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Digitally sign MS Office (Word, Excel, etc..) and PDF files on the server

- by Sébastien Nussbaumer

I need to digitally sign MS Office and PDF files that are stored on a server. I really mean a digital signature that is integrated in the document, according to each specific file formats. This is the process I had in mind : Create a hash of the file's content Send the hash to a custom written java applet in the browser The user encrypts the hash with his/her private key (on an usb token via PKCS#11 for example), thus effectively signing the file. The applet then sends the signature to the server On the server I would then incorporate the signature in the file's (MS Office and PDF files can do that without changing the file's content, probably by just setting some metadata field) What is cool is that you never have to download and upload the complete file to the server again. What is even cooler, the customer doesn't need Office or PDF Writer to sign the files. Parts 2, 3 and 4 are OK for me, my company bought all the JAVA technology I need for that for a previous project I worked on. Problem : I can't seem to find any documentation/examples to do parts 1 and 5 for Office files . Are my google skills failing me this time ? Do you have any pointers to documentation or examples for doing that for MS Office files ? The underlying technology isn't that important to me : I can use Java, .Net, COM, any working technology is OK ! Note : I'm 95% sure I can nail points 1 and 5 for PDF files using iText Thanks ** Edit : If I can't do that with hashes and must download the complete file to the client, it's also possible. But then I still need the documentation to be able to sign Office file... in java this time (from an applet)

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Change Address/Port of WSDL EndPointAddress at runtime?

- by Pretzel

So I currently have 3 WSDLs added as Service References in my solution. They look like this in my app.config file (I removed the "bindings" field, because it's uninteresting): <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/query-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="QueryBinding" contract="QueryService.Query" name="QueryPort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/platetype-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PlateTypeBinding" contract="PlateTypeService.PlateType" name="PlateTypePort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/dataimport-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="DataImportBinding" contract="DataImportService.DataImport" name="DataImportPort" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> When I utilize a WSDL, it looks something like this: using (DataService.DataClient dClient = new DataService.DataClient()) { DataService.importTask impt = new DataService.importTask(); impt.String_1 = "someData"; DataService.importResponse imptr = dClient.importTask(impt); } In the "using" statement, when instantiating the DataClient object, I have 5 constructors available to me. In this scenario, I use the default constructor: new DataService.DataClient() which uses the built-in Endpoint Address string, which is fine and good. But I want the user of the application to have the option to change this value. 1) What's the best/easiest way of programatically obtaining this string? 2) Then, once I've allowed the user to edit and test the value, where should I store it? I'd prefer having it be stored in a place (like app.config or equivalent) so that there is no need for checking whether the value exists or not and whether I should be using an alternate constructor. (Looking to keep my code tight, ya know?) Any ideas? Suggestions?

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Updating an input value with Jquery

- by Evan

I have a form with a few fields, one of which should be updated based on the value of another. The value of the first is POSTed to another URL, and the returned value should be used to fill the second field. Here's the code: <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script> function lookup(rid) { $.get("/handler?rid=" + $("input#rid").val(), function(update_rid){ $("#name").val(html(update_rid)); }) } </script> <form name="new_alert"> <input type="text" name="rid" id="rid" onkeyup="lookup(this.value);"> <br /> <input type="text" name="name" id="name"> </form> The POST works fine, and the correct data is returned from /hander, which I confirmed by making a test and filling it using $("#testdiv").html(update_rid); So it seems like the problem is in the way I'm trying to update the value, but I can't get past that.

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When to drop an IT job

- by Nippysaurus

In my career I have had two programming jobs. Both these jobs were in a field that I am most familiar with (C# / MSSQL) but I have quit both jobs for the same reason: unmanageable code and bad (loose) company structure. There was something in common with both these jobs: small companies (in one I was the only developer). Currently I am in the following position: being given written instructions which are almost impossible to follow (somewhat of a fools errand). we are given short time constraints, but seldom asked how long work will take, and when we do it is always too long and needs to be shorter (and when it ends up taking longer than they need it to take, it's always our fault). there is no time for proper documenting, but we get blamed for not documenting (see previous point). Management is constantly screwing me around, saying I'm underperforming on a given task (which is not true, and switching me to a task which is much more confusing). So I must ask my fellow developers: how bad does a job need to be before you would consider jumping ship? And what to look out for when considering taking a job. In future I will be asking about documented procedures, release control, bug management and adoption of new technologies. EDIT: Let me add some more fuel to the fire ... I have been in my current job for just over a year, and the work I am doing almost never uses any of the knowledge I have gained from the other work I have been doing here. Everything is a giant learning curve. Because of this about 30% of my time is learning what is going on with this new product (who's owner / original developer has left the company), 30% trying to find the relevant documentation that helps the whole thing make sense, 30% actually finding where to make the change, 10% actually making the change.

