Search Results

Search found 49427 results on 1978 pages for 'random name'.

Page 406/1978 | < Previous Page | 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413  | Next Page >

  • hy i dont get the check value in check box?

    - by udaya
    Hi I have a check box when check that check box the id corresponding to the check box is placed on a text box ... but when there is only single value in the database i cant get the check value why? here is my code <? if(isset($AcceptFriend)) {?> <form action="<?=site_url()?>friends/Accept_Friend" name="orderform" id="orderform" method="post" style="background:#CCCC99"> <input type="text" name="chId" id="chId" > <table border="0" height="50%" id="chkbox" width="50%" > <tr> <? foreach($AcceptFriend as $row) {?> <tr> <td>Name</td><td><?=$row['dFrindName'].'</br>';?></td> <td> <input type="checkbox" name="checkId" id="checkId" value="<? echo $row['dMemberId']; ?>" onClick="get_check_value()" ></td> </tr> <? }}?> </tr> <tr> <td width="10px"><input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" class="buttn" value="AcceptFriend"></td></tr> </table> </form> This is the script i am using function get_check_value() { var c_value = ""; for (var i=0; i < document.orderform.checkId.length; i++) { if (document.orderform.checkId[i].checked) { c_value = c_value + document.orderform.checkId[i].value + "\n"; } } alert(c_value); document.getElementById('chId').value= c_value; }

    Read the article

  • How to open form action in Jquery Dialog

    - by user342391
    I have a form: <form style="display: inline;" action="/player.php" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="recname" value="'.$row['name'].'"> <input type="hidden" name="recordingdesc" value="'.$row['description'].'"> <input type="hidden" name="reclink" value="$_SESSION['customerid'].'-'.$row['timestamp'].'.wav"> <button type="submit" class="tooltip table-button ui-state-default ui-corner-all" title=" rec"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-volume-on"></span></button> </form> and i want player.php to open in a modal dialog and be able to display the post information how can this be done.

    Read the article

  • In Spring MVC (2.0) how can you easily hook multiple pages/urls to use 1 controller?

    - by danny
    <!--dispatcher file--> <bean id="urlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.SimpleUrlHandlerMapping"> <property name="mappings"> <props> <prop key="/foo/bar/baz/boz_a.html">bozController</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <!--mappings file--> <bean id="bozController" class="com.mycompany.foo.bar.baz.BozController"> <property name="viewPathA" value="foo/bar/baz/boz_a" /> <property name="viewPathB" value="foo/bar/baz/boz_b" /> ... <property name="viewPathZ" value="foo/bar/baz/boz_z" /> </bean> how do I set it up so that when the user loads page boz_w.html it uses the bozController, and sets the viewPath to use boz_w.jsp?

    Read the article

  • Merge entries in XMLfile (SimpleXML in PHP)

    - by Cudos
    Hello. I have this in my XML file: <product name="iphone"> <variant name="iphone" product_number="12345" price="500" picture="iphone.jpg"> <description><![CDATA[iphone]]></description> <short_description><![CDATA[]]></short_description> <deliverytime><![CDATA[]]></deliverytime> <options> <option group="Color" option="Black" /> </options> </variant> </product> <product name="iphone"> <variant name="iphone" product_number="12345" price="500" picture="iphone.jpg"> <description><![CDATA[iphone]]></description> <short_description><![CDATA[]]></short_description> <deliverytime><![CDATA[]]></deliverytime> <options> <option group="Color" option="White" /> </options> </variant> </product> I want to merge it into this (Note that I merge the options tag): <product name="iphone"> <variant name="iphone" product_number="12345" price="500" picture="iphone.jpg"> <description><![CDATA[iphone]]></description> <short_description><![CDATA[]]></short_description> <deliverytime><![CDATA[]]></deliverytime> <options> <option group="Color" option="Black" /> <option group="Color" option="White" /> </options> </variant> </product> Preferably I want to do it all in the memory since I will process it further afterwards.

    Read the article

  • Ckeditor sends default content

    - by user1294101
    I use ckeditor with a default content. Then I initialize (replace textarea) CKEditor with jquery and I edit the text. The problem is that var data = $( 'textarea.editor' ).val(); returns default content and also getData(). What I have to do to grab the actual content? Thank you very much var ed = $( '#ed' ).ckeditor( {toolbar :[ { name: 'basicstyles', items : [ 'Bold','Italic' ] }, {name: 'link', items:['Link']}, { name: 'colors', items : [ 'TextColor' ] } ] } );

    Read the article

  • How do I initialize a fixed byte array?

