Search Results

Search found 11825 results on 473 pages for 'all tech stuff'.

Page 404/473 | < Previous Page | 400 401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411  | Next Page >

  • How to make a program not show up in Alt-Tab or on the taskbar.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    I have a program that needs to sit in the background and when a user connects to a RDP session it will do some stuff then launch a program. when the program is closed it will do some housekeeping and logoff the session. The current way I am doing it is like this I have the terminal server launch this application. I have it set as a windows forms application and my code is this public static void Main() { //Do some setup work Process proc = new Process(); //setup the process proc.Start(); proc.WaitForExit(); //Do some housecleaning NativeMethods.ExitWindowsEx(0, 0); } I really like this because there is no item in the taskbar and there is nothing showing up in alt-tab. However to do this I gave up access to functions like void WndProc(ref Message m) So Now I can't listen to windows messages (Like WTS_REMOTE_DISCONNECT or WTS_SESSION_LOGOFF) and do not have a handle to use for for bool WTSRegisterSessionNotification(IntPtr hWnd, int dwFlags); I would like my code to be more robust so it will do the housecleaning if the user logs off or disconnects from the session before he closes the program. Any reccomendations on how I can have my cake and eat it too?

    Read the article

  • Is this an acceptable use of "ASCII arithmetic"?

    - by jmgant
    I've got a string value of the form 10123X123456 where 10 is the year, 123 is the day number within the year, and the rest is unique system-generated stuff. Under certain circumstances, I need to add 400 to the day number, so that the number above, for example, would become 10523X123456. My first idea was to substring those three characters, convert them to an integer, add 400 to it, convert them back to a string and then call replace on the original string. That works. But then it occurred to me that the only character I actually need to change is the third one, and that the original value would always be 0-3, so there would never be any "carrying" problems. It further occurred to me that the ASCII code points for the numbers are consecutive, so adding the number 4 to the character "0", for example, would result in "4", and so forth. So that's what I ended up doing. My question is, is there any reason that won't always work? I generally avoid "ASCII arithmetic" on the grounds that it's not cross-platform or internationalization friendly. But it seems reasonable to assume that the code points for numbers will always be sequential, i.e., "4" will always be 1 more than "3". Anybody see any problem with this reasoning? Here's the code. string input = "10123X123456"; input[2] += 4; //Output should be 10523X123456

    Read the article

  • How strict should I be in the "do the simplest thing that could possible work" while doing TDD

    - by Support - multilanguage SO
    For TDD you have to Create a test that fail Do the simplest thing that could possible work to pass the test Add more variants of the test and repeat Refactor when a pattern emerge With this approach you're supposing to cover all the cases ( that comes to my mind at least) but I'm wonder if am I being too strict here and if it is possible to "think ahead" some scenarios instead of simple discover them. For instance, I'm processing a file and if it doesn't conform to a certain format I am to throw an InvalidFormatException So my first test was: @Test void testFormat(){ // empty doesn't do anything... processor.validate("empty.txt"); try { processor.validate("invalid.txt"); assert false: "Should have thrown InvalidFormatException"; } catch( InvalidFormatException ife ) { assert "Invalid format".equals( ife.getMessage() ); } } I run it and it fails because it doesn't throw an exception. So the next thing that comes to my mind is: "Do the simplest thing that could possible work", so I : public void validate( String fileName ) throws InvalidFormatException { if(fileName.equals("invalid.txt") { throw new InvalidFormatException("Invalid format"); } } Doh!! ( although the real code is a bit more complicated, I found my self doing something like this several times ) I know that I have to eventually add another file name and other test that would make this approach impractical and that would force me to refactor to something that makes sense ( which if I understood correctly is the point of TDD, to discover the patterns the usage unveils ) but: Q: am I taking too literal the "Do the simplest thing..." stuff?

