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  • KeepAlive packets over a Soap request

    - by Nycto
    I've been debugging some Soap requests we are making between two servers on the same VLAN. The app on one server is written in PHP, the app on the other is written in Java. I can control and make changes to the PHP code, but I can't affect the Java server. The PHP app forms the XML using the DOMDocument objects, then sends the request using the cURL extension. When the soap request took longer than 5 minutes to complete, it would always wait until the max timeout limit and exit with a message like this: Operation timed out after 900000 milliseconds with 0 bytes received After sniffing the packets that were being sent, it turns out that the problem was caused by a 5 minute timeout in the network that was closing what it thought was a stale connection. There were two ways to fix it: bump up the timeout in iptables, or start sending KeepAlive packets over the request. To be thorough, I would like to implement both solutions. Bumping up the timeout was easy for ops to do, but sending KeepAlive packets is turning out to be difficult. The cURL library itself supports this (see the --keepalive-time flag for the CLI app), but it doesn't appear that this has been implemented in the PHP cURL library. I even checked the source to make sure it wasn't an undocumented feature. So my question is this: How the heck can I get these packets sent? I see a few clear options, but I don't like any of them: Write a wrapper that will kick off the request by shell_execing the CLI app. This is a hack that I just don't like Update the cURL extension to support this. This is a non-option according to Ops. Open the socket myself. I know just enough to be dangerous. I also haven't seen a way to do this with fsockopen, but I could be missing something. Switch to another library. What exists that supports this? Thanks for any help you can offer.

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  • Is this possible to join tables in doctrine ORM without using relations?

    - by piemesons
    Suppose there are two tables. Table X-- Columns: id x_value Table Y-- Columns: id x_id y_value Now I dont want to define relationship in doctrine classes and i want to retrieve some records using these two tables using a query like this: Select x_value from x, y where y.id="variable_z" and x.id=y.x_id; I m not able to figure out how to write query like this in doctrine orm EDIT: Table structures: Table 1: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `image` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `random_name` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `community_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `published` varchar(1) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=259 ; Table 2: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `users` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `city` varchar(20) DEFAULT NULL, `state` varchar(20) DEFAULT NULL, `school` varchar(50) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=20 ; Query I am using: $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q ->select('{u.*}, {img.*}') ->from('users u LEFT JOIN image img ON u.id = img.user_id') ->addComponent('u', 'Users u') ->addComponent('img', 'u.Image img') ->where("img.community_id='$community_id' AND img.published='y' AND u.state='$state' AND u.city='$city ->orderBy('img.id DESC') ->limit($count+12) ->execute(); Error I am getting: Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'Doctrine_Exception' with message 'Couldn't find class u' in C:\xampp\htdocs\fanyer\doctrine\lib\Doctrine\Table.php:290 Stack trace: #0 C:\xampp\htdocs\fanyer\doctrine\lib\Doctrine\Table.php(240): Doctrine_Table- >initDefinition() #1 C:\xampp\htdocs\fanyer\doctrine\lib\Doctrine\Connection.php(1127): Doctrine_Table->__construct('u', Object(Doctrine_Connection_Mysql), true) #2 C:\xampp\htdocs\fanyer\doctrine\lib\Doctrine\RawSql.php(425): Doctrine_Connection- >getTable('u') #3 C:\xampp\htdocs\fanyer\doctrine\models\Image.php(33): Doctrine_RawSql- >addComponent('img', 'u.Image imga') #4 C:\xampp\htdocs\fanyer\community_images.php(31): Image->get_community_images_gallery_filter(4, 0, 'AL', 'ALBERTVILLE') #5 {main} thrown in C:\xampp\htdocs\fanyer\doctrine\lib\Doctrine\Table.php on line 290

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  • Lazy loading of Blob properties of one class

    - by Khosro
    Hi, My class contains "summary" and "title" properties those are Blob and other properties. Code:(I write some part of class) public class News extends BaseEntity{ @Lob @Basic(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) public String getSummary() { return summary; } @Lob @Basic(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) public String getTitle() { return title; } @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) public Date getPublishDate() { return publishDate; } } I instrument this class to lazy load of Blob properties using this class "org.hibernate.tool.instrument.javassist.InstrumentTask". When i write this code to retrieve only summary of new , newsDAO.findByid(1L).getSummary(); Hibernate generates these queries: Hibernate: select news0_.id as id1_, news0_.entityVersion as entityVe2_1_, news0_.publishDate as publish15_1_, news0_.url as url1_ from News news0_ Hibernate: select news_.summary as summary1_, news_.title as title1_ from News news_ where news_.id=? I have two qurestions: 1.I only want to retrieve "summary" property not "title" property,but Hibernate queries show that it also retrieve "title" property,Why this happens(i want to lazy load of "property")? It seems when i load one of Blob property ,Hibernate loads all of them.Why?(This is my main question) 2.Why Hibernate generates two queries for retrieving only "summary" property of news? Khosro.

