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  • VB.net/Excel- "Backwards" tab index For Each iteration with textboxes.

    - by MSD
    Hi there, I have a form with 3 textboxes and 1 button. textbox1 has tab index 0, and it's text = 1 textbox2 has tab index 1, and it's text = 2 textbox3 has tab index 2, and it's text = 3 I want to iterate thru the textboxes and place their values into cells so that... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "1") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "3") but what I am getting is... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "3") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "1") I have tried reversing the tab index for the text boxes, but it doesn't change the "backwards iteration". Is there something I can do to change this so that the loop runs from lowest tab index to highest? Thanks! Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click_1(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim objExcel As New Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application 'Declaring the object. objExcel.Visible = True 'Setting Excel to visible. Dim cntrl As Control With objExcel .Workbooks.Add() 'Adding a workbook. .Range("A1").Select() 'Selecting cell A1. End With 'Form contains 3 text boxes, with one number in each (1,2,3), and one button to fire the code in this sub. For Each cntrl In Me.Controls 'For every control on the form... If TypeOf (cntrl) Is TextBox Then 'If the control is a textbox, then... With objExcel .ActiveCell.Value = cntrl.Text 'place the control's text in the active cell and... .ActiveCell.Offset(1, 0).Activate() 'offset down one row. End With End If 'If the control is not a textbox (if it's the button), do nothing. Next 'Go to the next control. objExcel = Nothing 'Release the object. GC.Collect() 'Clean up. End Sub End Class

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  • including pre-built java classes into an android project

    - by moonlightcheese
    i'm trying to include a maven java project into my android project. the maven project is the greader-unofficial project which allows developers access to google reader accounts, and handles all of the http transactions and URI/URL building, making grabbing feeds and items from google reader transparent to the developer. the project is available here: http://code.google.com/p/greader-unofficial/ the code is originally written for the standard jdk and uses classes from java.net that are not a part of the standard Android SDK. i actually tried to manually resolve all dependencies and ran into a problem when i got as far as including com.sun.syndication pieces required by the class be.lechtitseb.google.reader.api.util.AtomUtil.java... some of the classes in java.net that are in the standard jdk (i'm using 1.6) are not in the Android SDK. in addition, resolving all of these dependencies manually is just ridiculous when i'm compiling a maven project that should be pretty simple. however, i can use maven to compile the sources with no issue. how can i include this maven project, which is dependent on the complete jdk, into my android project in such a way that it will compile so that i can access the GoogleReader class from my android project? and for the record, i don't have the expertise to rewrite this entire api to work with the standard Android SDK.

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  • Data confusion - Selecting data in one DataGridView based on selection in another

    - by Logan Young
    This probably isn't the best way to do what I want, but I can't think of anything else to try... NB: I'm using Visual Basic.NET My form has 2 DataGridView controls. One of these is bound to a DataSet, the other isn't visible - at least not until the user selects a uniqueidentifier cell in the 1st grid. When the user makes this selection, the 2nd grid will become visible and display the row from another with the same id as the one selected in the 1st grid. So, basically, I want to dynamically display data in one grid based on user selection in another grid. My code looks like this so far... Private Sub RulesGrid_CellClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellEventArgs) Handles RulesGrid.CellClick Try FlagsGrid.Visible = True ''// MsgBox(RulesGrid.CurrentCell.Value.ToString()) Dim sql As String = "SELECT * FROM ctblMKA_Status_Flags " + _ "WHERE intStatusID = '" & RulesGrid.CurrentCell.Value & "'" DSFlags = GetDS(sql) DSFlags.DataSetName = "FlagsDataSet" FlagsGrid.DataSource = DSFlags ProgressBar.Visible = False Catch ex As Exception MsgBox(ex.ToString) End Try End Sub I feel like I'm missing something here... Any ideas anyone?