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Ideas in implenting the following entry form in ASP.NET MVC 2

- by KiD0M4N

Hi guys, I have a very simple data entry form to implement. It looks like this: Obviously I have mocked out the actual requirements but the essence is similar. Entering a name and clicking history should bring up a pop up pointing to the url '/student/viewhistory/{name}' Name and age are required fields The sub form (in the mockup) with Class (a drop down, containing the numbers 1 - 10) and Subject (containing A - D, say) form a unique pair of values for which a score is required. So, selecting the Class and Subject, entering a score and clicking on Add should 'add' this record for the student. Then the user should be able to click Save (to persist the entry to the database) or be able to add further (class, subject, score) pairs to the entry. Any ideas how to smartly implement this? (I am coming from a DWH field... so thinking in a stateless manner is slightly foreign to me.) Any help is appreciated. I would imagine a smart use of jQuery would give a easy solution. Regards, Karan

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How do I create a class repository in Java and do I really need it?

- by Roman

I have a large number of objects which are identified by names (strings). So, I would like to have a kind of mapping from object name to the class instances. I was told that in this situation I can use a "repository" class which works like that: Server myServer = ServerRepository.getServer("NameOfServer"); So, if there is already an object (sever) with the "NameOfServer" it will be returned by the "getServer". If such an object does not exist yet, it will be created and returned by the "getServer". So, my question is how to program such a "repository" class? In this class I have to be able to check if there is an instance of a given class such that it has a given value of a given field. How can I do it? I need to have a kind of loop over all existing object of a given class? Another part of my question is why I cannot use associative arrays (associative container, map, mapping, dictionary, finite map)? (I am not sure how do you call it in Java) In more details, I have an "array" which maps names of objects to objects. So, whenever I create a new object, I add a new element to the array: myArray["NameOfServer"] = new Server("NameOfServer").

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calling java script function then C# function after clicking ASP.NET button

- by Eyla

I have this serious: I have ASP.NET page, This page contents Update panel with ASP.NET control. I have Java script function to do validation so when I click the button I will use onclientclick to call the java function to do the validation and after this one done should call then event click button function from code behind. I tried vew methods but they did not work for me. here is sample of my code that after I click the button onclientclick will call the java script function for validation and if the validation is OK should call onclick event. .................... java script function ........................ <script type="text/javascript" > function add(){ if (tag == trye) { document.getElementById('<%=btnInfor.ClientID%>').click(); alert("DataAdded") } else { alert("Requiered Field Missing.") return false; } } </script> ..................... ASP.NET button ................... <asp:Button ID="btnInfor" runat="server" Text="Add Information" Style="position: absolute; top: 1659px; left: 433px;" onclientclick="JavaScript: return myAdd()" /> .................... code behind in C# ...................... protected void btnInfor_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { \\mycode }

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Interesting LinqToSql behaviour

- by Ben Robinson

We have a database table that stores the location of some wave files plus related meta data. There is a foreign key (employeeid) on the table that links to an employee table. However not all wav files relate to an employee, for these records employeeid is null. We are using LinqToSQl to access the database, the query to pull out all non employee related wav file records is as follows: var results = from Wavs in db.WaveFiles where Wavs.employeeid == null; Except this returns no records, despite the fact that there are records where employeeid is null. On profiling sql server i discovered the reason no records are returned is because LinqToSQl is turning it into SQL that looks very much like: SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE 1=0 Obviously this returns no rows. However if I go into the DBML designer and remove the association and save. All of a sudden the exact same LINQ query turns into SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE EmployeeID IS NULL I.e. if there is an association then LinqToSql assumes that all records have a value for the foreign key (even though it is nullable and the property appears as a nullable int on the WaveFile entity) and as such deliverately constructs a where clause that will return no records. Does anyone know if there is a way to keep the association in LinqToSQL but stop this behaviour. A workaround i can think of quickly is to have a calculated field called IsSystemFile and set it to 1 if employeeid is null and 0 otherwise. However this seems like a bit of a hack to work around strange behaviour of LinqToSQl and i would rather do something in the DBML file or define something on the foreign key constraint that will prevent this behaviour.