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  • What's the proper way to setup different objects as delegates using Interface Builder?

    - by eagle
    Let's say I create a new project. I now add two text fields to the view controller in Interface Builder. I want to respond to delegate events that the text fields create, however, I don't want to have the main view controller to act as the delegate for both text fields. Ideally I want a separate file for each text field that acts as the delegate. Each of these objects also needs to be able to interact with the main view controller. My question is how I would set this up and link everything correctly? I tried creating a new class that inherits from NSObject and implements UITextFieldDelegate. I then added an instance variable called "viewController" of the same type of my view controller and marked it with IBOutlet (this required me to add #import "myViewcontroller.h"). I then went to Interface Builder and opened up my view controller which contains the two edit boxes. I added an NSObject to the form and changed it's type to be of the new class I created. I set its viewController property to the File's Owner, and set one of the textbox's delegate properties to point to this new object I created. Now when I run the program, it crashes when I touch the text box. It gives the error EXC_BAD_ACCESS. I'm guessing I didn't link stuff correctly in IB. Some things I'm not sure about which might be the problem: Does IB automatically know to create an instance of the class just by placing the NSObject in the ViewController? Can it properly assign the viewController property to an instance of itself even though it is creating itself at the same time?

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  • Android EditText won't take up remaining space

    - by Jamie
    In my Android app, I have a tabbed Activity. In one of the tabs I have two TextViews and two EditTexts. The first EditText is only one line, and that's fine. However, I want the other EditText, android:id="@+id/paste_code", to take up the remaining space, but no matter what I do to it, it will only show one line. I don't want to manually set the number of lines, since the number that would fit on the screen differs based on your device. Here's the relevant code. It's nested inside all the necessary components for a tabbed Activity. <ScrollView android:id="@+id/basicTab" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" > <LinearLayout android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_weight="1" > <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Paste title" android:layout_weight="0" /> <EditText android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:hint="@string/paste_title_hint" android:id="@+id/paste_title" android:lines="1" android:gravity="top|left" android:layout_weight="0" /> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Paste text" android:layout_weight="0" /> <EditText android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:hint="@string/paste_hint" android:id="@+id/paste_code" android:gravity="top|left" android:layout_weight="1" /> </LinearLayout> </ScrollView>

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  • Java (Tomcat): how to configure a cookieless subdomain to serve static content

    - by Webinator
    One of the tip given by both Google and Yahoo! to speed up webpages loading is to configure a cookieless subdomain to server static content. How do you configure a "cookieless subdomain" using Tomcat in standalone mode (this question is not about how to use Apache to serve static content in a cookieless-way, but about how to do it in Tomcat-standalone mode)? Note that I don't care about filters supporting If-Modified-Since nor care about filters supporting gzipping: the static content I'm serving is forever cacheable (or its name will change) and it is already compressed data (so gzip would only slow down the transfer). Do I need two different Tomcat webapps? (one "cookiefull" and one "cookieless") Do I need two different servlets? (as of now I've got only one dispatcher/controller servlet). Why would a "regular" link to, say, a static image be called in a cookiefull way when it would be on the same domain as the main webapp and then be called in a "cookie-less" way when it is on a subdomain? I don't understand exactly what is going on: is it the browser that decides to append or not cookies to the query? If so, why would it not append the cookies to a static query on a "cookieless" subdomain. Any example as to what is going on behind the scene is most welcome :)

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  • Which itch does a gravatar scratch?

    - by WizardOfOdds
    This is a very serious question: I've seen lots of threads here about gravatars but I couldn't find and answer to this question: what computer identification/authentication (?) problem, if any, are gravatars supposed to solve? Neither the Wikipedia entry nor the official website are very useful. The official website mentions a "globally unique" picture. Unique in what sense? As far as I can see it's only the hash that is unique: two persons can have two pictures looking very similar if not identical. Note that this question is not about which problems do gravatars unarguably cause (like leaking 10% of the stackoverflow.com accounts email addresses like discussed here : "gravatars can leak email adresses" ) but about which authentication (?) problems, if any, are gravatars supposed to solve? Is the goal just to have a cool/funny/cute icon and save bandwith by having it stored on a remote website or is there more to it, like serving a real authentication purpose which I'd be completely missing? Note that I've got nothing against them and find them rather cool, but I'm just having a hard time figuring out what their purpose is and if I should care or not about them in the webapps I'm developping.