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  • ASP.Net - Help with datagrid/checkboxes/double submit

    - by Gareth D
    We have a simple datagrid. Each row has a checkbox. The checkbox is set to autopostback, and the code-behind has an event handler for the checkbox check-changed event. This all works as expected, nothing complicated. However, we want to disable the checkboxes as soon as one is checked to prevent a double submit i.e. check box checked, all checkboxes are disabled via client side javascript, form submitted. To achieve this I we are injecting some code into the onclick event as follows (note that the alert is just for testing!): Protected Sub DgAccounts_ItemCreated(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataGridItemEventArgs) Handles DgAccounts.ItemCreated If e.Item.ItemType = ListItemType.Item Or e.Item.ItemType = ListItemType.AlternatingItem Then Dim chk As CheckBox = CType(e.Item.FindControl("chkItemChecked"), CheckBox) chk.Attributes.Add("onclick", "alert('fired ...');DisableAllDataGridCheckBoxes();") End If End Sub When inspecting the source of the rendered page we get the following: <input id="DgAccounts__ctl2_chkItemChecked" type="checkbox" name="DgAccounts:_ctl2:chkItemChecked" onclick="alert('fired ...');DisableAllDataGridCheckBoxes();setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'DgAccounts$_ctl2$chkItemChecked\',\'\')', 0)" language="javascript" /> It all appears in order, however the server side event does not fire – I believe this is due to the checkbox being disabled, as if we just leave the alert in and remove the call to disable the checkbox it all works fine. Can I force the check-changed event to fire even though the check box is disabled?

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  • OpenSceneGraph C++ Access Violation reading location 0x00421000

    - by Kobojunkie
    Working with OpenSceneGraph, and I keep running into this violation issue that I would appreciate some help with. The problem is with the particular line below which happens to be the first in my main function. osg::ref_ptr<osg::Node> bench = osgDB::readNodeFile("Models/test.IVE"); I have my models folder right in my directory. The error is as below. Unhandled exception at 0x68630A6C (msvcr100.dll) in OSG3D.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00421000. And this is where the problem seems to be coming up. /** Read an osg::Node from file. * Return valid osg::Node on success, * return NULL on failure. * The osgDB::Registry is used to load the appropriate ReaderWriter plugin * for the filename extension, and this plugin then handles the request * to read the specified file.*/ inline osg::Node* readNodeFile(const std::string& filename) { return readNodeFile(filename,Registry::instance()->getOptions()); } I would appreciate details on how best to tackle this kind of exception message in the future. Are there tools that make this easy to debug or are there ways to capture the exact issues and fix them? I would appreciate any help with this. My ultimate goal is to learn how to better debug C++ related issues please. With this, it means reading through the compiler error list http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/850cstw1(v=vs.71).aspx is not enough

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  • Selective replication with CouchDB

    - by FRotthowe
    I'm currently evaluating possible solutions to the follwing problem: A set of data entries must be synchonized between multiple clients, where each client may only view (or even know about the existence of) a subset of the data. Each client "owns" some of the elements, and the decision who else can read or modify those elements may only be made by the owner. To complicate this situation even more, each element (and each element revision) must have an unique identifier that is equal for all clients. While the latter sounds like a perfect task for CouchDB (and a document based data model would fit my needs perfectly), I'm not sure if the authentication/authorization subsystem of CouchDB can handle these requirements: While it should be possible to restict write access using validation functions, there doesn't seem to be a way to authorize read access. All solutions I've found for this problem propose to route all CouchDB requests through a proxy (or an application layer) that handles authorization. So, the question is: Is it possible to implement an authorization layer that filters requests to the database so that access is granted only to documents that the requesting client has read access to and still use the replication mechanism of CouchDB? Simplified, this would be some kind of "selective replication" where only some of the documents, and not the whole database is replicated. I would also be thankful for directions to some detailed information about how replication works. The CouchDB wiki and even the "Definite Guide" Book are not too specific about that.

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  • Can foreground threads be aborted on application shutdown in C#.Net?

    - by Cartman
    I inherited a c# winforms app (.NET 2.0) which creates a thread upon startup in a singleton class. This thread handles messages from a messaging topic (Tibco EMS). When the app is shutdown, the thread doesn't remain the the background? How is this possible? Is there something else happening that can abort this thread? Code snippet: public class Startup { public static void main(string [] args) { MySingletonClass.Instance.Init(); // do other things below Application.Run(new MainForm()); } public class MySingletonClass { // singleton code //.. //.. private Thread t; public void Init() { t = new Thread(new ThreadStart(poll)); } private void poll() { while(true} { // listen for messages and process but there is no break clause // exceptions are also handled within to ensure control doesnt go out } } Pls. don't write to tell me this is bad code. I know it and i was going to refactor it when i realised that the app actually shutdowns correctly inspite of this aberration. So i want to understand how this is possible. Thanks for your help

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  • What wrapper class in C++ should I use for automated resource management?