    Read the article

  • Using EhCache for session.createCriteria(...).list()

    - by James Smith
    I'm benchmarking the performance gains from using a 2nd level cache in Hibernate (enabling EhCache), but it doesn't seem to improve performance. In fact, the time to perform the query slightly increases. The query is: session.createCriteria(MyEntity.class).list(); The entity is: @Entity @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.NONSTRICT_READ_WRITE) public class MyEntity { @Id @GeneratedValue private long id; @Column(length=5000) private String data; //---SNIP getters and setters--- } My hibernate.cfg.xml is: <!-- all the normal stuff to get it to connect & map the entities plus:--> <property name="hibernate.cache.region.factory_class"> net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.EhCacheRegionFactory </property> The MyEntity table contains about 2000 rows. The problem is that before adding in the cache, the query above to list all entities took an average of 65 ms. After the cache, they take an average of 74 ms. Is there something I'm missing? Is there something extra that needs to be done that will increase performance?

    Read the article

  • JPA entitylisteners and @embeddable

    - by seanizer
    I have a class hierarchy of JPA entities that all inherit from a BaseEntity class: @MappedSuperclass @EntityListeners( { ValidatorListener.class }) public abstract class BaseEntity implements Serializable { // other stuff } I want all entities that implement a given interface to be validated automatically on persist and/or update. Here's what I've got. My ValidatorListener: public class ValidatorListener { private enum Type { PERSIST, UPDATE } @PrePersist public void checkPersist(final Object entity) { if (entity instanceof Validateable) { this.check((Validateable) entity, Type.PERSIST); } } @PreUpdate public void checkUpdate(final Object entity) { if (entity instanceof Validateable) { this.check((Validateable) entity, Type.UPDATE); } } private void check(final Validateable entity, final Type persist) { switch (persist) { case PERSIST: if (entity instanceof Persist) { ((Persist) entity).persist(); } if (entity instanceof PersistOrUpdate) { ((PersistOrUpdate) entity).persistOrUpdate(); } break; case UPDATE: if (entity instanceof Update) { ((Update) entity).update(); } if (entity instanceof PersistOrUpdate) { ((PersistOrUpdate) entity).persistOrUpdate(); } break; default: break; } } } and here's my Validateable interface that it checks against (the outer interface is just a marker, the inner contain the methods): public interface Validateable { interface Persist extends Validateable { void persist(); } interface PersistOrUpdate extends Validateable { void persistOrUpdate(); } interface Update extends Validateable { void update(); } } All of this works, however I would like to extend this behavior to Embeddable classes. I know two solutions: call the validation method of the embeddable object manually from the entity validation method: public void persistOrUpdate(){ // validate my own properties first // then manually validate the embeddable property: myEmbeddable.persistOrUpdate(); // this works but I'd like something that I don't have to call manually } use reflection, checking all properties to see if their type is of one of their interface types. This would work, but it's not pretty. Is there a more elegant solution?

    Read the article

  • Ajax Request using jQuery in Rails

    - by Steve
    Hi... I am sending an Ajax Request using jQuery. What happens is that I am getting an "405 Method Not Allowed" Error. I am just posting a form, which would get the detail from the form and insert it into the DB. Just the usual stuff.I am using WEBrick that comes as default with the rails package. Can somebody please tell me how to fix this. This is the code that triggers the Ajax Request $.post($(this).attr("action") + ".js",$(this).serialize(),null,"script"); Response Headers Cache-Control no-cache Allow GET, PUT, DELETE Content-Type text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length 9502 Server WEBrick/1.3.1 (Ruby/1.9.1/2009-12-07) Date Wed, 02 Jun 2010 20:41:33 GMT Connection Keep-Alive Request Headers Host localhost:3000 User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Macintosh; U; Intel Mac OS X 10.6; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 Accept application/json, text/javascript, */* Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 115 Connection keep-alive Content-Type application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=UTF-8 X-Requested-With XMLHttpRequest Referer http://localhost:3000/viewspot/3 Content-Length 141 Pragma no-cache Cache-Control no-cache

    Read the article

  • Why is search functionality not working on this page?