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Displaying same record twice- SQL Reporting Services

- by RyanW

Ok, here's the situation: I need to display the same record in two different sections. stupid i know, but here's why. The Report I am building is grouped by one Field, called Day. Each record has date/times, an expected arrival date time, and an expected departure date/time. so, at this point we have something like this: Day..............Arrival Time..................Departure Time 18/5.............18/5 9.00am.........19/5 11.00am The boss only wants to show times that relate to the current day in the arrive/depart coloumns (easy enough with expressions), which ends up like this: Day..............Arrival Time..................Departure Time 18/5..............9.00am.........................- the next thing he wants is to display the departing time in the correct day 'group', but as you can imagine as soon as you move to the next row, well you move to the next row of the table. So the question is: is there anyway to display the same record on multiple coloumns? Have i missed something or have i got an unsolvable problem? NOTE: this is not the only data in my table either. there is (for example) a name coloumn which also needs to be displayed on both days.

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JSP:Include not rendering the page correctly

- by sreekanth

am having trouble with including a jsp page with tag. This is what is happening. I making changes to a portlet application running on Websphere 7 server. This is the hierarchy of the jsp pages. blankPage.jsp --bookingViewTabs.jsp -- availableRooms.jsp meaning blankPage is included in bookingViewTabs which is inturn included in availableRooms.jsp I have 2 problems with this. (1). The blankPage.jsp does not render correctly on the screen. It gets cutoff (2). The other is in blankPage.jsp there is a form called "guestProfileSearchResultsFormId". this form has several hidden fields for data. example, "guestId" which is a child of that form and can be accessed formname.fieldname, but when i include that page into another jsp as the first include(there are several includes on the page) under the another form tag, the form field is not being rendered as a child of the form, but as a sibling of the form. If i change the order and include some other page and include this, it is working as it is supposed to have. meaning with children intact. I don't understand this behavior. I HAVE ATTACHED A GIF IMAGE OF WHAT I SEE ON THE BROWSER Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance

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Recursion in assembly?

- by Davis

I'm trying to get a better grasp of assembly, and I am a little confused about how to recursively call functions when I have to deal with registers, popping/pushing, etc. I am embedding x86 assembly in C++. Here I am trying to make a method which given an array of integers will build a linked list containing these integers in the order they appear in the array. I am doing this by calling a recursive function: insertElem (struct elem *head, struct elem *newElem, int data) -head: head of the list -data: the number that will be inserted at the end of a list -newElem: points to the location in memory where I will store the new element (data field) My problem is that I keep overwriting the registers instead of a typical linked list. For example, if I give it an array {2,3,1,8,3,9} my linked-list will return the first element (head) and only the last element, because the elements keep overwriting each other after head is no longer null. So here my linked list looks something like: 2--9 instead of 2--3--1--8--3--9 I feel like I don't have a grasp on how to organize and handle the registers. newElem is in EBX and just keeps getting rewritten. Thanks in advance!

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How to send XML and other post parameters via cURL in PHP

- by tomaszs

Hello. I've used code below to send XML to my REST API. $xml_string_data contains proper XML, and it is passed well to mypi.php: //set POST variables $url = 'http://www.server.cu/mypi.php'; $fields = array( 'data'=>urlencode($xml_string_data) ); //url-ify the data for the POST $fields_string = ""; foreach($fields as $key=>$value) { $fields_string .= $key.'='.$value.'&'; } rtrim($fields_string,'&'); echo $fields_string; //open connection $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POST,count($fields)); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS,$fields_string); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER,array ( "Expect: " )); //execute post $result = @curl_exec($ch); But when I've added other field: $fields = array( 'method' => "methodGoPay", 'data'=>urlencode($xml_string_data) ); It stopped to work. On the mypi.php I don't recieve any more POST parameters at all! Could you you please tell me what to do to send XML and other post parameters in one cURL request? Please don't suggest using any libraries, I wan't to acomplish it in plain PHP.