    - by Vilx-
    I'm a C++ amateur. I'm writing some Win32 API code and there are handles and weirdly compositely allocated objects aplenty. So I was wondering - is there some wrapper class that would make resource management easier? For example, when I want to load some data I open a file with CreateFile() and get a HANDLE. When I'm done with it, I should call CloseHandle() on it. But for any reasonably complex loading function there will be dozens of possible exit points, not to mention exceptions. So it would be great if I could wrap the handle in some kind of wrapper class which would automatically call CloseHandle() once execution left the scope. Even better - it could do some reference counting so I can pass it around in and out of other functions, and it would release the resource only when the last reference left scope. The concept is simple - but is there something like that in the standard library? I'm using Visual Studio 2008, by the way, and I don't want to attach a 3rd party framework like Boost or something.

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  • How do I make a lock that allows only ONE thread to read from the resource ?

    - by mare
    I have a file that holds an integer ID value. Currently reading the file is protected with ReaderWriterLockSlim as such: public int GetId() { _fileLock.EnterUpgradeableReadLock(); int id = 0; try { if(!File.Exists(_filePath)) CreateIdentityFile(); FileStream readStream = new FileStream(_filePath, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(readStream); string line = sr.ReadLine(); sr.Close(); readStream.Close(); id = int.Parse(line); return int.Parse(line); } finally { SaveNextId(id); // increment the id _fileLock.ExitUpgradeableReadLock(); } } The problem is that subsequent actions after GetId() might fail. As you can see the GetId() method increments the ID every single time, disregarding what happens after it has issued an ID. The issued ID might be left hanging (as said, exceptions might occur). As the ID is incremented, some IDs might be left unused. So I was thinking of moving the SaveNextId(id) out, remove it (the SaveNextId() actually uses the lock too, except that it's EnterWriteLock). And call it manually from outside after all the required methods have executed. That brings out another problem - multiple threads might enter the GetId() method before the SaveNextId() gets executed and they might all receive the same ID. I don't want any solutions where I have to alter the IDs after the operation, correcting them in any way because that's not nice and might lead to more problems. I need a solution where I can somehow callback into the FileIdentityManager (that's the class that handles these IDs) and let the manager know that it can perform the saving of the next ID and then release the read lock on the file containing the ID. Essentialy I want to replicate the relational databases autoincrement behaviour - if anything goes wrong during row insertion, the ID is not used, it is still available for use but it also never happens that the same ID is issued. Hopefully the question is understandable enough for you to provide some solutions..

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  • How can I prevent infinite recursion when using events to bind UI elements to fields?

    - by Billy ONeal
    The following seems to be a relatively common pattern (to me, not to the community at large) to bind a string variable to the contents of a TextBox. class MyBackEndClass { public event EventHandler DataChanged; string _Data; public string Data { get { return _Data; } set { _Data = value; //Fire the DataChanged event } } } class SomeForm : // Form stuff { MyBackEndClass mbe; TextBox someTextBox; SomeForm() { someTextBox.TextChanged += HandleTextBox(); mbe.DataChanged += HandleData(); } void HandleTextBox(Object sender, EventArgs e) { mbe.Data = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } void HandleData(Object sender, EventArgs e) { someTextBox.Text = ((MyBackEndClass) sender).Data; } } The problem is that changing the TextBox fires the changes the data value in the backend, which causes the textbox to change, etc. That runs forever. Is there a better design pattern (other than resorting to a nasty boolean flag) that handles this case correctly? EDIT: To be clear, in the real design the backend class is used to synchronize changes between multiple forms. Therefore I can't just use the SomeTextBox.Text property directly. Billy3

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  • Run script after Jquery finish