    - by DaveDev
    we deliver micro-site content for our client. Our content is injected into a wrapper that is supplied by another developer. To deliver our content we host the wrapper as well as the content. The user can access this at http://fundcentre.newireland.ie/ (try a search for 'bloxham') For the other content that is not ours, the other developer hosts a similar (though slightly different) wrapper and delivers the content. the user accesses this here: http://www.newireland.ie/ (try a search for 'bloxham') The wrapper contains a search box, which does not work for us but it works for the other developer. I took a look at the network traffic with FireBug but it appears that when I do the search from the wrapper that we're hosting, I'm getting a "407 Proxy Access Denied" error. My guess is their proxy has a problem with the fact that the search is being conducted from a page hosted outside the scope of their proxy. It was also suggested that there were javascript errors on the page that were preventing the search from executing but I can't see any. Also, I don't think I'd get as far as the proxy error if that was the case. I don't really understand this stuff too well though, so could somebody with a bit more experience please take a look and maybe shed some light on this for me? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Fluently.Configure without explicitly entering types.

    - by user86431
    I'm trying to take my fluent mapping past the basic stuff that I've found here: http://wiki.fluentnhibernate.org/Fluent_configuration Where they explicitly add each type like this: ISessionFactory localFactory = Fluently.Configure() .Database( ObjectFactory.GetInstance<SybaseConfiguration>().GetSybaseDialect( "BLAH" ) ) .Mappings( m => { m.HbmMappings .AddFromAssemblyOf<StudTestEO>(); m.FluentMappings .AddFromAssemblyOf<StudTestEO>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<StudTestEOMap>(); } ) .BuildSessionFactory(); .BuildSessionFactory(); and trying to be able to take the assembly, get a list of it's types and pass that in instead kindf like this string FullEoAssemblyFName = webAccessHdl.GetMapPath(EoAssemblyFName); string FullMapAssemblyFName = webAccessHdl.GetMapPath(MapAssemblyFName); string FullConfigFileName = webAccessHdl.GetMapPath("~/" + NHibernateConfigFileName); if (!File.Exists(FullEoAssemblyFName)) throw new Exception("GetFactoryByConfigFile, EoAssemblyFName does not exist>" + FullEoAssemblyFName + "<"); if (!File.Exists(FullMapAssemblyFName)) throw new Exception("GetFactoryByConfigFile, MapAssemblyFName does not exist>" + FullMapAssemblyFName + "<"); if (!File.Exists(FullConfigFileName)) throw new Exception("GetFactoryByConfigFile, ConfigFile does not exist>" + FullConfigFileName + "<"); Configuration configuration = new Configuration(); Assembly EoAssembly = Assembly.LoadFrom(webAccessHdl.GetMapPath(EoAssemblyFName)); Assembly MapAssembly = Assembly.LoadFrom(webAccessHdl.GetMapPath(MapAssemblyFName)); Type[] EoType = EoAssembly.GetTypes(); Type[] MapType = MapAssembly.GetTypes(); ISessionFactory localFactory = fluent.Mappings( m => { // how do i add all the types from type array here? m.FluentMappings.Add(MapAssembly).AddFromAssembly(EoAssembly); } ) .BuildSessionFactory(); To get it to load the types genericly instead of explicitly.. has anyone done this, or see any good links to articles I should look at? Thanks, E-

    Read the article

  • Object Design catalog and resources

    - by Tauren
    I'm looking for web sites, books, or other resources that provide a catalog of object designs used in common scenarios. I'm not looking for generic design patterns, but for samples of actual object designs that were used to solve real problems. For instance, I'm about to build an internal messaging system for a web application, similar to Facebook's messaging system. This system will allow administrators to send messages to all members, to selected groups of members, or to individuals. Members can send messages to other members or groups of members. Fairly common stuff and a feature that I'm sure thousands of web applications require. I know each situation is different and there are a million ways to design this solution. Although this scenario isn't really all that complex, I'm sure the basic design of the necessary objects and relationships for a system like this has already been done many times. It would be nice to review other similar designs before building my own. Is there a place where people can share their designs and others can browse/search through the catalog to review and provide feedback on them? StackOverflow could be used to a degree for this, but doesn't really provide a catalog of designs. Any other resources that would relate?