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create jquery array to use as options

- by SoulieBaby

Hi all, I'm sure this is really simple, but I can't seem to get it working. I have a "time" select list, which has a number as "rel" attached to each option. If the user changes the time select, I want a new list of options to display depending on what is selected. If that makes sense? Here's my first select: <select name="time" id="time"> <option value="7:00am" rel="10">7:00am</option> <option value="12:30pm" rel="16">12:30pm</option> </select> If the user selects 7:00am, I want a new option list (using jquery) to give options from 1 - 10. Like this: <select name="quantity" id="quantity"> <option value="1">1</option> <option value="2">2</option> <option value="3">3</option> ............................ <option value="10">10</option> </select> Here's what I have so far... <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> jQuery("#time").change(function(){ var positions = jQuery("#time :selected").attr("rel"); //this grabs the rel from time //this is where it should create a list of options to append(??) to the select list.. jQuery("#showQuantity").show(); //this shows the hidden field for quantity }); </script> I hope it makes sense, but I'm stuck on it. Thank you in advance :)

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Passing Values to Controllers

- by Dru

I'm trying to allow users to 'favorite' links (that is, create a new Favorite record with their user_id and the link_id) This is what I have so far.. When I click favorite (as a user), the new record is assigned to the user_id but the link_id field is nil. How can I pass the link_id into my FavoritesController? My View Code Added Link Model Code class FavoritesController < ApplicationController def create @user = User.find(session[:user_id]) @favorite = @user.favorites.create :link_id => params[:id] redirect_to :back end end The Favorite model belongs to :user and :link Note: I've also tried this but when I click 'favorite', there's an error "Couldn't find Link without an ID." Update <%= link_to "Favorite", :controller => :favorites, :action => :create, :link_id => link.id %> with class FavoritesController < ApplicationController def create @user = User.find(session[:user_id]) @favorite = @user.favorites.create :link_id => :params[:link_id] redirect_to :back end end Returns "can't convert Symbol into Integer" app/controllers/favorites_controller.rb:4:in [] app/controllers/favorites_controller.rb:4:in create I've tried forcing it into an Integer several ways with .to_i

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Why does Rails screw up timezones when I am editing a resource?

- by DJTripleThreat

Steps to produce this: prompt>rails test_app prompt>cd test_app prompt>script/generate scaffold date_test my_date:datetime prompt>rake db:migrate now edit your app/views/date_tests/edit.html.erb: <h1>Editing date_test</h1> <% form_for(@date_test) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> RIGHT!<br/> <%= text_field_tag @date_test, f.object.my_date %> </p> <p> WRONG!<br /> <%= f.text_field :my_date %> </p> <p> <%= f.submit 'Update' %> </p> <% end %> <%= link_to 'Show', @date_test %> | <%= link_to 'Back', date_tests_path %> now edit your config/environment.rb: #add this config.time_zone = 'Central Time (US & Canada)' This recreates the problem I am having in my actual app. The problem with my app is that I'm storing a date in a hidden field and rendering a "user friendly" version. Creating a resource works fine but as soon as I try to edit it the time changes (it adds the difference between my current time zone configuration and UTC). go to http://localhost:3000/date_tests/new and save the time then go to reedit it and you will have two different representations of the date/time one which will save incorrectly and the other that will.

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How to format individual DropDownlist Items (color, etc.) during onDataBinding event

- by LesterDove

Hi, I have a basic DropDownList bound to a ObjectDataSource: <asp:DropDownList ID="DropDownList1" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" DataSourceID="objDataSource1" DataTextField="FieldName" DataValueField="FieldID" /> The DataTable from which it receives the DataTextField and DataValueField values also returns some other interesting information about the records. Say Active = Y/N for simplicity's sake. What I'd like to do is to set the background-color property of the DropDownList Item based on that Active field in the DataSource results. Further, I'd like to do this "in the same pass" as when the DropDownList is bound to the data. So my guess is that it has to happen during OnDataBinding. Things I already know/tried: I could go back and loop through the DropDownList items later. But it would involve embedding loops and re-visiting the DataTable rows and it just seems inefficient int row; for (row = 0; row < DropDownList1.Items.Count - 1; row++) { [[if this row = that data row]] DropDownList1.Items[row].[[DoStuffHere, etc.]] } We already do stuff like this with the GridView OnRowDataBound event, by accessing the GridViewRowEventArgs e. What I seem to be missing is an "OnDropDownListItemBound" event, so to speak. Hope I've been clear and concise. Seems as though it should be easy...

