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  • Django Save Incomplete Progress on Form

    - by jimbob
    I have a django webapp with multiple users logging in and fill in a form. Some users may start filling in a form and lack some required data (e.g., a grant #) needed to validate the form (and before we can start working on it). I want them to be able to fill out the form and have an option to save the partial info (so another day they can log back in and complete it) or submit the full info undergoing validation. Currently I'm using ModelForm for all the forms I use, and the Model has constraints to ensure valid data (e.g., the grant # has to be unique). However, I want them to be able to save this intermediary data without undergoing any validation. The solution I've thought of seems rather inelegant and un-django-ey: create a "Save Partial Form" button that saves the POST dictionary converts it to a shelf file and create a "SavedPartialForm" model connecting the user to partial forms saved in the shelf. Does this seem sensible? Is there a better way to save the POST dict directly into the db? Or is an add-on module that does this partial-save of a form (which seems to be a fairly common activity with webforms)? My biggest concern with my method is I want to eventually be able to do this form-autosave automatically (say every 10 minutes) in some ajax/jquery method without actually pressing a button and sending the POST request (e.g., so the user isn't redirected off the page when autosave is triggered). I'm not that familiar with jquery and am wondering if it would be possible to do this.

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  • Collision Detection (Ground & Slopes) in 2D Platform Game using Pygame Rects

    - by RedCap
    Hi, First off, I am not after any instructions on logic for collision detection; I get it. What I am trying to work out is the least complicated way to do this with Pygame using Sprites & Rects. I want to be able to check collisions for the Player against ground, walls & slopes. In theory it is quite straight forward, but I'm having difficulty because it seems like you cannot do this with one Rect. One Rect is simple enough to get you collisions in the X plane against walls. The same Rect could be used also be used in the Y plane against solids, but not with slopes - since with the collision routines in Pygame it checks the whole Rect (or mask), rather than perhaps just the bottom middle of the Rect. It seems in addition you need to have a number of "sprites" to check collisions with, that are 1x1 pixel in various places around the Player. What's the easiest way to do this, without having a bunch of 3, 4, or more separate "collision pixels" to check against slopes? Geoff

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  • How to override jquery's show() and hide() functions

    - by Max Williams
    hi all Short version of question: see title Long version of question: I've used jquery's show() and hide() functions extensively in my code and just encountered a bit of a problem: they work by changing the display attribute of the element to 'block' or 'none' respectively, so that if you have somethin that has display: inline and then hide and show it, you've changed its display to block, which screws up the layout in a couple of cases. In my code, whenever i want something to be hidden initially i give it a class 'hidden'. This class is simply {display: none}. I'd like the change show and hide to remove or add this class, instead of directly changing the display attribute, so that if you add the hidden class and then remove it again (ie hide and show something) then it's back to exactly how it was to start off with (since adding a class overrides the attributes rather than directly changing them). Something like this (this is a little pseucodey as i don't know how to set the function up properly - let's assume that 'this' is the object that show/hide was called on) function show(){ this.removeClass("hidden"); } function hide(){ this.addClass("hidden"); } how and where would i go about overriding the jquery methods? (I'm not a javascript expert) thanks - max

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  • Tracking a fragment of a file in two places with git

    - by mabraham
    Hi, I have code such as void myfunc() { introduction(); while(condition()) { complex(); loop(); interior(); code(); } cleanup(); } which I wish to duplicate into two versions, viz: void myfuncA() { introduction(); minorchangeA(); while(condition()) { complex(); loop(); interior(); code(); } cleanup(); } void myfuncB() { introduction(); minorchangeB(); while(condition()) { complex(); modifiedB(); loop(); interior(); code(); } cleanup(); extracleanupB(); } git claims to track content rather than files, so do I need to tell it that there are chunks here that are common to both myfuncA and myfuncB so that when merging with upstream changes to myfunc that those changes should propagate to both myfuncA and myfuncB? If so, how? The code could be written so that myfuncAB did the correct thing at each point by testing for condition A or B, but that could seriously hinder readability or performance.

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  • Accessing both stored procedure output parameters AND the result set in Entity Framework?