    Read the article

  • Is it necessary to var scope loop variables in CFScript?

    - by Mel
    When using CFML and CF9 I usually var scope my loop variables; in this case local.i, for example: <cfloop list="#this.list#" index="local.i"> <cfif Len(local.i) GT 10> // do something </cfif> </cfloop> I recently started converting some stuff into CFScript, and (to my disappointment I found out that there is no way to loop over a list in CFScript) I'm wondering if I should still var scope my loop variables, and how: for (i = 1; LTE ListLen(this.list); i = i + 1 ) { if (Len(ListGetAt(this.list, i) GT 10)) { // do something } } Should I be doing local.i = 1 and local.i = local.i + 1 istead of the sample code in my example? Is it necessary? EDIT: I should also ask if the CFScript form of my CFML loop is correct; I ask because I just noticed that my CFML loop uses a , (comma and space) for the delimiter argument, which seems non-existence in the CFScript version of the loop.

    Read the article

  • WCF - "Encountered unexpected character 'c'."

    - by Villager
    Hello, I am trying to do something that I thought would be simple. I need to create a WCF service that I can post to via JQuery. I have an operation in my WCF service that is defined as follows: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, RequestFormat=WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat=WebMessageFormat.Json)] public string SendMessage(string message, int urgency) { try { // Do stuff return "1"; // 1 represents success } catch (Exception) { return "0"; } } I then try to access this operation from an ASP.NET page via JQuery. My JQuery code to access this operation looks like the following: function sendMessage(message) { $.ajax({ url: "/resources/services/myService.svc/SendMessage", type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: ({ message: message, urgency: '1' }), dataType: "json", success: function (data) { alert("here!"); }, error: function (req, msg, obj) { alert("error: " + req.responseText); } }); } When I execute this script, the error handler is tripped. In it, I receive an error that says: "Encountered unexpected character 'c'." This message is included with a long stack trace. My question is, what am I doing wrong? I have received other posts such as this one (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/320291/how-to-post-an-array-of-complex-objects-with-json-jquery-to-asp-net-mvc-controll) without any luck. How do I get this basic interaction working? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • DNS protocol message example

    - by virtual-lab
    hello there, I am trying to figure out how to send out DNS messages from an application socket adapter to a DNSBL. I spent the last two days understanding the basics, including experimenting with WireShark to catch an example of message exchanged. Now I would like to query the DNS without using dig or host command (I'm using Ubuntu); how can I perform this action at low level, without the help of these tools in wrapping the request in a proper DNS message format? How the message should be post it? Hex or String? Thanks in advance for any help. Regards Alessandro Ilardo Comment added I am investigating on JDev and Oracle SOA. The platform provides a Socket Adapter which simply apply a transformation (XSLT) and send the message straight to the socket. How the payload parameters (ex. the host I'm looking up) are wrapped within the message is left to the developer. So basically I have an idea on how the all DNS message is structured, but rather than put everything on JDev stright away I'd like to make some tests on my own just to make sure I got a valid message format. So, I am not using any specific language (I don't even understand why they moved my question from serverfault) and I don't want to use any tools which would hide part of the message, such as the header. I know they work well btw. I guess this stuff has something to do with packet injection. Someone suggested me to use telnet, but I've only used for SMTP or HTTP, I haven't got a clue on how it works for DNS request. Does it make more sense now?