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  • How to pass a Context when using acts_as_taggable_on for assigning tags

    - by kbjerring
    I am using acts_as_taggable_on for assigning 'fixed' categories as well as free' tags to a Company model. My question is how I can pass the correct tag Context for the two different kinds of tags in the form view. For instance, I would like the user to click all the "sector" categories that apply to a company, and then be freely allowed to add additional tags. At this point, the only way I have gotten this to work is through the company model (inspired by this question): # models/company.rb class Company ... acts_as_taggable_on :sectors, :tags has_many :sector_tags, :through => :taggings, :source => :tag, has_many :taggings, :as => :taggable, :include => :tag, :class_name => "ActsAsTaggableOn::Tagging", :conditions => { :taggable_type => "Company", :context => "sectors" } ... end in the form (using the simple_form gem) I have... # views/companies/_form.html.haml = simple_form_for @company do |f| = f.input :name = f.association :sector_tags, :as => :check_boxes, :hint => "Please click all that apply" = f.input :tag_list But this obviously causes the two tag types ("sectors" and "tags") to be of the same "sectors" context which is not what I want. Can anyone hint at how I can pass the relevant Context ("sectors") in the form where the user assigns the sector tags? Or maybe I can pass it in the "has_many :sector_tags ..." line in the Company model? A related question is if this is a good way to do it at all? Would I be better off just using a Category model for assigning sector tags through a joint model? Thanks!

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  • Help with route rewrite in asp.net mvc

    - by NachoF
    Im having a really hard time understanding routing. Please help me with this problem. Each of my controllers have these three actions right now Users have Index, Create and Edit Locations have Index, Create and Edit Companies have Index, Create and Edit The thing is, it all gets done through ajax. I have jquery ui tabs with two tabs for each, Create and Edit So the Index method is always the one that gets called for action links. and inside this main view is that you can call(by clicking on the tab icon) the other methods that return an ajax view that gets output into the jqeury tab (I hope thats clear) I have a sidebar with links to the controllers. and to specific methods of these controllers. The wanted behavior is that it should actually go into the Index Method and then with some logic autoload the wanted tab. It all works just fine right now. But my urls are horrible. To get to the create method for Users I have to go this url http://localhost/Users/Index/1 http://localhost/Users/Index/2 I want the behavior of these links to be remapped to these links http://localhost/Users/Create http://localhost/Users/Edit So even though it seems as if you are calling the Create method of the controller you are actualling always calling the Index Method.... (I know how to transform Create into "1" and Edit into two, so dont worry about that part Hope thats clear. Thanks in advance Edit: Just realized that this might not be possible cause then when I actually need to call the methods (with ajax) it wont know what to do.... am I correct?

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  • Why isn't the background image showing up on my webpage?

    - by William
    okay, so I'm trying to set up a webpage with a div wrapping two other divs, and the wrapper div has a background, and the other two are transparent. How come this isn't working? here is the CSS: .posttext{ float: left; width: 70%; text-align: left; padding: 5px; background-color: !important #transparent; } .postavi{ float: left; width: 100px; height: 100%; text-align: left; background-color: #transparent; padding: 5px; } .postwrapper{ background-image:url('images/post_bg.png'); background-position:left top; background-repeat:repeat-y; } and here is the HTML: <div class="postwrapper"> <div class="postavi"><img src="http://prime.programming-designs.com/test_forum/images/avatars/hacker.png" alt="hacker"/></div><div class="posttext"><p style="color: #ff0066">You will have bad luck today.</p>lol</div> </div>

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  • How to handle EntityExistsException properly?

    - by Ivan Yatskevich
    I have two entities: Question and FavoritesCounter. FavoritesCounter should be created when the question is added to favorites for the first time. Consider a use case when two users tries to add a question to favorites simultaneously - this will cause EntityExistsException when entityManager.persist(counter) is called for the second user. But the code below doesn't work, because when EntityExistsException is thrown, container marks transaction as rollback only and attempt to return getFavoritesCounter(question) fails with javax.resource.ResourceException: Transaction is not active @Stateless public class FavoritesServiceBean implements FavoritesService { ... public void addToFavorites(Question question) { FavoritesCounter counter = getCounter(question); if (counter == null) { counter = createCounter(question); } //increase counter } private FavoritesCounter createCounter(Question question) { try { FavoritesCounter counter = new FavoritesCounter(); counter.setQuestion(question); entityManager.persist(counter); entityManager.flush(); return counter; } catch (EntityExistsException e) { return getFavoritesCounter(question); } } private FavoritesCounter getFavoritesCounter(Question question) { Query counterQuery = entityManager.createQery("SELECT counter FROM FavoritesCounter counter WHERE counter.question = :question"); counterQuery.setParameter("question", question); List<FavoritesCounter> result = counterQuery.getResultList(); if (result.isEmpty()) return null; return result.get(0); } } Question @Entity public class Question implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; //getter and setter for id } FavoritesCounter @Entity public class FavoritesCounter implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @OneToOne @Column(unique = true) private Question question; //getter and setter } What is the best way to handle such a situation - return already created entity after EntityExistsException?