    - by Felipe Fernández
    First let's explain the hack that I was trying to implement. When using Total Validator Tool through my web page and I get following error: [WCAG v1 6.3 (A), US-508-l] Consider providing a alternative after each tag As my page relies heavily on javascript I can't provide a real alternative, so I decided to add an empty noscript tag after every script appearence. Let's say I need to provide a clean report about accesibility about my web page even the hack is senseless. (I know the hack is unethical and silly, let's use it as example material, but the point of my post are the final questions) I tried the following approach: $(document).ready(function(){ $("script").each(function() { $(this).after("<noscript></noscript>"); }); }); The problem raises because I have a jQueryUI DatePicker component on my page. jQuery adds a script section after the DOM is ready so my hack fails as miss this section. So the questions are: How handles jQuery library to be executed after document is ready? How can I run my code after jQuery finish its labours?

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  • Moving UITableView cells and maintaining consistent data

    - by Mark F
    I've enabled editing mode and moving cells around to allow users to position table view content in the order they please. I'm using Core Data as the data source, which sorts the content by the attribute "userOrder". When content is first inserted, userOrder is set to a random value. The idea is that when the user moves a cell around, the userOrder of that cell changes to accomodate its new position. The following are problems I am running into while trying to accomplish this: Successfully saving the the new location of the cell and adjusting all changed locations of influenced cells. Getting the data to be consistent. For example, the TableView handles the movement fine, but when i click on the new location of the cell, it displays data for the old cell that used to be that location. Data of all influenced cells gets messed up as well. I know I have to implement this in: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView moveRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)sourceIndexPath toIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)destinationIndexPath {} I just don't know how. The apple docs are not particularly helpful if you are using Core Data, as in my situation. Any guidance greatly appreciated!

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  • mod_rewrite: no access to real files and directories

    - by tshabalala
    Hello. I use mod_rewrite/.htaccess for pretty URLs. I forward all the requests to my index.php, like this: RewriteRule ^/?([a-zA-Z0-9/-]+)/?$ /index.php [NC,L] The index.php then handles the requests. I'm also using this condition/rule to eliminate trailing slashes (or rather rewrite them to the URL without a trailing slash, with a 301 redirect; I'm doing this to avoid duplicate content and because I like no trailing slashes better): RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^\.localhost$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+)/$ http://%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [R=301,L] This works well, except that I now get an infinite loop when trying to access a (real) directory (the rewrite rule removes the trailing slash, the server adds it again, ...). I solved this by setting the DirectorySlash directive to Off: DirectorySlash Off I don't know how good this solution is, I don't feel too confident about it tbh. Anyway, what I'd like to do is completely ignore "real" files and directories, since I don't need them and I only use pretty URLs with "virtual" files/directories anyway. This would allow me to avoid the DirectorySlash workaround/hack too. Is this possible? Thanks!

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  • Trying to Insert Text to Access Database with ExecuteNonQueryin VB

    - by user3673701
    I'm working on this feature were i save text from a textbox on my form to a access database file. With the click on my "store" button I want to save the text in the corresponding textbox fields to the fields in my access database for searching and retrieving purposes. Im doing this in VB The problem I run into is the INSERT TO error with my "store" button Any help or insight as to why im getting error would be greatly appreciated. here is my code: Dim con As System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection Dim cmd As System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand Dim dr As System.Data.OleDb.OleDbDataReader Dim sqlStr As String Private Sub btnStore_Click(sender As Object, e As EventArgs) Handles btnStore.Click con = New System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection("Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=C:\Users\Eric\Documents\SPC1.2.accdb") con.Open() MsgBox("Initialized") sqlStr = "INSERT INTO Master FADV Calll info (First Name, Last Name, Phone Number, Email, User Id) values (" & txtFirstName.Text & " ' ,'" & txtLastName.Text & "','" & txtPhone.Text & "', '" & txtEmail.Text & "', '" & txtUserID.Text & "', '" & txtOtherOptionTxt.Text & "','" & txtCallDetail.Text & "');" cmd = New OleDb.OleDbCommand(sqlStr, con) cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() <------- **IM RECIVING THE ERROR HERE** MsgBox("Stored") ''pass ther parameter as sq; query, con " connection Obj)" con.Close()'

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  • Issue with GCD and too many threads