    - by Jurily
    I have the following struct: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential, Pack = 1)] struct cAuthLogonChallenge { byte cmd; byte error; fixed byte name[4]; public cAuthLogonChallenge() { cmd = 0x04; error = 0x00; name = ??? } } name is supposed to be a null-terminated ASCII string, and Visual Studio is rejecting all my ideas to interact with it. How do I set it?

    Read the article

  • jQuery Validation plugin: disable validation for specified submit buttons when there is submitHandle

    - by ccppjava
    Ok, I am using umbraco forum module, and on the comment form it uses jquery validate plugin. The problem is that I have added a search button on the same page using a UserControl, the search submit button triggers the comment form submission validation. I have done some research, and added the 'cancel' css class to the button. This bypass the first validation issue, however, it still fall into the 'submitHandler'. Have read the source code and find a way to detect whether the search button triggers the submission. however, there is not a nice way to bypass the handler. I am currently using a ugly way to do it: create javascript errors! I would like to know a nicer way to do the job. Many thanks! Btw, I am currently using: submitHandler: function (form) { $(form).find(':hidden').each(function () { var name = $(this).attr('name'); if (name && name.indexOf('btnSearch') === name.length - 'btnSearch'.length) { // this is a dirty hack to avoid the validate plugin to work for the button eval("var error = 1 2 ''"); } }); // original code from umbraco ignored here.... } ...............

    Read the article

  • Not allowing characters after Space. Mysql Insert With PHP

    - by Jake
    Ok so I think this is easy but I dont know (I'm a novice to PHP and MySQL). I have a select that is getting data from a table in the database. I am simply taking whatever options the user selects and putting it into a separate table with a php mysql insert statement. But I am having a problem. When I hit submit, everything is submitted properly except for any select options that have spaces don't submit after the first space. For example if the option was COMPUTER REPAIR, all that would get sent is COMPUTER. I will post code if needed, and any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! Ok here is my select code: <?php include("./config.php"); $query="SELECT id,name FROM category_names ORDER BY name"; $result = mysql_query ($query); echo"<div style='overflow:auto;width:100%'><label>Categories (Pick three that describe your business)</label><br/><select name='select1'><option value='0'>Please Select A Category</option>"; // printing the list box select command while($catinfo=mysql_fetch_array($result)){//Array or records stored in $nt echo "<option>$catinfo[name]</option><br/> "; } echo"</select></div>"; ?> And here is my insert code ( Just to let you know its got everything not just the select!) ?php require("./config.php"); $companyname = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes(trim($_REQUEST['name']))); $phone = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['phone'])); $zipcode = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['zipcode'])); $city = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['city'])); $description = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['description'])); $website = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['website'])); $address = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['address'])); $other = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['other'])); $payment = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['payment'])); $products = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['products'])); $email = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['email'])); $select1 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select1'])); $select2 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select2'])); $select3 = mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes($_REQUEST['select3'])); $save=$_POST['save']; if(!empty($save)){ $sql="INSERT INTO gj (name, phone, city, zipcode, description, dateadded, website, address1, other2, payment_options, Products, email,cat1,cat2,cat3) VALUES ('$companyname','$phone','$city','$zipcode','$description',curdate(),'$website','$address','$other','$payment','$products','$email','$select1','$select2','$select3')"; if (!mysql_query($sql,$link)) { die('Error: ' . mysql_error()); } echo "<br/><h2><font color='green' style='font-size:15px'>1 business added</font></h2>"; mysql_close($link); } ?>

    Read the article

  • Not naming a type - C++

    - by ML
    I am trying to convert an Adobe CS4 based plugin to CS5. This project has never been mine, this is the first time that i am seeing it. When I compile the source with what i was given, I get errors like: Does not name a type Example: SPAPI SPErr SPBasicAcquireSuite( const char *name, int64 version, const void **suite ); I get that: SPErr does not name a type I dont see any classes with SPErr being defined, but I doubt that Adobe has left this out of the SDK. I am using the PS_CS5_SDK_3 SDK

    Read the article

  • PHP: Over-writing session variables

    - by Tom
    Hi, Question related to PHP memory-handling from someone not yet very experienced in PHP: If I set a PHP session variable of a particular name, and then set a session variable of the exact same name elsewhere (during the same session), is the original variable over-written, or does junk accumulate in the session? In other words, should I be destroying a previous session variable before creating a new one of the same name? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • initializing properties with private sets in .Net

    - by Martin Neal
    public class Foo { public string Name { get; private set;} // <-- Because set is private, } void Main() { var bar = new Foo {Name = "baz"}; // <-- This doesn't compile /*The property or indexer 'UserQuery.Foo.Name' cannot be used in this context because the set accessor is inaccessible*/ using (DataContext dc = new DataContext(Connection)) { // yet the following line works. **How**? IEnumerable<Foo> qux = dc.ExecuteQuery<Foo>( "SELECT Name FROM Customer"); } foreach (q in qux) Console.WriteLine(q); } I have just been using the private modifier because it works and kept me from being stupid with my code, but now that I need to create a new Foo, I've just removed the private modifier from my property. I'm just really curious, why does the ExecuteQuery into an IEnumerable of Foo's work?