    - by MS.
    Is there any way of accessing both a result set and output parameters from a stored procedure added in as a function import in an Entity Framework model? I am finding that if I set the return type to "None" such that the designer generated code ends up calling base.ExecuteFunction(...) that I can access the output parameters fine after calling the function (but of course not the result set). Conversely if I set the return type in the designer to a collection of complex types then the designer generated code calls base.ExecuteFunction<T>(...) and the result set is returned as ObjectResult<T> but then the value property for the ObjectParameter instances is NULL rather than containing the proper value that I can see being passed back in Profiler. I speculate the second method is perhaps calling a DataReader and not closing it. Is this a known issue? Any work arounds or alternative approaches? Edit My code currently looks like public IEnumerable<FooBar> GetFooBars( int? param1, string param2, DateTime from, DateTime to, out DateTime? createdDate, out DateTime? deletedDate) { var createdDateParam = new ObjectParameter("CreatedDate", typeof(DateTime)); var deletedDateParam = new ObjectParameter("DeletedDate", typeof(DateTime)); var fooBars = MyContext.GetFooBars(param1, param2, from, to, createdDateParam, deletedDateParam); createdDate = (DateTime?)(createdDateParam.Value == DBNull.Value ? null : createdDateParam.Value); deletedDate = (DateTime?)(deletedDateParam.Value == DBNull.Value ? null : deletedDateParam.Value); return fooBars; }

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  • Is it okay to violate the principle that collection properties should be readonly for performance?

    - by uriDium
    I used FxCop to analyze some code I had written. I had exposed a collection via a setter. I understand why this is not good. Changing the backing store when I don't expect it is a very bad idea. Here is my problem though. I retrieve a list of business objects from a Data Access Object. I then need to add that collection to another business class and I was doing it with the setter method. The reason I did this was that it is going to be faster to make an assignment than to insert hundreds of thousands of objects one at a time to the collection again via another addElement method. Is it okay to have a getter for a collection in some scenarios? I though of rather having a constructor which takes a collection? I thought maybe I could pass the object in to the Dao and let the Dao populate it directly? Are there any other better ideas?

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  • Why are my bound parameters all identical (using Linq)?

    - by Scott Stafford
    When I run this snippet of code: string[] words = new string[] { "foo", "bar" }; var results = from row in Assets select row; foreach (string word in words) { results = results.Where(row => row.Name.Contains(word)); } I get this SQL: -- Region Parameters DECLARE @p0 VarChar(5) = '%bar%' DECLARE @p1 VarChar(5) = '%bar%' -- EndRegion SELECT ... FROM [Assets] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[Name] LIKE @p0) AND ([t0].[Name] LIKE @p1) Note that @p0 and @p1 are both bar, when I wanted them to be foo and bar. I guess Linq is somehow binding a reference to the variable word rather than a reference to the string currently referenced by word? What is the best way to avoid this problem? (Also, if you have any suggestions for a better title for this question, please put it in the comments.) Note that I tried this with regular Linq also, with the same results (you can paste this right into Linqpad): string[] words = new string[] { "f", "a" }; string[] dictionary = new string[] { "foo", "bar", "jack", "splat" }; var results = from row in dictionary select row; foreach (string word in words) { results = results.Where(row => row.Contains(word)); } results.Dump(); Dumps: bar jack splat

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  • Conditional compilation hackery in C# - is there a way to pull this off?

    - by Chris
    I have an internal API that I would like others to reference in their projects as a compiled DLL. When it's a standalone project that's referenced, I use conditional compilation (#if statements) to switch behavior of a key web service class depending on compilation symbols. The problem is, once an assembly is generated, it appears that it's locked into whatever the compilation symbols were when it was originally compiled - for instance, if this assembly is compiled with DEBUG and is referenced by another project, even if the other project is built as RELEASE, the assembly still acts as if it was in DEBUG as it doesn't need recompilation. That makes sense, just giving some background. Now I'm trying to work around that so I can switch the assembly's behavior by some other means, such as scanning the app/web config file for a switch. The problem is, some of the assembly's code I was switching between are attributes on methods, for example: #if PRODUCTION [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://prodServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://prodServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://prodServer")] #else [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://devServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://devServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://devServer")] #endif public string Service_Test() { // test service } Though there might be some syntactical sugar that allows me to flip between two attributes of the same type in another fashion, I don't know it. Any ideas? The alternative method would be to reference the entire project instead of the assembly, but I'd rather stick with just referencing the compiled DLL if I can. I'm also completely open to a whole new approach to solve the problem if that's what it takes.