    - by dariaa
    I have an image loader class which provided with NSURL loads and image from the web and executes completion block. Code is actually quite simple - (void)downloadImageWithURL:(NSString *)URLString completion:(BELoadImageCompletionBlock)completion { dispatch_async(_queue, ^{ // dispatch_async(dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_HIGH, 0), ^{ UIImage *image = nil; NSURL *URL = [NSURL URLWithString:URLString]; if (URL) { image = [UIImage imageWithData:[NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:URL]]; } dispatch_async(dispatch_get_main_queue(), ^{ completion(image, URLString); }); }); } When I replace dispatch_async(_queue, ^{ with commented out dispatch_async(dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_HIGH, 0), ^{ Images are loading much faster, wich is quite logical (before that images would be loaded one at a time, now a bunch of them are loading simultaneously). My issue is that I have perhaps 50 images and I call downloadImageWithURL:completion: method for all of them and when I use global queue instead of _queue my app eventually crashes and I see there are 85+ threads. Can the problem be that my calling dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_HIGH, 0) 50 times in a row makes GCD create too many threads? I thought that gcd handles all the treading and makes sure the number of threads is not huge, but if it's not the case is there any way I can influence number of threads?

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  • template specialization for static member functions; howto?

    - by Rolle
    I am trying to implement a template function with handles void differently using template specialization. The following code gives me an "Explicit specialization in non-namespace scope" in gcc: template <typename T> static T safeGuiCall(boost::function<T ()> _f) { if (_f.empty()) throw GuiException("Function pointer empty"); { ThreadGuard g; T ret = _f(); return ret; } } // template specialization for functions wit no return value template <> static void safeGuiCall<void>(boost::function<void ()> _f) { if (_f.empty()) throw GuiException("Function pointer empty"); { ThreadGuard g; _f(); } } I have tried moving it out of the class (the class is not templated) and into the namespace but then I get the error "Explicit specialization cannot have a storage class". I have read many discussions about this, but people don't seem to agree how to specialize function templates. Any ideas?

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  • Domain model for an online WYSYWG webpage generator / runtime

    - by CharlieBrown
    Hi all, I'm using C#, MVC, NHibernate and StructureMap as my IoC container, and need some ideas regarding my domain model. The application I'm working has two parts: an Authoring part and a Runtime part. The idea is to allow the user to create a webpage in Authoring (mostly a form actually) by choosing from a set of predefined controls. That webpage will be later used as a form in a call center environment (Runtime part), or may be used in an intranet portal, etc. Basically something similar to what a CMS would do. The difference is, of course, that the webpage/form the author generates will be used and fulfilled in runtime, and that authros should be able to freely create the webpage they want without limitations. I have a draft working model that allows a RunController to iterate over the ScriptPage (my class for the "generated webpage") Controls collection and uses partial views to render each of them. Works kind of fine. Basically I have a common ScriptControl class, and then I can create for example a TextInputControl or a DropDownControl by inheriting from that base class. I can also figure out the Authoring part of the app, although that will surely be fun in itself for sure. :) The biggest problem I have now is persistance. In order to be flexible, I want to be able to add more controls, and template controls (think of an Address composite control) in sepparate DLLs, so I think having a relational model that handles very possible control is not the way to go. My current thinking is using a kind of ObjectStore: binary-serializing the ScriptPage object that contains the List collection and deserializing at Runtime, but I'm not sure how good will it work with NHibernate and how good the performance will be. Serializing a small "page" with 10 controls results in 7964 bytes, for example. Any ideas out there? Thanks in advance, excuse the length. ;)

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  • What's the jquery CSS3 selector for excluding nested descendents?