    Read the article

  • Authorization security of ASP.NET Forms authentication

    - by Tomi
    I'm using Forms authentication in ASP.NET MVC website and I store user account login name in AuthCookie like this: FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(account.Login, false); I want to ask if there is a possibility that user on client side will somehow manage to change his login name in AuthCookie and thus he will be for example impersonated as someone with higher privileges and authorized to do more actions than he is normally supposed to have. Also is it better to save in this cookie user account login name or user account ID number?

    Read the article

  • What happens if a server never receives the RST packet?

    - by Rob
    Someone recently decided to show me a POC of a new Denial of Service method using SYN/TCP he's figured out. I thought it was complete nonsense, but after explaining to him about SYN-SYN/ACK-RST, he left me speechless. He told me "what if the server you're using to trick into sending the SYN/ACK packets can't receive the RST packet?" I have no idea. He claims that the server will continue trying to send SYN/ACK packets, and that the packetrate will continue to build up. Is there any truth to this? Can anyone elaborate? Apparently, the way it works is this: He spoofs the IP of the SYN packet to the target's IP. He then sends the SYN packet to a handful of random servers They all reply with their SYN/ACK packet to the target IP, of course The target responds with RST, as we know BUT somehow he keeps the target from sending the RST or keeps the random servers from processing it With this, apparently the servers will continue trying to send the SYN/ACK packets, thus producing a somewhat of a "snowball" effect.

    Read the article

  • how to implement ajax in Ruby on rails via jquery

    - by swaroopsm
    how do i pass few of my form field(s) values to a controller usnig ajax/jquery? For eg.: In php/jquery I do something like this: $("#test-btn".click(function(){ var name=$("#name").val(); var age=$("#age").val(); $.post("insert.php",{name: name,age: age}, function(data){ $("#respone").html(data).hide().fadeIn(500); }); }); //insert.php <?php //insert values to database! ?> how do i acheive a similar functionality in rails using ajax/jquery?

    Read the article

  • DDD: Enum like entities

    - by Chris
    Hi all, I have the following DB model: **Person table** ID | Name | StateId ------------------------------ 1 Joe 1 2 Peter 1 3 John 2 **State table** ID | Desc ------------------------------ 1 Working 2 Vacation and domain model would be (simplified): public class Person { public int Id { get; } public string Name { get; set; } public State State { get; set; } } public class State { private int id; public string Name { get; set; } } The state might be used in the domain logic e.g.: if(person.State == State.Working) // some logic So from my understanding, the State acts like a value object which is used for domain logic checks. But it also needs to be present in the DB model to represent a clean ERM. So state might be extended to: public class State { private int id; public string Name { get; set; } public static State New {get {return new State([hardCodedIdHere?], [hardCodeNameHere?]);}} } But using this approach the name of the state would be hardcoded into the domain. Do you know what I mean? Is there a standard approach for such a thing? From my point of view what I am trying to do is using an object (which is persisted from the ERM design perspective) as a sort of value object within my domain. What do you think? Question update: Probably my question wasn't clear enough. What I need to know is, how I would use an entity (like the State example) that is stored in a database within my domain logic. To avoid things like: if(person.State.Id == State.Working.Id) // some logic or if(person.State.Id == WORKING_ID) // some logic

    Read the article

  • Serializing form data with field names that have dots in them.

    - by Dave
    Does the serialize function in jQuery replace dots ('.') with underscores? For example, I have a form field such as: <input id="Project.name" name="Project.name" type="text"> When the form is POSTed, I'm serializing the form data and sending it to another PHP file to save. The dots seem to be converted to underscores. Is this normal behavior?