    Read the article

  • Java and Jasper

    - by bhargava
    Hey Guys, I have integrated Jasper Reports on my netbeans platform and i am able to generate reports using the following code. Map<String, Object> params = new HashMap<String, Object>(); Connection conn = DriverManager.getConnection("databaseUrl", "userid","password"); JasperReport jasperReport = JasperCompileManager.compileReport(reportSource); JasperPrint jasperPrint = JasperFillManager.fillReport(jasperReport, params, conn); JasperExportManager.exportReportToHtmlFile(jasperPrint, reportDest); JasperViewer.viewReport(jasperPrint); This stuff works perfect. But not i am trying to integrate Jasper with GWT.I have my server as glass fish server. I am getting the Connection object using the followind code. public static Connection getConnection() { try { String JNDI = "JNDI name"; InitialContext initCtx = new InitialContext(); javax.sql.DataSource ds = (javax.sql.DataSource) initCtx.lookup(JNDI); Connection conn = (Connection) ds.getConnection(); return conn; } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } return null; } and then Map params = new HashMap(); JasperReport jasperReport = JasperCompileManager.compileReport(reportSource); JasperPrint jasperPrint = JasperFillManager.fillReport(jasperReport, params, getConnection()); JasperExportManager.exportReportToHtmlFile(jasperPrint, reportDest); JasperViewer.viewReport(jasperPrint); but i always get Error.I am implementing this on Server.I am having RPC calls to get this method to work when a button is clicked. Can you please help me how to work on this.(That is to integrate Jasper reports with GWT). I would highly appreciate any explanation with some code as i am just a beginner. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Python refuses text.replace() in one environment

    - by gx
    Hi fellow programmers, I've been mocking about with the following bit of dirty support-code for a pylons app, which works fine in a python-shell, a separate python file, or when running in paster. Now, we've put the application on-line through mod_wsgi and apache and this specific piece of code stopped working completely. First off, the code itself: def fixStyle(self, text): t = text.replace('<p>', '<p style="%s">' % (STYLEDEF,)) t = t.replace('class="wide"', 'style="width: 125px; %s"' % (DEFSTYLE,)) t = t.replace('<td>', '<td style="%s">' % (STYLEDEF,)) t = t.replace('<a ', '<a style="%s" ' % (LINKSTYLE,)) return t It seems pretty straightforward, and to be honest, it is. So what happens when I put a piece of text in it, for example: <table><tr><td>Test!</td></tr></table> The output should be: <table><tr><td style="stuff-from-styledef">Test!</td></tr></table> and it is, on most systems. When we put it through the app on Apache/mod_wsgi though, the following happens: <table><tr><td>Test!</td></tr></table> You guessed it. I'm currently at a loss and have no idea where to go next. Googling doesn't really work out, so I'm hoping on you guys to help out and perhaps point out a fundamental issue with using whatever-is-causing-this. If anything is missing I'll edit it in.

    Read the article

  • Continue gif animation after escape is pressed

    - by cottsak
    Firefox (and other browsers i believe) stop gif animation when you click the Stop button or invoke it via the Escape key. I have a text input that on change makes ajax requests to update other elements. As part of this ajaxyness i have an animated gif to show feedback. I also trap the escape key press in this input so as to clear the text field for better UX. My problem is after the escape key is pressed once, none of the ajax gifs animate anymore until the page is refreshed. Does anyone know a workaround? Stuff i've tried: I tried the e.stopPropagation(); and e.cancelBubble = true; in the function handling the e.keyCode == 27 and that didn't seem to work. I suspect that this stops trigging more js events and the browser catches the escape irrespective of js activity. I have the gif showing/hiding via adding/removing a css class so it's difficult to apply the "change gif url to reset" workaround. I dont even know if this works anyway - didn't test it. But it seems difficult. If anyone knows that this works and knows of an easy way to apply the hack with background-image: url(../images/ajax-loader_dotcirclel13x13.gif); css then please let me know.

    Read the article

  • How can I merge two Linq IEnumerable<T> queries without running them?