    - by Danjah
    Per my SO question here, which has turned to jquery to solve this, but which may be worked back into YUI if I get my thinking straight, I need a selector to exclude descendents. The solution proposed says something like this: $( '.revealer:not(.revealer > .revealer)' ); To fit more accurately with my situation, because I have multiple HTML chunks to perform the same test on, I have updated it be: $( '#_revealerEl_0 .handle:not(#_revealerEl_0 .reveal .handle)' ); The HTML its selecting on (image there are numerous copies of this same chunk on a page, each needing to be treated alone - an id attribute is assigned to each 'revealer'): <div class="revealer"> <div class="hotspot"> <a class="handle" href="javascript:;">A</a> <div class="reveal"> <p>Content A.</p> </div> <div class="reveal"> <p>Content B.</p> <!-- nested revealer --> <div class="revealer"> <div class="hotspot"> <a class="handle" href="javascript:;">A</a> <div class="reveal"> <p>Sub-content A.</p> </div> <div class="reveal"> <p>Sub-content B.</p> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> In a nutshell: I need to target 'top level' handles within a 'hotspot', per revealer - and no nested descendents with the same class names. thanks, d

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  • jquery an div tags used in a ordered list

    - by shan2on
    hello everyone, i'm not sure where my errors are lying but here is my scenario... i have an un-ordered list in html that handles my main link bar... <ul id="navlist"> <li><a href="/" id="current">home</a></li> <li><a href="#" id="search">search</a></li> <li><a href="#" id="users">login</a></li> </ul> and what i want done is to call each id and have jQuery handle each and dislpay it where specified in my css file... for now, lets just ignore my "home" link... here is a snippet of my inline jquery $(document).ready(function() { $("a").click(function () { $("div#login").slideToggle("fast"); }); }) Now, whichever div i specify, it calls that ... however it will only call one div, using either from the un-orderd list, as mentioned above in the html. My Goal is to call a search bar when search is clicked, and to call a login box when login is clicked. to my knowledge (noob), i believe use an as a class, however that is what brings me here. i believe my error is in my jquery and not my css, as stated above, either instance will be displayed when the jquery function calls either tag. any help is greatly appreciated. thanks in advance shan2on

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  • Invoking jQuery function without an element

    - by Sandman
    So, I use jQuery quite extensively and I am well aware of the "right" way to do the below, but there are times where I want to solve it in a more generic way. I'll explain. So, I may have a link, like this: <a href='menu' class='popup'>Show menu</a>. Now, I have a jQuery function that fires on click for all a.popup that takes the href-attribute and shows the <div id='menu'></div> item (in this case). It also handles URL's if it can't find a DOM item with that ID. No problem here. But, there are times when I don't have the same control over the coe where I can create a selectable target that way. Either because the code isn't created by me or because it is created through a chain of function that would all need a huge ovrhaul which I won't do. So, from time to time, I would like to have this code: <a href="javascript:popup('menu')">Show menu</a> This would be in a case where I can only submit the label and the HREF for a link. No class, no nothing. Problem here is that the function popup() has no idea about what element invoked it, and in most cases that's not a problem for me, since I only need to know where the mouse cursor was upon invokation. But in some cases, I use someone elses jQuery functions, like qTip or something else. so I still want to fire off qTip(); when clicking a link that runs this JS function, but what do I attach it to to make it show? I can't just runt $().qTip(); because that implies $(this) and "this" is undefined inside the function. So how do I do it? Any ideas?

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  • C++ dynamic array causes segmentation fault at assigment

    - by opc0de
    I am doing a application witch uses sockets so I am holding in an array the sockets handles.I have the following code: while(0 == 0){ int * tx = (int*)(malloc((nr_con + 2) * sizeof(int))); if (conexiuni != NULL) { syslog(LOG_NOTICE,"Ajung la eliberare %d",nr_con); memcpy(&tx[0],&conexiuni[0],(sizeof(int) * (nr_con))); syslog(LOG_NOTICE,"Ajung la eliberare %d",nr_con); free(conexiuni); } conexiuni = tx; syslog(LOG_NOTICE,"Ajung la mama %d",nr_con); //The line bellow causes a segfault at second connection if ((conexiuni[nr_con] = accept(hsock,(sockaddr*)(&sadr),&addr_size)) != -1) { nr_con++; syslog(LOG_NOTICE,"Primesc de la %s",inet_ntoa(sadr.sin_addr)); syslog(LOG_NOTICE,"kkt %d",conexiuni[nr_con - 1]); int * sz = (int*)malloc(sizeof(int)); *sz = conexiuni[nr_con - 1]; syslog(LOG_NOTICE,"after %d",*sz); pthread_create(&tidi,0,&ConexiuniHandler, sz); } } When I connect the second time when I assign the array the program crashes. What am I doing wrong? I tried the same code on Windows and it works well but on Linux it crashes.