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  • CSS file in a Spring WAR returns a 404

    - by Rachel G.
    I have a J2EE application that I am building with Spring and Maven. It has the usual project structure. Here is a bit of the hierarchy. MyApplication src main webapp WEB-INF layout header.jsp styles main.css I want to include that CSS file in my JSP. I have the following tag in place. <c:url var="styleSheetUrl" value="/styles/main.css" /> <link rel="stylesheet" href="${styleSheetUrl}"> When I deploy the application, the CSS page isn't being located. When I view the page source, the href is /MyApplication/styles/main.css. Looking inside the WAR, there is a /styles/main.css. However, I get a 404 when I try to access the CSS file directly in the browser. I discovered that the reason for the issue was the Dispatcher Servlet mapping. The mapping looks as follows. <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>Spring MVC Dispatcher Servlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> I imagine the Dispatcher Servlet doesn't know how to handle the CSS request. What is the best way to handle this issue? I would rather not have to change all of my request mappings.

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  • MSBuild - How to build a .NET solution file (in an XML task script) from pre-written command line commands

    - by Devtron
    Hello. I have been studying MSBuild as I have the need to automate my development shop's builds. I was able to easily write a .BAT file that invokes the VS command prompt and passes my MSBuild commands to it. This works rather well and is kinda nifty. Here is the contents of my .BAT build file: call "C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 10.0\VC\bin\amd64\vcvars64.bat" cd C:\Sandbox\Solution msbuild MyTopSecretApplication.sln /p:OutputPath=c:\TESTMSBUILDOUTPUT /p:Configuration=Release,Platform=x86 pause ^ This works well but I now have the need to use the MSBuild task for TeamCity CI. I have tried to write a few MSBuild scripts but I cannot get them to work the same. What is the equivalent build script to the command I am using in my .BAT file? Any ideas? I have tried using something like this, but no success (I know this is wrong): <?xml version="1.0"?> <project name="Hello Build World" default="run" basedir="."> <target name="build"> <mkdir dir="mybin" /> <echo>Made mybin directory!</echo> <csc target="exe" output="c:\TESTMSBUILDOUTPUT"> <sources> <include name="MyTopSecretApplication.sln"/> </sources> </csc> <echo>MyTopSecretApplication.exe was built!</echo> </target> <target name="clean"> <delete dir="mybin" failonerror="false"/> </target> <target name="run" depends="build"> <exec program="mybin\MyTopSecretApplication.exe"/> </target> What I simply need is an MSBuild XML build script that compiles a single solution for Release mode to a specified output directory. Any help?

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  • Cross domain iframe content load detection

    - by fpb
    I have a rather interesting problem. I have a parent page that will create a modal jquery dialog with an iframe contained within the dialog. The iframe will be populated with content from a 3rd party domain. My issue is that I need to create some dialog level javascript that can detect if the content of the iframe loaded successfully and if it hasn't within a 5 second time frame, then to close the dialog and return the user to the parent page. I have researched numerous solutions and only two are of any true value. Get the remote site to include a javascript line of document.domain = 'our-domain.com'. Use a URL Fragment hack, but again I would need the request that the remote site able to modify the URL by appending '#some_value' to the end of the URL and my dialog window would have to poll the URL until it either sees it or times out. Are these honestly the only options I have to work with? Is there not a simpler way to just detect this? I have been researching if there's a way to poll for http response errors, but this still remains confined to the same restrictions. Any help would be immensely appreciated. Thanks

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  • Adding linked table to Access 2003 while keeping ODBC connection info in MDB

    - by webworm
    I have an Access 2003 database MDB where all of the tables exist as linked tables within SQL Server 2005. The MDB file contains all of the ODBC information that points to the correct SQL Server and log-on credentials (trusted connection). What I would like to do is add a new linked table to the MDB file however I am not sure how to go about specifying the ODBC connection information. When I try to add a new linked table I keep getting prompted to locate or create a DSN file. I don't want to have to create a new DSN entry on every machine, rather I would like all that information stored within the Access MDB file itself. In the existing database I can "hover" over the table names and see the ODBC connection info as a tool-tip. All I need to do is add another linked table using the same connection information. I do have access to the SQL Server where the tables are linked to,. I have already created the new table I wanted to add. I just need to find a way to link to it.