    - by makerofthings7
    How do I merge a List<T> of TPL-based tasks for later execution? public async IEnumerable<Task<string>> CreateTasks(){ /* stuff*/ } My assumption is .Concat() but that doesn't seem to work: void MainTestApp() // Full sample available upon request. { List<string> nothingList = new List<string>(); nothingList.Add("whatever"); cts = new CancellationTokenSource(); delayedExecution = from str in nothingList select AccessTheWebAsync("", cts.Token); delayedExecution2 = from str in nothingList select AccessTheWebAsync("1", cts.Token); delayedExecution = delayedExecution.Concat(delayedExecution2); } /// SNIP async Task AccessTheWebAsync(string nothing, CancellationToken ct) { // return a Task } I want to make sure that this won't spawn any task or evaluate anything. In fact, I suppose I'm asking "what logically executes an IQueryable to something that returns data"? Background Since I'm doing recursion and I don't want to execute this until the correct time, what is the correct way to merge the results if called multiple times? If it matters I'm thinking of running this command to launch all the tasks var AllRunningDataTasks = results.ToList(); followed by this code: while (AllRunningDataTasks.Count > 0) { // Identify the first task that completes. Task<TableResult> firstFinishedTask = await Task.WhenAny(AllRunningDataTasks); // ***Remove the selected task from the list so that you don't // process it more than once. AllRunningDataTasks.Remove(firstFinishedTask); // TODO: Await the completed task. var taskOfTableResult = await firstFinishedTask; // Todo: (doen't work) TrustState thisState = (TrustState)firstFinishedTask.AsyncState; // TODO: Update the concurrent dictionary with data // thisState.QueryStartPoint + thisState.ThingToSearchFor Interlocked.Decrement(ref thisState.RunningDirectQueries); Interlocked.Increment(ref thisState.CompletedDirectQueries); if (thisState.RunningDirectQueries == 0) { thisState.TimeCompleted = DateTime.UtcNow; } }

    Read the article

  • Database class is not correctly connecting to my database.

    - by blerh
    I'm just venturing into the world of OOP so forgive me if this is a n00bish question. This is what I have on index.php: $dbObj = new Database(); $rsObj = new RS($dbObj); This is the Database class: class Database { private $dbHost; private $dbUser; private $dbPasswd; private $dbName; private $sqlCount; function __construct() { $this->dbHost = 'localhost'; $this->dbUser = 'root'; $this->dbPasswd = ''; $this->dbName = 'whatever'; $this->sqlCount = 0; } function connect() { $this->link = mysql_connect($this->db_host, $this->db_user, $this->db_passwd); if(!$this->link) $this->error(mysql_error()); $this->selection = mysql_select_db($this->db_name, $this->link); if(!$this->selection) $this->error(mysql_error()); } } I've shortened it to just the connect() method to simplify things. This is the RS class: class RS { private $username; private $password; function __construct($dbObj) { // We need to get an account from the db $dbObj->connect(); } } As you can probably see, I need to access and use the database class in my RS class. But I get this error when I load the page: Warning: mysql_connect() [function.mysql-connect]: Access denied for user 'ODBC'@'localhost' (using password: NO) in C:\xampp\htdocs\includes\database.class.php on line 22 The thing is I have NO idea where it got the idea that it needs to use ODBC as a user... I've read up on doing this stuff and from what I can gather I am doing it correctly. Could anyone lend me a hand? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Why is this unordered list formatting differently in IE7?

    - by Joel
    I'm better about getting things to look good in IE8, FF, and Safari, but IE7 still throws curve balls at me... Please check out this page and scroll down below the nav bar: http://rattletree.com/instruments.php It should become obvious when viewing in FF vs IE7. For some reason the formatting of the list is pushing the list items down on the page... any tips? <ul class="instrument"> <li class="imagebox"><img src="/images/stuff.jpg" width="247" height="228" alt="Matepe" /></li> <li class="textbox"><h3>Matepe</h3><p>This text should be to the right of the image but drops below the image in IE7</p></li> </ul> css: ul.instrument { text-align:left; display:inline-block; } ul.instrument li { list-style-type: none; display:inline-block; } li.imagebox { display:inline; margin:20px 0; padding:0px; vertical-align:top; } li.imagebox img{ border: solid black 1px; } li.textbox { display:inline; } li.textbox p{ margin:10px; width:340px; display:inline-block; }

