one), with wsdl2java to generate the client code for a webservice. I'd like to set additional properties on the Call object before calling methods on the generated stub. For example, I'd like to set username, password, perhaps add or modify existing headers, and change the client handlers to use different implementations. Currently, I'm doing this by modifying the generated Stub class and calling the appropriate setters. However, I'd like to achieve this without touching the generated files. I"m confused, though, because the Stub class has: createCall() which creates the call object and sets some properties. Currently, this is where I'm modifying the generated source code; then, the Stub contains: clientMethod1(){ blahblah Call _call = createCall(); ...... _call.invoke(); } So I can't see a way that I can use the serviceLocator to get a stub, modify the properties I want to modify, and then use the stub to call the methods I want to call, given that the stub methods call createCall() and then call invoke. There doesn't appear to be a way to intercept the new Call object before it's invoked. So: How do you modify properties in the call without modifying the generated Stub class's source code? Thanks for info or even pointers to existing documentation.

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  • Why can't the compiler/JVM just make autoboxing "just work"?

    - by Pyrolistical
    Autoboxing is rather scary. While I fully understand the difference between == and .equals I can't but help have the follow bug the hell out of me: final List<Integer> foo = Arrays.asList(1, 1000); final List<Integer> bar = Arrays.asList(1, 1000); System.out.println(foo.get(0) == bar.get(0)); System.out.println(foo.get(1) == bar.get(1)); That prints true false Why did they do it this way? It something to do with cached Integers, but if that is the case why don't they just cache all Integers used by the program? Or why doesn't the JVM always auto unbox to primitive? Printing false false or true true would have been way better. EDIT I disagree about breakage of old code. By having foo.get(0) == bar.get(0) return true you already broke the code. Can't this be solved at the compiler level by replacing Integer with int in byte code (as long as it is never assigned null)

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  • How to Disable/Enable WYSIWYG editor in Magento 1.4

    - by latvian
    Hi When entering code in CMS static block(possible page as well) and in this code there is empty DIV tags such us: <a href="javascript:hide1(),show2(),hide3()"><div class="dropoff_button"></div></a> The DIV tags will be gone next time you open the block to edit. it will look as this <a href="javascript:hide1(),show2(),hide3()"> </a> without the div tags ...and saving again it modifies your code. I think it something to do with the 'show/hide editor'. By default it goes into the WYSIWYG editor, so when updating static block i don't see any other solution than 1."hide the editor' by clicking 'show/hide editor' 2.delete the old code from the editor 3. get code that doesn't miss the DIVs 4. Merge new code with code in 3 in some other editing software than magento 5. paste result in the magento editor, 6. Save Is this bug? What is your solution? Can i turn of WYSIWYG editor?

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  • Previously working emberjs1.0-pre form on jsfiddle returns "error": "Please use POST request"

    - by brg
    This code ** http://jsfiddle.net/wagenet/ACzaJ/8/ ** was working a few days ago, when i returned to it today, it throws {"error": "Please use POST request"}, when i click add button Also the jsfiddle editor.js always throws exception on this line: function stop(){cc = stop; throw StopIteration;}; Does anyone knows the cause of this issue. Many thanks Update 1 Based on @Peter Wagenet's suggestions below, the form now logs entries or inputs to the console but it doesn't display on the result section of jsfiddle instead what is displayed on jsfiddle result section or page is still this error {"error": "Please use POST request"} ** http://jsfiddle.net/ACzaJ/18/ Update 2 In this fiddle, http://jsfiddle.net/ACzaJ/19/, i have successfully eliminated this error {"error": "Please use POST request"} by adding event.preventDefault(); to the submit action in Todos.TodoFormView. That allows us to use arbitrary view methods as action handlers. The existing issue is that the input to the form, only displays on the console and not on jsfiddle result section, though no error displays on the result section, there is a new error appearing in the console of the updated fiddle: Uncaught Error: Cannot perform operations on a Metamorph that is not in the DOM. Finally solved I needed to comment out App.initialize() for it to work as expected. This the working fiddle ** http://jsfiddle.net/ACzaJ/20/. I don't know why that is so, but my guess is that, App.initialize works with other parts like the router for routing, ApplicationController and ApplicationView with {{outlet}} in the handlebars, which i didn't need for this fiddle. Finally Finally and completely solved This ** http://jsfiddle.net/tQWn8/ works with App.initialize. But you have to declare all those components above and pass the router to App.initialize, like this App..initialize(router). If you don't do this, then you will get the old error Uncaught Error: Cannot perform operations on a Metamorph that is not in the DOM.