    Read the article

  • assign a model's attribute through association

    - by justcode
    I'm new to rails and working on a rails app and I'm stuck pondering this issue. I have three models class product < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :issn, :category validates_presence_of :name, :issn, :category validates_numericality_of :issn, :message => "has to be a number" has_many :user_products has_many :users, :through => :user_products end class UserProduct < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :price, :category validates_presence_of :price, :category validates_numericality_of :price, :message = "has to be a number" belongs_to :user belongs_to :product end class user < ActiveRecord::Base # devise authentication here # Setup accessible (or protected) attributes for your model attr_accessible :email, :password, :password_confirmation, :remember_me has_many :user_products has_many :products, :through = :user_products end here is my new.html.erb <div class="MainBodyWrapper"> <div class="span8"> <div id="listBoxWrapper"> <fieldset> <%= form_for(@product, :html => { :class => "form-inline" }, :style => "margin-bottom: 60px" ) do |f| %> <div class="control-group"> <label class="control-label" for="name">name</label> <div class="controls"> <%= f.text_field :price, :class => 'input-xlarge input-name', :id => "name" %> </div> </div> <div class="listingButtons"> <button class="btn btn-info"></i>Add</button> <a class="btn">Upload Pictures (anytime)</a> </div> </fieldset> </div> </div> There are reasons why I want to setup the models this way. So the question is this: I want the user to enter the info for the product in the form but it also involves putting in the price of the product which exists in a different model/table (user_product) that is associated with product. How can I do this? You can see that my form_for uses @product. Any help will be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Seam log4j credential logs

    - by Marc
    In Seam, using log4, I would like to have my info, warn and error always logging the logged in user (if so) name to be logged with whatever the log message is. Being a consistant thing I do not want to have to grab the logged-in user name, and prefix the message. so I attempted to populate the log4j NDC to have it as a field of the log message. Pushing the user name on successful login: NDC.push(credentials.getUsername()); Which works, but the NDC is managed per thread, so once another thread processes a request from the same logged in user, the trace of this user name is lost. I was thinking that there should be a common pattern to accomplish this simple task which is attaching each log message to the logged user, using the NDC or not, to know exactly what user triggered what action. Anyone knows the appropriate way to accomplish this?

    Read the article

  • XML and .NET: How to replace specific node with many other ones loaded from raw xml data

    - by Entrase
    Let's suppose we have an element like this one in the main xml file: <group name="gr1" filename="groups/gr1.xml"/>. The second file gr1.xml contains something like this: <item name="i1">Item one</item> <item name="i2">Item two</item> <item name="i3">Item three</item> Note that there is no XML declaration in gr1.xml, just plain items without single parent node. So… Which is the best way to replace <group/> with its <item/>s? I have already tried some things like manual enclosing of gr1.xml content into a single node with XML declaration and loading it into XmlDocument, but it doesn't look like a good solution.

    Read the article

  • DB function failed with error number 1 in joomla admin panel

    - by sabuj
    When i access joomla article manager or module manager then i had faced the bellow output: 500 - An error has occurred! DB function failed with error number 1 Can't create/write to file '/tmp/#sql_57c0_0.MYD' (Errcode: 17) SQL=SELECT c.*, g.name AS groupname, cc.title AS name, u.name AS editor, f.content_id AS frontpage, s.title AS section_name, v.name AS author FROM jos_content AS c LEFT JOIN jos_categories AS cc ON cc.id = c.catid LEFT JOIN jos_sections AS s ON s.id = c.sectionid LEFT JOIN jos_groups AS g ON g.id = c.access LEFT JOIN jos_users AS u ON u.id = c.checked_out LEFT JOIN jos_users AS v ON v.id = c.created_by LEFT JOIN jos_content_frontpage AS f ON f.content_id = c.id WHERE c.state != -2 ORDER BY section_name , section_name, cc.title, c.ordering LIMIT 0, 20

    Read the article

  • NHibernate and objects with value-semantics

    - by Groo
    Problem: If I pass a class with value semantics (Equals method overridden) to NHibernate, NHibernate tries to save it to db even though it just saved an entity equal by value (but not by reference) to the database. What am I doing wrong? Here is a simplified example model for my problem: Let's say I have a Person entity and a City entity. One thread (producer) is creating new Person objects which belong to a specific existing City, and another thread (consumer) is saving them to a repository (using NHibernate as DAL). Since there is lot of objects being flushed at a time, I am using Guid.Comb id's to ensure that each insert is made using a single SQL command. City is an object with value-type semantics (equal by name only -- for this example purposes only): public class City : IEquatable<City> { public virtual Guid Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual bool Equals(City other) { if (other == null) return false; return this.Name == other.Name; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { return Equals(obj as City); } public override int GetHashCode() { return this.Name.GetHashCode(); } } Fluent NH mapping is something like: public class PersonMap : ClassMap<Person> { public PersonMap() { Id(x => x.Id) .GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); References(x => x.City) .Cascade.SaveUpdate(); } } public class CityMap : ClassMap<City> { public CityMap() { Id(x => x.Id) .GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); Map(x => x.Name); } } Right now (with my current NHibernate mapping config), my consumer thread maintains a dictionary of cities and replaces their references in incoming person objects (otherwise NHibernate will see a new, non-cached City object and try to save it as well), and I need to do it for every produced Person object. Since I have implemented City class to behave like a value type, I hoped that NHibernate would compare Cities by value and not try to save them each time -- i.e. I would only need to do a lookup once per session and not care about them anymore. Is this possible, and if yes, what am I doing wrong here?