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  • MySQL Join Question

    - by rbaker86
    Hi i'm struggling to write a particular MySQL Join Query. I have a table containing product data, each product can belong to multiple categories. This m:m relationship is satisfied using a link table. For this particular query I wish to retrieve all products belonging to a given category, but with each product record, I also want to return the other categories that product belongs to. Ideally I would like to achieve this using an Inner Join on the categories table, rather than performing an additional query for each product record, which would be quite inefficient. My simplifed schema is designed roughly as follows: products table: product_id, name, title, description, is_active, date_added, publish_date, etc.... categories table: category_id, name, title, description, etc... product_category table: product_id, category_id I have written the following query, which allows me to retrieve all the products belonging to the specified category_id. However, i'm really struggling to work out how to retrieve the other categories a product belongs to. SELECT p.product_id, p.name, p.title, p.description FROM prod_products AS p LEFT JOIN prod_product_category AS pc ON pc.product_id = p.product_id WHERE pc.category_id = $category_id AND UNIX_TIMESTAMP(p.publish_date) < UNIX_TIMESTAMP() AND p.is_active = 1 ORDER BY p.name ASC I'd be happy just retrieving the category id's releated to each returned product row, as I will have all category data stored in an object, and my application code can take care of the rest. Many thanks, Richard

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  • Create an Oracle function that returns a table

    - by Craig
    I'm trying to create a function in package that returns a table. I hope to call the function once in the package, but be able to re-use its data mulitple times. While I know I create temp tables in Oracle, I was hoping to keep things DRY. So far, this is what I have: Header: CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE TEST AS TYPE MEASURE_RECORD IS RECORD ( L4_ID VARCHAR2(50), L6_ID VARCHAR2(50), L8_ID VARCHAR2(50), YEAR NUMBER, PERIOD NUMBER, VALUE NUMBER ); TYPE MEASURE_TABLE IS TABLE OF MEASURE_RECORD; FUNCTION GET_UPS( TIMESPAN_IN IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT 'MONTLHY', STARTING_DATE_IN DATE, ENDING_DATE_IN DATE ) RETURN MEASURE_TABLE; END TEST; Body: CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE BODY TEST AS FUNCTION GET_UPS ( TIMESPAN_IN IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT 'MONTLHY', STARTING_DATE_IN DATE, ENDING_DATE_IN DATE ) RETURN MEASURE_TABLE IS T MEASURE_TABLE; BEGIN SELECT ... INTO T FROM ... ; RETURN T; END GET_UPS; END TEST; The header compiles, the body does not. One error message is 'not enough values', which probably means that I should be selecting into the MEASURE_RECORD, rather than the MEASURE_TABLE. What am I missing?

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  • Why is the 'var' keyword bad? Or am I just old school?

    - by WaggingSiberian
    Recently I overheard junior developer ask "why do you use 'var' so much?". The mid-level developer responded "I use VAR all the time. I love it! I don't have to figure out the type." I didn't have the time or energy to get into a religious war and hey, I'm still the new guy here :-) I understand var has its place. LINQ comes to mind. But I have also always been told the use of var represents lazy programming and I should just use the correct type to begin with. If it's an int, define it as an int, not a var. When reviewing code, seeing the type makes it easier to follow. My opinion is, it's just lazy but there are exception. Var also reminds me of the VB/VBA variant type. It also had its place. I recall (from many years ago) its usage being less-than-desirable type and it was rather resource hungry. Am I just being stuck in my ways? Should we start using var all the time as my co-worker does?

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  • game currency convert: math efficient

    - by Comradsky
    For variables:4 text views named diamondText, goldText, silverText, and bronzeText;money variable unsigned int money;and an NSTimer, every .1 sec,runs function: -(void)updateMoney{ money++; bronzeText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",money]; silverText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",money%10]; goldText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",money%100]; diamondText.text= [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",money%1000]; } Given that my currency is diamond = 10 gold = 10 silver = 10 bronze = 1; What would be most efficient way to calculate and display the money labels? How would you store this variable, with GameCenter and NSDictionary or GameCenter and something else? More details are below if you don't understand. To clarify: bronze has the last 2 numbers, silver has the next 2 numbers, and so on. I understand I could use 4 ints or an array, but i would rather try to use this method, unless theres a much more efficient way. Example: When money = 1000;bronzeText = nothing, silverText = 10,goldText = nothing, diamondText = nothing; What other ways would you do this that you think would be more efficient? I will be calling a function (void)collisionDetector that detects if my player.frame crosses with a flyingObject.frame, and if that object is a coin it gives an added value to money and then calls (void)updateMoney. Im just using the timer to test this and spawn these flying objects.