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  • Link to Hotmail / Windows Live email compose -- maintaining BCC

    - by Curtis Gibby
    My app creates a mailto-esque link that takes the end user to a Hotmail compose screen with various attributes pre-filled. Most of the functionality I need is working: to, cc, subject, body. However, Hotmail seems to be stripping out any BCC attributes that I pass into the URL. For example, this link works as advertised: http://mail.live.com/mail/EditMessageLight.aspx?n=&[email protected]&[email protected];%[email protected]&subject=the%20subject&body=the%20body I get the one email address in the To field and two in the CC field. But when I try the exact same URL except substituting "bcc" for "cc", the two addresses are nowhere to be found. http://mail.live.com/mail/EditMessageLight.aspx?n=&[email protected]&[email protected];%[email protected]&subject=the%20subject&body=the%20body This link format is posted all over the web (along with a variation like http://mail.live.com/default.aspx?rru=compose%3f[attributes] ), but none of the various settings that I've tried actually work to bring in the BCC addresses. I need the BCC so that the email recipients are not given each others' email addresses. My versions of this url for regular old mailto, along with Gmail and Yahoo Mail, work perfectly. Surprise surprise.

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  • Proper way to set PYTHONPATH (including precedence)

    - by Wells
    In .bashrc I have: export PYTHONPATH=/home/wells/py-mlb I've verified this is actually being set. so, in this directory is another directory called 'py_mlb'- the actual module. So I go python -v and then import py_mlb but it does: >>> import py_mlb import py_mlb # directory /usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/py_mlb Then I do import sys and print sys.path and I see: >>> print sys.path ['', '/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/python_memcached-1.44-py2.6.egg', '/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/pymc-2.1alpha-py2.6-linux-i686.egg', '/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/nose-0.11.1-py2.6.egg', '/home/wells/py-mlb', '/usr/lib/python2.6', '/usr/lib/python2.6/plat-linux2', '/usr/lib/python2.6/lib-tk', '/usr/lib/python2.6/lib-old', '/usr/lib/python2.6/lib-dynload', '/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages', '/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dev-packages', '/usr/lib/pymodules/python2.6', '/usr/lib/pymodules/python2.6/gtk-2.0', '/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages'] So my path from .bashrc IS in there, and from the look of it it's even before dist-packages but it's importing the module from dist-packages. How can I finagle this so the PYTHONPATH as defined by .bashrc takes precedence? Thanks!

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  • Compiler optimization causing the performance to slow down

    - by aJ
    I have one strange problem. I have following piece of code: template<clss index, class policy> inline int CBase<index,policy>::func(const A& test_in, int* srcPtr ,int* dstPtr) { int width = test_in.width(); int height = test_in.height(); double d = 0.0; //here is the problem for(int y = 0; y < height; y++) { //Pointer initializations //multiplication involving y //ex: int z = someBigNumber*y + someOtherBigNumber; for(int x = 0; x < width; x++) { //multiplication involving x //ex: int z = someBigNumber*x + someOtherBigNumber; if(soemCondition) { // floating point calculations } *dstPtr++ = array[*srcPtr++]; } } } The inner loop gets executed nearly 200,000 times and the entire function takes 100 ms for completion. ( profiled using AQTimer) I found an unused variable double d = 0.0; outside the outer loop and removed the same. After this change, suddenly the method is taking 500ms for the same number of executions. ( 5 times slower). This behavior is reproducible in different machines with different processor types. (Core2, dualcore processors). I am using VC6 compiler with optimization level O2. Follwing are the other compiler options used : -MD -O2 -Z7 -GR -GX -G5 -X -GF -EHa I suspected compiler optimizations and removed the compiler optimization /O2. After that function became normal and it is taking 100ms as old code. Could anyone throw some light on this strange behavior? Why compiler optimization should slow down performance when I remove unused variable ? Note: The assembly code (before and after the change) looked same.

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  • Javascript Error with DataTable jQuery plugin

    - by stevoyoung
    I am getting a JS error and what to know what it means and how to solve it. (JS noob here) Error: "tId is not defined" Line of JS with error: "if (s[i].sInstance = tId) { " More Information I am using the Data Table (http://datatables.net) jQuery plugin. I have a two tables with a class of "dataTable" loaded on a page (inside of jQuery UI tabs). The tables render as expected but I get the error above in Firebug. Attached is my Data Table config file... $(document).ready(function() { //Take from: http://datatables.net/forums/comments.php?DiscussionID=1507 // before creating a table, make sure it is not already created. // And if it is, then remove old version before new one is created var currTable = $(".dataTable"); if (currTable) { // contains the dataTables master records var s = $(document).dataTableSettings; if (s != 'undefined') { var len = s.length; for (var i=0; i < len; i++) { // if already exists, remove from the array if (s[i].sInstance = tId) { s.splice(i,1); } } } } oTable = $('.dataTable').dataTable({ "bJQueryUI": true, "sPaginationType": "full_numbers", "bFilter": false }); }); What does the error mean and how do I resolve it?