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Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

- by Bhaskar

Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

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What could possibly be different between the table in a DataContext and an IQueryable<Table> when do

- by Nate Bross

I have a table, where I need to do a case insensitive search on a text field. If I run this query in LinqPad directly on my database, it works as expected Table.Where(tbl => tbl.Title.Contains("StringWithAnyCase") In my application, I've got a repository which exposes IQueryable objects which does some initial filtering and it looks like this var dc = new MyDataContext(); public IQueryable<Table> GetAllTables() { var ret = dc.Tables.Where(t => t.IsActive == true); return ret; } In the controller (its an MVC app) I use code like this in an attempt to mimic the LinqPad query: var rpo = new RepositoryOfTable(); var tables = rpo.GetAllTables(); // for some reason, this does a CASE SENSITIVE search which is NOT what I want. tables = tables.Where(tbl => tbl.Title.Contains("StringWithAnyCase"); return View(tables); The column is defiend as an nvarchar(50) in SQL Server 2008. Any help or guidance is greatly appreciated!

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Symfony Form render with Self Referenced Entity

- by benarth

I have an Entity containing Self-Referenced mapping. class Category { /** * @var integer * * @ORM\Column(name="id", type="integer") * @ORM\Id * @ORM\GeneratedValue(strategy="AUTO") */ private $id; /** * @var string * * @ORM\Column(name="name", type="string", length=100) */ private $name; /** * @ORM\OneToMany(targetEntity="Category", mappedBy="parent") */ private $children; /** * @ORM\ManyToOne(targetEntity="Category", inversedBy="children") * @ORM\JoinColumn(name="parent_id", referencedColumnName="id") */ private $parent; } In my CategoryType I have this : public function buildForm(FormBuilderInterface $builder, array $options) { $plan = $this->plan; $builder->add('name'); $builder->add('parent', 'entity', array( 'class' => 'xxxBundle:Category', 'property' => 'name', 'empty_value' => 'Choose a parent category', 'required' => false, 'query_builder' => function(EntityRepository $er) use ($plan) { return $er->createQueryBuilder('u') ->where('u.plan = :plan') ->setParameter('plan', $plan) ->orderBy('u.id', 'ASC'); }, )); } Actually, when I render the form field Category this is something like Cat1 Cat2 Cat3 Subcat1 Subcat2 Cat4 I would like to know if it's possible and how to display something more like, a kind of a simple tree representation : Cat1 Cat2 Cat3 -- Subcat1 -- Subcat2 Cat4 Regards.

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Stop CDATA tags from being output-escaped when writing to XML in C#

- by Smallgods

We're creating a system outputting some data to an XML schema. Some of the fields in this schema need their formatting preserved, as it will be parsed by the end system into potentially a Word doc layout. To do this we're using <![CDATA[Some formatted text]]> tags inside of the App.Config file, then putting that into an appropriate property field in a xsd.exe generated class from our schema. Ideally the formatting wouldn't be out problem, but unfortunately thats just how the system is going. The App.Config section looks as follows: <header> <![CDATA[Some sample formatted data]]> </header> The data assignment looks as follows: HeaderSection header = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("header") as HeaderSection; report.header = "<[CDATA[" + header.Header + "]]>"; Finally, the Xml output is handled as follows: xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(report)); fs = new FileStream (reportLocation, FileMode.Create); xs.Serialize(fs, report); fs.Flush(); fs.Close(); This should in theory produce in the final Xml a section that has information with CDATA tags around it. However, the angled brackets are being converted into < and > I've looked at ways of disabling Outout Escaping, but so far can only find references to XSLT sheets. I've also tried @"<[CDATA[" with the strings, but again no luck. Any help would be appreciated!

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Prototype function to set onclick event observer in checkboxes

- by xain

Hi, I want to set an observer for each of the following checkboxes: <div id="listr"> <ul id="lr" style="list-style-type: none"> <p class="tir">Text 1</p> <li class="ro"><input type="checkbox" name="r1" id="r1"/>A1</li> <li class="ro"><input type="checkbox" name="r2" />A2</li> <p class="tir">Text 2</p> <li class="rubro"><input type="checkbox" name="r3" />B1</li> <p class="tir">Text 3</p> <li class="ro"><input type="checkbox" name="r4" />B2</li> </ul> </div> It works if I write one observer per checkbox, but I want to do it in a short fashion, so I need something like $$('listr.lr.li.input').invoke('observe',click,function(field) { alert(this.name + ' clicked ' + this.checked); // other stuff ... }); Which is not working Thanks in advance

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SQL different joins not making any difference to result