    Read the article

  • Stuck trying to get Log4Net to work with Dependency Injection

    - by Pure.Krome
    I've got a simple winform test app i'm using to try some Log4Net Dependency Injection stuff. I've made a simple interface in my Services project :- public interface ILogging { void Debug(string message); // snip the other's. } Then my concrete type will be using Log4Net... public class Log4NetLogging : ILogging { private static ILog Log4Net { get { return LogManager.GetLogger( MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod().DeclaringType); } } public void Debug(string message) { if (Log4Net.IsDebugEnabled) { Log4Net.Debug(message); } } } So far so good. Nothing too hard there. Now, in a different project (and therefore namesapce), I try and use this ... public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { FileInfo fileInfo = new FileInfo("Log4Net.config"); log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(fileInfo); } private void Foo() { // This would be handled with DI, but i've not set it up // (on the constructor, in this code example). ILogging logging = new Log4NetLogging(); logging.Debug("Test message"); } } Ok .. also pretty simple. I've hardcoded the ILogging instance but that is usually dependency injected via the constructor. Anyways, when i check this line of code... return LogManager.GetLogger(MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod().DeclaringType); the DeclaringType type value is of the Service namespace, not the type of the Form (ie. X.Y.Z.Form1) which actually called the method. Without passing the type INTO method as another argument, is there anyway using reflection to figure out the real method that called it?

    Read the article

  • SASS mixin for swapping images / floats on site language (change)

    - by DBUK
    Currently using SASS on a website build. It is my first project using it, tried a little LESS before and liked it. I made a few basic mixins and variables with LESS, super useful stuff! I am trying to get my head around SASS mixins, and syntax, specifically for swapping images when the page changes to a different language, be that with body ID changing or <html lang="en">. And, swapping floats around if, for example, a website changed to chinese. So a mixin where float left is float left unless language is AR and then it becomes float right. With LESS I think it would be something like: .headerBg() when (@lang = en) {background-image:url(../img/hello.png);} .headerBg() when (@lang = it) {background-image:url(../img/ciao.png);} .header {.headerBg(); width: 200px; height:100px} .floatleft() when (@lang = en) { float: left;} .floatleft() when (@lang = ar) { float: right;} .logo {.floatleft();} Its the syntax I am having problems with combined with a brain melting day.

    Read the article

  • Calling a javascript function from an aspx.cs code behind

    - by David Hodgson
    Hi, I would like to call a javascript function from an aspx control. For instance, suppose I had: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript"> function test(x, y) { } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" onclick="Button1_Click"/> </div> </form> </body> </html> and in the code behind: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // do stuff (really going to a database to fill x and y) int[] x = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; int[] y = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; // call javascript function as test(x,y); } Is there a way to do it? DUPLICATE:calling-a-javascript-function-at-the-end-of-button-click-code-behind

    Read the article

  • JQuery Checkbox generation

    - by Hash
    I have used the following code to generate some dynamic checkboxes. This works for the first time and adds the check box chk2 to the page and then after the trigger for the $('#newLink').click is not working. Please help me with this. <div id="chkBoxesDiv"> <input type="checkbox" id="chk1" ></input> <input id="answerText" type="text" size="30" ></input>&nbsp; <input type="button" value="add new" id="newLink"/> </div> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#newLink').click(function (event){ var i = 0; //To count the children $("#chkBoxesDiv").children().each(function(){ var child = $(this); if(child.is(":checkbox")){ i++; } }); //prevent action event.preventDefault(); //get textbox value to fill checkbox var text = $("#answerText").val(); alert(i); //if text not empty do stuff if(text != ""){ //add label $("#chk"+i).after("<label for=\"chk"+i+"\" id=\"lblchk"+i+"\">"+text+"</label>"); $("#newLink").remove(); $("#answerText").remove(); $("#lblchk1").after("<br /><input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"chk"+(1+i)+"\" ></input><input type=\"text\" id=\"answerText\" size=\"30\" ></input>&nbsp;<input type=\"button\" value=\"add new\" id=\"newLink\"/>"); } }); });