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  • Is SQLDataReader slower than using the command line utility sqlcmd?

    - by Andrew
    I was recently advocating to a colleague that we replace some C# code that uses the sqlcmd command line utility with a SqlDataReader. The old code uses: System.Diagnostics.ProcessStartInfo procStartInfo = new System.Diagnostics.ProcessStartInfo("cmd", "/c " + sqlCmd); wher sqlCmd is something like "sqlcmd -S " + serverName + " -y 0 -h-1 -Q " + "\"" + "USE [" + database + "]" + ";+ txtQuery.Text +"\"";\ The results are then parsed using regular expressions. I argued that using a SQLDataReader woud be more in line with industry practices, easier to debug and maintain and probably faster. However, the SQLDataReader approach is at least the same speed and quite possibly slower. I believe I'm doing everything correctly with SQLDataReader. The code is: using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection()) { try { SqlConnectionStringBuilder builder = new SqlConnectionStringBuilder(connectionString); connection.ConnectionString = builder.ToString(); ; SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(queryString, connection); connection.Open(); SqlDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader(); // do stuff w/ reader reader.Close(); } catch (Exception ex) { outputMessage += (ex.Message); } } I've used System.Diagnostics.Stopwatch to time both approaches and the command line utility (called from C# code) does seem faster (20-40%?). The SqlDataReader has the neat feature that when the same code is called again, it's lightening fast, but for this application we don't anticipate that. I have already done some research on this problem. I note that the command line utility sqlcmd uses OLE DB technology to hit the database. Is that faster than ADO.NET? I'm really suprised, especially since the command line utility approach involves starting up a process. I really thought it would be slower. Any thoughts? Thanks, Dave

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  • Where is my Drupal View pager?

    - by anotherthink
    Hi, I have a Drupal 6 site where I've created a view that shows a list of nodes. Nothing complicated -- except that when I choose "use pager" -- "yes" (and choose the "full pager" option), the pager doesn't show up on the page. The first page of nodes shows up, but there's no way to get to other pages. Through googling, I saw that some people had an issue with the "Pager Element" item, so I changed that from 0 to 1 -- no luck. This shouldn't be very complicated, but I've been at it for a while! Help!? ETA: I've tracked it down to the following lines in /modules/views/theme/theme.inc: $pager_theme = views_theme_functions($pager_type, $view, $view->display_handler->display); $vars['pager'] = theme($pager_theme, $exposed_input, $view->pager['items_per_page'], $view->pager['element']); The first line returns an array; the second line returns nothing. I suspect now that this is a theming problem with the custom theme I'm using that may not have fully been correctly updated for Drupal 6 -- like, maybe I'm missing a pager template somehow? -- however, I'm quite new to Drupal and don't really understand how to further track down and fix the issue. Any advice would be much appreciated! ETA yet again: The pager also doesn't show up when using Garland, so it's not a theme issue after all. ALSO: I have a copy of this site set up on a development server as well, and that copy has working pagination! I've checked what I thought might be different -- files in the theme, what modules are enabled -- and it seems like pretty much everything is the same. The one thing that I know is different, however, is that the production server has a lower version of MySQL (lower than recommended for Drupal 6 -- we're waiting on the hosting company being able to change this later). Would it make sense that the old version of MySQL is unable to do pagination correctly in Drupal 6? If so, does anyone know a workaround I can do until we are able to update MySQL?

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  • Input validation in WPF

    - by irfanali-wpfexpert
    i am developing an application in wpf using MVVM design pattern. i have a listbox when an item is slected then a dialog is open having the same record in editable mode. this dialog is binded with the selected item of the list. i have apply the validation rule for textbox using IDataErrorInfo. when the user update a record on dialogbox then at every key press, the selected record in listbox is also changed. if the user press save button then i submit changes to database. but if user click cancel button then i do not submit changes to database but the list box is updated with the current updation in GUI. when i refresh the list then old value appears again. My requirement is to update the listbox only when the user hit the save button but not on every key press on dialog box. I first fill the generic list with the linq to sql classes then bind the listbox with it. Please let me know what i have to do. Thanks in advance