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  • ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Extended Class Field Binding

    - by user336858
    Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to get automatic View Object binding for fields defined in a partial class for a Linq-To-SQL generated class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Postclass to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So here's my question: If a user is accessing my MVC application front-end and begins editing a Post object, they might enter an invalid category. When the server recognizes the invalid input, the usual practice is to return the faulty object to the original view for re-editing along with some error messages. The fields in the edit page are re-populated with the provided values. However I don't know how to get this mechanism to work with the properties I created with the partial class as shown above. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

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  • Read data from form

    - by Superhuman
    This is a strange question, I've never tried to do this before. I have a repetitive process requiring that I copy and paste data from text boxes in one program into another program for further processing. I'd like to automate this process using VB .NET. The application from which the data is gathered isn't mine, so I don't have ActiveX-like access to its controls. How would you write an application to gain access to a form from another application, to be able to find the controls on the form, and gather the values from them? Just experimenting, I've used the following code. This resulted in only the name of the form to which this code belongs. It didn't find the names of any other forms I have open, and I have a lot open to choose from. This is frustrating because it's only step one of what I'll need to do to make my life easier... Public Declare Function EnumWindows Lib "user32" (ByVal lpEnumFunc As CallBack, ByVal lParam As Integer) As Integer Public Delegate Function CallBack(ByVal hwnd As IntPtr, ByVal lParam As IntPtr) As Boolean Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim cb As New CallBack(AddressOf MyCallBack) EnumWindows(cb, 8) End Sub Public Function MyCallBack(ByVal hwnd As Long, ByVal lparam As Long) As Boolean Dim frm As System.Windows.Forms.Control frm = System.Windows.Forms.Form.FromHandle(hwnd) If frm Is Nothing Then Return True If frm.Text <> "" Then TextBox1.Text += frm.Text & ", " End If Return True End Function Does anyone have a recommendation? Thanks, SH

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  • To NOLOCK or NOT to NOLOCK, that is the question

    - by Limey
    Hi all, This is really more of a discussion than a specific question about nolock. I took over an app recently that almost every query (and there are lots of them) has the nolock option on them. Now I am pretty new to SQL server (used Oracle for 10 years) but yet I find this pretty disturbing. So this weekend I was talking with one of my friends who runs a rather large ecommerce site (name will be withheld to protect the guilty) and he says he has to do this with all of his SQL servers cause he will always end in deadlocks. Is this just a huge short fall with SQL server? Is this just a failure in the DB design (mine is not 3rd level, but its close) Is anybody out there running an SQL server app without nolocks? These are issues that Oracle handles better with more grandulare recordlocks. Is SQL server just not able to handle big loads? Is there some better workaround than reading uncommited data? I would love to hear what people think. Thanks

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  • INSERT INTO ...SELECT syntax error in join operator

    - by user1477356
    I'm trying to write a shopping basket into a order + orderline in a sql database from C# asp.net. the orderline will contain a ordernumber, total price, productid, quantity etc. for every item in the basket. The order itself will contain the ordernumber as primary key and will be linked to the different lines through it. Everything worked fine yesterday, but now as i tried to use a SELECT command in the insert into statement to get things more dynamic i'm getting the above described syntax error. Does anybody know what's wrong with this statement: INSERT INTO [order] (klant_id,totaalprijs,btw,subtotaal,verzendkosten) SELECT klant.id , SUM(orderregel.totaalprijs) , SUM(orderregel.btw) , SUM(orderregel.totaalprijs) - SUM(orderregel.btw) , 7.50 FROM orderregel INNER JOIN klant ON [order].klant_id = klant.id WHERE klant.username = 'jerry' GROUP BY id; the ordernumber in the "order" table is on autonumber, in the asp codebehind there is a for each which handles the lines being written for every product, there's an index set on 0 outside of this loop and is heightened with 1 every end of it. The executenonquery of the order is only executed once at the beginning of the first loop and the lines are added after with MAX(ordernumber) as ordernumber. I hope i have provided enough information and somebody is capable of helping me. Thanks in advance!

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