    Read the article

  • PendingIntent in Widget + TaskKiller

    - by YaW
    Hi, I've developed an Application (called Instant Buttons) and the app has a widget feature. This widget uses PendingIntent for the onClick of the widget. My PendingIntent code is something like this: Intent active = new Intent(context, InstantWidget.class); active.setAction(String.valueOf(appWidgetId)); active.putExtra("blabla", blabla); //Some data PendingIntent actionPendingIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, active, 0); actionPendingIntent.cancel(); actionPendingIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, active, 0); remoteViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.button, actionPendingIntent); The onReceive gets the intent and do some stuff with the MediaPlayer class to reproduce a sound. I have reports from some users that the widgets stop working after a while and with some research i've discovered is because the Task Killers. It seems that when you kill the app in the TaskKiller, the PendingIntent is erased from memory, so when you click the widget, it doesn't know what to do. Is there any solution for this? Is my code wrong or something or it's the default behavior of the PendingIntent? Is there something I can use to avoid the TaskKiller to stop my widgets from working?? Greetings.

    Read the article

  • Is there a Symfony callback at the termination of a session?

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I have an application that is authenticating against an external server in a filter. In that filter, I'm trying to set a couple of session attributes on the user by using Symfony's setAttribute() method: $this->getContext()->getUser()->setAttribute( 'myAttribute', 'myValue' ); What I'm finding is that, if I dump $_SESSION immediately after setting the attribute. On the other hand, if I call getAttribute( 'myAttribute' ), I get back exactly what I put in. All along, I've assumed that reading/writing to user attributes was synonymous with reading/writing to the session, but that seems to be an incorrect assumption. Is there a timing issue? I'm not getting any non-object errors, so it seems that the user is fully initialized. Where is the disconnect here? Thanks. UPDATE The reason this was happening is because I had some code in myUser::shutdown() that cleared out a bunch of stuff. Because myUser is loosely equivalent to $_SESSION (at least with respect to attributes), I assumed that the shutdown() method would be called at the end of each session. It's not. It seems to get called at the close of each request which is why my attributes never seemed to get set. Now, though, I'm left wondering whether there's a session closing callback. Anyone know?

    Read the article

  • Can't get node.js built on cygwin

    - by mwt
    Following the instructions here: https://github.com/ry/node/wiki/Building-node.js-on-Cygwin-(Windows) I've tried installing on two machines, either of which I'd be happy to get up and running. WinXP On 'make', I get: Build failed: -> task failed <err #2>: {task: libv8.a SConstruct -> libv8.a} According to the instructions, this is caused by having $SHELL set to a Windows style path, but I've set it to /bin/bash and get the same error. Win7 On './configure', I get: $ ./configure Checking for program g++ or c++ : /usr/bin/g++ Checking for program cpp : /usr/bin/cpp Checking for program ar : /usr/bin/ar Checking for program ranlib : /usr/bin/ranlib Checking for g++ : ok Checking for program gcc or cc : /usr/bin/gcc 0 [main] python 1092 C:\bin\python.exe: *** fatal error - unable to remap \\?\C:\lib\python2.6\lib-dynload\_functools.dll to same address as parent: 0x360000 != 0x3E0000 Stack trace: Frame Function Args 002891E8 6102749B (002891E8, 00000000, 00000000, 00000000) 002894D8 6102749B (61177B80, 00008000, 00000000, 61179977) 0028A508 61004AFB (611A136C, 61241CF4, 00360000, 003E0000) End of stack trace 0 [main] python 3536 fork: child 1092 - died waiting for dll loading, errno 11 /Users/Michael/Desktop/node/wscript:177: error: could not configure a c compiler! I've run 'rebaseall' and restarted the machine but still get that error. Edit: Ok, rebaseall was apparently erroring on some mingw stuff, so I edited the rebaseall script to fix that, and now it configures on Win7. The new problem is that it emits the exact same error as my XP machine now when I try to make. This is on tag v0.3.5.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 400 401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411  | Next Page >