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  • Product Catalog Schema design

    - by FlySwat
    I'm building a proof of concept schema for a product catalog to possibly replace a very aging and crufty one we use. In our business, we sell both physical materials and services (one time and reoccurring charges). The current catalog schema has each distinct category broken out into individual tables, while this is nicely normalized and performs well, it is fairly difficult to extend. Adding a new attribute to a particular product involves changing the table schema and backpopulating old data. An idea I've been toying with has been something along the line of a base set of entity tables in 3rd normal form, these will contain the facts that are common among ALL products. Then, I'd like to build an Attribute-Entity-Value schema that allows each entity type to be extended in a flexible way using just data and no schema changes. Finally, I'd like to denormalize this data model into materialized views for each individual entity type. This views are what the application would access. We also have many tables that contain business rules and compatibility rules. These would join against the base entity tables instead of the views. My big concerns here are: Performance - Attribute-Entity-Value schemas are flexible, but typically perform poorly, should I be concerned? More Performance - Denormalizing using materialized views may have some risks, I'm not positive on this yet. Complexity - While this schema is flexible and maintainable using just data, I worry that the complexity of the design might make future schema changes difficult. For those who have designed product catalogs for large scale enterprises, am I going down the totally wrong path? Is there any good best practice schema design reading available for product catalogs?

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  • CSS background image being downloaded more than once

    - by Nick Clarke
    I noticed in my current project that Firefox (3.5.4) downloads the background image (set in CSS) for my divs more than once. I've checked with both firebug and wireshark and it really does appear that it does not wait for the first request to finish and then simply use the cached version. Wireshark also confirms that Chrome and IE8 do as expected and only request the image once. Any ideas what might be causing this? Here is a small test: Sample Page or <html> <head> <style> #one { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } #two { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } #three { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } </style> </head> <body> <div id="one"></div> <div id="two"></div> <div id="three"></div> </body> EDIT I opened up a bug request as I could not find one already on bugzilla, but it turns out to be an old bug with 3.5. https://bugzilla.mozilla.org/show_bug.cgi?id=497665

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  • Long running stateful service in .NET

    - by Asaf R
    Hi, I need to create a service in .NET that maintains (inner) state in-memory, spawns multiple threads and is generally long-running. There are a lot options - Good-old Windows Service Windows Communication Services Windows Workflow Foundation I really don't know which to choose. Most of the functionality is in a library used by this service, so the service itself is rather simple. On one hand, it's important the service host is as close to "simply working" as possible, which excludes Windows Service. On the other hand, it's important that the service is not taken down by the host just because there's no external activity, which makes WCF kind o' "scary". As for WF, it's strongest selling point is the ability to create processes as, um..., workflows, which is something I don't need nor want. To sum it up, the plethora of Microsoft technologies got me a bit confused. I'd appreciate help regarding the pros and cons of each solution (or other's I've failed to mention) for the problem of a stateful, long running service in .NET Thanks, Asaf P.S., I'm using .NET 4. EDIT: What I mean by the host "simply working" is, for example, that the service I create be reactivated if it crashes. I guess the reason for this question is that I've created Windows Services in the past (I think it was in plain C++ with Win32 API), and I don't want to miss out on something simpler if there's is such as thing. Thanks for all the replies thus far! Asaf.

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  • managed beans as managed properties

    - by Sean
    I am using JSF 1.1 on WebSphere 6.1. I am building search functionality within an application and am having some issues. I've stripped out the extras, and have left myself with the following: 4 managed beans: SearchController - Controller bean, session scope SearchResults - session scope (store the results) ProductSearch - session scope (store the search conditions) ResultsBacking - Backing bean for DataTable, used to determine which row was clicked, request scope The SearchController bean has, as managed properties, the other 3. All except ResultsBacking are session scoped. If there is only 1 item in the search results, I want to bring up that record directly. I call setFirst(0) for the data table in the ResultsBacking method (I want to use the existing method that handle which item was clicked, so this is called right after the setFirst). When I go to do another search, I get an IllegalArgumentException when calling getRowData in the data table. According to the api, this is thrown 'if now(sic) row data is available at the currently specified row index'. I'm confused as to why this happens. It works the first time but not the second. Do I need to remove the ResultsBacking on a new search to get rid of the old state?