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  • Designers, Expression or SharePoint Designer, and real source control

    - by David Lively
    I'm trying desperately to move from VSS to a real source control system. Options include TFS and SVN. My designers need to keep their ability to modify source files and instantly preview their changes in a browser without having to commit their changes. Using FPSE with VSS, this works flawlessly, since saving a file causes the copy in the working folder on the dev server to be updated, so they can just save and refresh their browser which is pointed at the dev server. The site in question consists of 350k+ lines of classic ASP code and some new ASP.NET MVC. They only need to be able to modify views within the MVC code, not C#. Though Expression includes a version of Cassini for local debugging, Cassini does not support classic ASP. Surely someone has solved this problem before. It can't be necessary to install IIS on each designer's machine (this is absolutely untenable). I need a way to have a common working folder on a dev webserver updated whenever someone saves a file locally, just like using FPSE. I'd rather not write an FPSE proxy that knows how to talk to TFS/SVN. Any suggestions? (I know I've asked this question in the past, but I haven't yet found a solution.)

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  • Polling a web URL until event

    - by Jaxo
    I'm really sorry about the crappy title - if anybody has a better way of wording it, please edit it! I basically need to have a C# application run a function if the output of a URL is a certain value. For example, if the website says blue the background colour will be blue, red to make it red, etc. The problem is I don't want to spam my webserver with checks. The 4 bytes it downloads each time is negligible, but if I were to deploy this type of system on multiple computers, it would get slower and slower and the bandwidth would add up quickly. So my question is: How can my desktop application run a piece of code only when a web URL has a different output without checking each time? I can't use sockets, and any sort of LAN protocol won't end up working. My reasoning behind this potentially nefarious code is to be able to mute computers by updating a file on the website (as you may have seen in my previous question today, sorry!). I'd like it to be rather quick, and not have the refresh time minutes apart, a few seconds at the most would be ideal. How can I accomplish this? The website's code is easy, but getting the C# application to check when it changes is the part I'm stuck on. Nothing shows up on the website other than the command. Thanks!

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  • What is the optimal way to animate a drawable within a view using the animator classes?

    - by littleFluffyKitty
    I have read about Property Animation and Hardware Acceleration but I am still uncertain what is the most efficient way to use the animator classes. (For the sake of this question I don't need to support devices before Honeycomb. So I want to use the animator classes.) For example, say I have a View. In this view I have a BitmapDrawable that I want to fade in. There are also many other elements within the view that won't change. What property or object would be best to use with the animator? The drawable? A paint that I am drawing the bitmap with in onDraw? Something else? How can this be done to be most efficient with hardware acceleration? Will this require calling invalidate for each step of the animation or is there a way to animate just the drawable and not cause the rest of the view to be redrawn completely for each step of the animation? I guess I imagine an optimal case would be the rest of the view not having to be completely redrawn in software, but rather hardware acceleration efficiently fading the drawable. Any suggestions or pointers to recommended approaches? Thanks!

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  • C# properties: How are they instantiated?

    - by Pedery
    Hi! This might be a pretty straightforward question, but I'm trying to understand some of the internal workings of the compilation. Very simply put, imagine an arbitrary object being instantiated. This object is then allocated on the heap. The object has a property of type PointF (which is value type), with a get and a set method. Imagine the get and the set method containing a few calculations for doing their work. How and where (stack/heap) and when is this code instantiated? This is the background for this question: I'm writing get and set methods for an object and these methods need to be accessed very frequently. The get and set code in itself is rather massive so I feared that in a worst case scenario the methods would be instantiated as an object or a value type with all internal code for every access of the property. On the other hand the code is probably instantiated when the main object is created and the CPU is simply told to jmp to the property code start. Anyway, this is what I want to have clarified.

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  • Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

    - by przno
    I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

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  • Any workarounds for non-static member array initialization?