- by Chrissi

I'm trying to write a quick (ha!) program to organise some of my financial information. What I ideally want is a query that will return all records with financial information in them from TableA. There should be one row for each month, but in instances where there were no transactions for a month there will be no record. I get results like this: SELECT Period,Year,TotalValue FROM TableA WHERE Year='1997' Result: Period Year TotalValue 1 1997 298.16 2 1997 435.25 4 1997 338.37 8 1997 336.07 9 1997 578.97 11 1997 361.23 By joining on a table (well a View in this instance) which just contains a field Period with values from 1 to 12, I expect to get something like this: SELECT p.Period,a.Year,a.TotalValue FROM Periods AS p LEFT JOIN TableA AS a ON p.Period = a.Period WHERE Year='1997' Result: Period Year TotalValue 1 1997 298.16 2 1997 435.25 3 NULL NULL 4 1997 338.37 5 NULL NULL 6 NULL NULL 7 NULL NULL 8 1997 336.07 9 1997 578.97 10 NULL NULL 11 1997 361.23 12 NULL NULL What I'm actually getting though is the same result no matter how I join it (except CROSS JOIN which goes nuts, but it's really not what I wanted anyway, it was just to see if different joins are even doing anything). LEFT JOIN, RIGHT JOIN, INNER JOIN all fail to provide the NULL records I am expecting. Is there something obvious that I'm doing wrong in the JOIN? Does it matter that I'm joining onto a View?

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How to synchronize Silverlight clients with WCF?

- by user564226

Hi, this is probably only some conceptual problem, but I cannot seem to find the ideal solution. I'd like to create a Silverlight client application that uses WCF to control a third party application via some self written webservice. If there is more than one Silverlight client, all clients should be synchronized, i.e. parameter changes from one client should be propagated to all clients. I set up a very simple Silverlight GUI that manipulates parameters which are passed to the server (class inherits INotifyPropertyChanged): public double Height { get { return frameworkElement.Height; } set { if (frameworkElement.Height != value) { frameworkElement.Height = value; OnPropertyChanged("Height", value); } } } OnPropertyChanged is responsible for transferring data. The WCF service (duplex net.tcp) maintains a list of all clients and as soon as it receives a data packet (XElement with parameter change description) it forwards this very packet to all clients but the one the packet was received from. The client receives the package, but now I'm not sure, what's the best way to set the property internally. If I use "Height" (see above) a new change message would be generated and sent to all other clients a.s.o. Maybe I could use the data field (frameworkElement.Height) itself or a function - but I'm not sure whether there would arise problems with data binding later on. Also I don't want to simply copy parts of the code properties, to prevent bugs with redundant code. So what would you recommend? Thanks!

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Submit to open up a popup window and carry through input data

- by zac

Hi, I have a input box on one page that on submit opens a new page with a longer form and the first field is populated with what was entered from the previous pages input box. So on page 1 there is this code: <form action="sign-up.php"> <input type="text" name="email" value="sign up for email" onFocus="clearText(this)" onBlur="clearText(this)" style="float: left;"> <input value='Submit' /> </form> Then on the sign-up page the receiving form grabs the string out of the url // I would like to keep all of this functionality but it have it occur in a popup. I added this function to the submit: function myPopup() { window.open( "sign-up.php", "myWindow", "status = 1, height = 300, width = 300, resizable = 0" ) and the form becomes <form> <input type="text" name="email" value="sign up for email" onFocus="clearText(this)" onBlur="clearText(this)" style="float: left;"> <input onClick="myPopup()" value='Submit' /> </form> But it no longer appends the input data to the url string. Anyone have any ideas on how I can accomplish this?

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[IceFaces] Why are validators of unchanged components called?

- by bitschnau

I have a IceFaces-form and several input fields. Let's say I have this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="accountMenu" value="#{accountController.account.aId}" validator="#{accountController.validateAccount}"> <f:selectItems id="accountItems" value="#{accountController.accountItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> and this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="costumerMenu" value="#{customerController.customer.cId}" validator="#{customerController.validateCustomer"> <f:selectItems id="customerItems" value="#{customerController.customerItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> If I change one value, the respective validator is called, what is fine. But also the other validator is called, which is not fine, because the user get's an irritating message to insert a value to a field he maybe was just going to pay attention to. It's like poking the user with a stick to "Hurry up now!". BAD! I thought the attribute "partialSubmit" is controlling this behaviour, so only the one DOM-part is submitted, which is affected by the user interaction, but if I declare the both components to be partially submitted, nothing changes. Still both validators are called if one component value is changed. How can I prevent the whole form from being validated until it is submitted completely?

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