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  • Installing paperclip plugin

    - by mnml
    I'm trying to install the paperclip plugin with the following command: ruby script/plugin install git://github.com/thoughtbot/paperclip.git But I'm getting some errors: ruby script/plugin install git://github.com/thoughtbot/paperclip.git --force svn: '/home/app/vendor/plugins' is not a working copy /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/open-uri.rb:32:in `initialize': No such file or directory - git://github.com/thoughtbot/paperclip.git (Errno::ENOENT) from /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/open-uri.rb:32:in `open_uri_original_open' from /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/open-uri.rb:32:in `open' from ./script/../config/../vendor/rails/railties/lib/commands/plugin.rb:863:in `fetch_dir' from ./script/../config/../vendor/rails/railties/lib/commands/plugin.rb:857:in `fetch' from ./script/../config/../vendor/rails/railties/lib/commands/plugin.rb:856:in `each' from ./script/../config/../vendor/rails/railties/lib/commands/plugin.rb:856:in `fetch' from ./script/../config/../vendor/rails/railties/lib/commands/plugin.rb:219:in `install_using_http' from ./script/../config/../vendor/rails/railties/lib/commands/plugin.rb:169:in `send' from ./script/../config/../vendor/rails/railties/lib/commands/plugin.rb:169:in `install' from ./script/../config/../vendor/rails/railties/lib/commands/plugin.rb:734:in `parse!' from ./script/../config/../vendor/rails/railties/lib/commands/plugin.rb:732:in `each' from ./script/../config/../vendor/rails/railties/lib/commands/plugin.rb:732:in `parse!' from ./script/../config/../vendor/rails/railties/lib/commands/plugin.rb:447:in `parse!' from ./script/../config/../vendor/rails/railties/lib/commands/plugin.rb:463:in `parse!' from ./script/../config/../vendor/rails/railties/lib/commands/plugin.rb:871 from script/plugin:3:in `require' from script/plugin:3 Is it because I'm using a old rails version?

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  • Weblogic 10.3.0 : Loosing a stateless session bean in the bean pool

    - by KlasE
    Hi, We have a strange situation where we loose a Stateless SessionBean in a Bean Pool in Weblogic 10.3.0 Since we only have one bean in the pool, this effectively hangs all incoming calls. We do not want more than one instance in the pool because of application restrictions. In the Weblogic admin console, we can see that there are 1 instance in the bean pool, 0 beans in use and 1 waiting incoming request. The question is, what can have caused the system to not send the request to the one obviously free bean instance? This happens after several hours and over 100000 incoming requests, and the same scenario worked fine in the old weblogic 8 environment. We get the following stacktrace: "[ACTIVE] ExecuteThread: '5' for queue: 'weblogic.kernel.Default (self-tuning)'" waiting for lock java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject@b0d484 TIMED_WAITING sun.misc.Unsafe.park(Native Method) java.util.concurrent.locks.LockSupport.parkNanos(LockSupport.java:198) java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject.await(AbstractQueuedSynchronizer.java:2054) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.waitForBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:269) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.getBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:111) weblogic.ejb.container.manager.StatelessManager.preInvoke(StatelessManager.java:148) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.BaseRemoteObject.preInvoke(BaseRemoteObject.java:227) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.StatelessRemoteObject.preInvoke(StatelessRemoteObject.java:52) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.isMyStuffValid(MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.java:261) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl_WLSkel.invoke(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.invoke(BasicServerRef.java:589) weblogic.rmi.cluster.ClusterableServerRef.invoke(ClusterableServerRef.java:230) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef$1.run(BasicServerRef.java:477) weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:363) weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.handleRequest(BasicServerRef.java:473) weblogic.rmi.internal.wls.WLSExecuteRequest.run(WLSExecuteRequest.java:118) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:201) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:173) Any help would be very welcome. Regards Klas

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  • looking for a license key algorithm.

    - by giulio
    There are a lot of questions relating to license keys asked on stackoverflow. But they don't answer this question. Can anyone provide a simple license key algorithm that is technology independent and doesn't required a diploma in mathematics to understand ? The license key algorithm is similar to public key encryption. I just need something simple that can be implemented in any platform .Net/Java and uses simple data like characters. Preferably no byte translations required. So if a person presents a string, a complementary string can be generated that is the authorisation code. Below is a common scenario that it would be used for. Customer downloads s/w which generates a unique key upon initial startup/installation. S/w runs during trial period. At end of trial period an authorisation key is required. Customer goes to designated web-site, enters their code and get authorisation code to enable s/w, after paying :) Don't be afraid to describe your answer as though you're talking to a 5 yr old as I am not a mathemtician. Just need a decent basic algorithm, we're not launching nukes... NB: Please no philosophy on encryption nor who is Diffie-Hellman. I just need a basic solution.

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