    - by TomiJ
    In C++, it's not possible to initialize array members in the initialization list, thus member objects should have default constructors and they should be properly initialized in the constructor. Is there any (reasonable) workaround for this apart from not using arrays? [Anything that can be initialized using only the initialization list is in our application far preferable to using the constructor, as that data can be allocated and initialized by the compiler and linker, and every CPU clock cycle counts, even before main. However, it is not always possible to have a default constructor for every class, and besides, reinitializing the data again in the constructor rather defeats the purpose anyway.] E.g. I'd like to have something like this (but this one doesn't work): class OtherClass { private: int data; public: OtherClass(int i) : data(i) {}; // No default constructor! }; class Foo { private: OtherClass inst[3]; // Array size fixed and known ahead of time. public: Foo(...) : inst[0](0), inst[1](1), inst[2](2) {}; }; The only workaround I'm aware of is the non-array one: class Foo { private: OtherClass inst0; OtherClass inst1; OtherClass inst2; OtherClass *inst[3]; public: Foo(...) : inst0(0), inst1(1), inst2(2) { inst[0]=&inst0; inst[1]=&inst1; inst[2]=&inst2; }; }; Edit: It should be stressed that OtherClass has no default constructor, and that it is very desirable to have the linker be able to allocate any memory needed (one or more static instances of Foo will be created), using the heap is essentially verboten. I've updated the examples above to highlight the first point.

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  • JavaScript: supposed to execute functions sequentially, not actually doing so?

    - by AP257
    I'm seeing a lot of answers on StackOverflow that say that JavaScript executes code sequentially, but I can actually see my own JavaScript not doing so. From the following code: function centre_map(lat, lng, zoom_level) { alert('centre_map'); map = new GMap2(document.getElementById('map_canvas')); var latlng = new GLatLng(lat, lng); map.setCenter(latlng, zoom_level); } function add_markers_within_bounds() { alert('add_markers_within_bounds'); // add numerous BLUE markers within map bounds using MarkerClusterer } function add_marker(lat, lng, place_name, grid, county) { alert('add_marker'); // add one ordinary RED Google Maps marker } centre_map('{{lat}}', '{{lng}}', 12); add_markers_within_bounds('{{grid}}', '{{place_name}}'); add_marker('{{lat}}', '{{lng}}', '{{place_name}}', '{{grid}}', '{{county}}'); I get the following sequence of events: 'centre_map' alert 'add_markers_within_bounds' alert 'add_marker' alert individual RED marker appears on map (i.e. add_marker renders) multiple BLUE markers appear on map (i.e. add_markers_within_bounds renders) Why doesn't add_markers_within_bounds complete before add_marker gets under way: and how can I make it do so? I know that one way might be to call add_marker from within add_markers_within_bounds, but for various reasons I'd rather keep it as a separate function.

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  • Exclude notes based on attribute wildcard in XSL node selection

    - by C A
    Using cruisecontrol for continuous integration, I have some annoyances with Weblogic Ant tasks and how they think that server debug information are warnings rather than debug, so are shown in my build report emails. The XML output from cruise is similar to: <cruisecontrol> <build> <target name="compile-xxx"> <task name="xxx" /> </target> <target name="xxx.weblogic"> <task name="wldeploy"> <message priority="warn">Message which isn't really a warning"</message> </task> </target> </build> </cruisecontrol> In the cruisecontrol XSL template the current selection for the task list is: <xsl:variable name="tasklist" select="/cruisecontrol/build//target/task"/> What I would like is something which selects the tasklist in the same way, but doesn't include any target nodes which have the attribute name="*weblogic" where * is a wildcard. I have tried <xsl:variable name="tasklist" select="/cruisecontrol/build//target[@name!='*weblogic']/task"/> but this doesn't seem to have worked. I'm not an expert with XSLT, and just want to get this fixed so I can carry on the real development of the project. Any help is much appreciated.

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  • Exclude nodes based on attribute wildcard in XSL node selection

    - by C A
    Using cruisecontrol for continuous integration, I have some annoyances with Weblogic Ant tasks and how they think that server debug information are warnings rather than debug, so are shown in my build report emails. The XML output from cruise is similar to: <cruisecontrol> <build> <target name="compile-xxx"> <task name="xxx" /> </target> <target name="xxx.weblogic"> <task name="wldeploy"> <message priority="warn">Message which isn't really a warning"</message> </task> </target> </build> </cruisecontrol> In the cruisecontrol XSL template the current selection for the task list is: <xsl:variable name="tasklist" select="/cruisecontrol/build//target/task"/> What I would like is something which selects the tasklist in the same way, but doesn't include any target nodes which have the attribute name="*weblogic" where * is a wildcard. I have tried <xsl:variable name="tasklist" select="/cruisecontrol/build//target[@name!='*weblogic']/task"/> but this doesn't seem to have worked. I'm not an expert with XSLT, and just want to get this fixed so I can carry on the real development of the project. Any help is much appreciated.

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