    Read the article

  • unable to calculate textfield values

    - by user1726508
    i am trying to change the input field when users changes the quantity of items in a text field. Here i am iterating my list from my database. Now i have to make invoice for customer. In my code , if i am changing quantity of a single item, then it is effecting all the other items in the list. I want to change only to the specific items,where its quantity has been change. Below code is giving me error. It is changing all the items value on single change of item quantity. my code; <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $(function() { $('input[name="quantity"]').change(function() { var unitprice = $('input[name^="unitprice"]').val(); $(this).parents('tr').find('input[name^="price"]').val($(this).val() * unitprice); }); }); }); </script> <tr> <td height="65%" valign="top" width="100%"> <table width="100%" height="100%" border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <s:iterator value="#session.BOK" status="userStatus"> <tr style="height: 10px;"> <td width="65%" align="left"><s:property value="bookTitile"/></td> <td width="10%" align="left"><s:textfield name="unitprice" value="%{price}" size="4"/></td> <td width="10%" align="center"><s:textfield name="quantity" value="%{quantity}" size="2"/></td> <td width="15%" align="center"><s:textfield name="price" size="6"></s:textfield> </td> </tr> </s:iterator> </table> </td> </tr> output looks like this image...

    Read the article

  • Why Response.Write behavior varies in the given scenario?

    - by Sri Kumar
    Hello All, When i POST the page using the following code, the Response.write("Hey") doesn't write the content ("Hello") to the parent page <form method="post" name="upload" enctype="multipart/form-data" action="http://localhost:2518/Web/CrossPage.aspx?cmd=getvalue" > <input type="file" name="filename" /> <input type="submit" value="Upload Data File" name="cmdSubmit" /> </form> But When i use following code , and POST the data, the Response.write("Hey") can be obtained in the parent page HttpWebRequest requestToSender = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://localhost:2518/Web/CrossPage.aspx?cmd=getvalue"); requestToSender.Method = "POST"; requestToSender.ContentType = "multipart/form-data"; HttpWebResponse responseFromSender = (HttpWebResponse)requestToSender.GetResponse(); string fromSender = string.Empty; using (StreamReader responseReader = new StreamReader(responseFromSender.GetResponseStream())) { fromSender = responseReader.ReadToEnd(); } In the CrossPage.aspx i have the following code if (!Page.IsPostBack) { NameValueCollection postPageCollection = Request.Form; foreach (string name in postPageCollection.AllKeys) { Response.Write(name + " " + postPageCollection[name]); } HttpFileCollection postCollection = Request.Files; foreach (string name in postCollection.AllKeys) { HttpPostedFile aFile = postCollection[name]; aFile.SaveAs(Server.MapPath(".") + "/" + Path.GetFileName(aFile.FileName)); } Response.Write("Hey"); } I don't have any code in the Page_Load event of parent page.? What could be the cause? I need to write the "hey" to the Parent page using the first scenario. Both the application are of different domain. Edit: "Hey" would be from the CrossPage.aspx. I need to write this back to the Parent Page

    Read the article

  • Fluent NHibernate AutoMap

    - by Markus
    Hi. I have a qouestion regarding the AutoMap xml generation. I have two classes: public class User { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Name { get; set; } virtual public String Email { get; set; } virtual public String Password { get; set; } virtual public IList<OpenID> OpenIDs { get; set; } } public class OpenID { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Provider { get; set; } virtual public String Ticket { get; set; } virtual public User User { get; set; } } The generated sequences of xml files are: For User class: <bag name="OpenIDs"> <key> <column name="User_Id" /> </key> <one-to-many class="BL_DAL.Entities.OpenID, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </bag> For OpenID class: <many-to-one class="BL_DAL.Entities.User, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="User"> <column name="User_id" /> </many-to-one> I don't see the inverse=true attribute for the User mapping. Is it a normal behavior, or I made a mistake somewhere?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413  | Next Page >