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  • Why does Tfs2010 build my Wix project before anything else?

    - by bwerks
    Hi all, A similar question was asked and answered about a year ago, but was either a different issue (everything was in beta) or misdiagnosed. It's located here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/688162/msbuild-task-fails-because-any-cpu-solution-is-built-out-of-order. My issue is that I have a wix installer project, and after upgrading to Tfs2010 on monday, the build fails on linking because it can't find the build product of the Wpf application in the project. After some digging, it's because it hasn't been built yet. Building in Vs2010 works as normal. The wix project is set to depend on the Wpf project, and when viewing Project Build Order in the IDE, everything looks as normal. The problem was originally encountered with only two platform definitions in the solution; x86 and x64. There are also two flavors, Debug and Release, and TFSBuild.proj is set to build all four combinations. There was no occurence of AnyCPU anywhere. Per the referenced question above, I tried changing the Wpf project to use AnyCPU so that it would be built first. At this point, the wix project used the exact configuration and the Wpf project used the flavor with AnyCPU. However, doing so didn't seem to change anything. I'm using the Tfs2010 RTM, Vs2010 RTM, and the most recent version of Wix, which at the time of this writing is 3.5.1602.0, from 2010-04-02. Anyone else running into this?

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  • Process results of conditional split in SSIS

    - by Robert
    I have a Data Flow Task and am connecting to a database via an OLE DB Source component to extract data. This data feeds into a Conditional Split component to separate the data based on a simple expression. After the evaluation of this expression, the data will end up in either of two locations: LocationA or LocationB. Alright, I have that all set up and working properly. Once the data is separated into these two locations, additional processing is to be done on the records. Here's where I am stuck: I need the the processing of records in LocationA to occur before the processing of records in LocationB. Is there a way to set precedence of which tasks occur before others? If not, what is the best way to handle this? I was thinking I may need to write the data in LocationA and LocationB back out to the database and create a new data flow task in the control flow to handle the order of which these records must be dealt with. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Internet explorer only executing function inside jQuery ajax success response once even though there

    - by user249950
    Hi, I have a function that uses jQuery.load() to call in 3 snippets of forms from different pages and then on the success text status it tries to load a colour picker: $(document).ready(function() { function ajax_form(putloadingboxhere, putsnippethere, snippeturl) { $(putsnippethere).load(snippeturl, function (responseText, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest, ) { if (textStatus == "success") { alert('One') $("input.pickcolor").ColorPicker({ onShow: function (colpkr) { $(colpkr).fadeIn(500); return false; }, onSubmit: function(hsb, hex, rgb, el) { $(el).val(hex); $(el).ColorPickerHide(); $(el).siblings('.colorpreview').css('background-color', '#' + hex); }, onBeforeShow: function () { $(this).ColorPickerSetColor(this.value); } }) .bind('keyup', function(){ $(this).ColorPickerSetColor(this.value); }); alert('Two') } if (textStatus == "error") { // Show error message } }); } ajax_form('tab_box', '#formone', 'snippet_one.htm #snippet'); ajax_form('tab_box', '#formtwo', 'snippet_two_copy.htm #snippet'); ajax_form('tab_box', '#formthree', 'snippet_three.htm #snippet'); }); It works fine in Firefox and Safari but (surprise, surprise) IE has a problem with it. I have added an alert to see what is going on before and after one of the functions. FF & Safari & IE8: Alert 'one' and Alert 'two' appear three times as expected and colour picker appears. IE6 & 7: Alert 'one' shows three times and colour picker does not appear. Any help would be great! Cheers. EDIT The line IE is referring to when it throws this error: 'Error: Object doesn't support this property or method.' is: $('input.pickcolor').ColorPicker Anyone got any insights? Thanks

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  • Is it possible to open a new frame in html bellow an existing frame in HTML?

    - by Prashant Dubey
    Hi friends I have a html main.html as given ----- main.html---------------- <title>FlexTrail</title> <script src="main.js"></script> <frameset rows='200,200'> <frame id='one' src="file:///C:/Documents%20and%20Settings/demo/Desktop/FlexTrail/project1/bin-debug/project1.html" frameborder='0' /> <frame id='two' src="" frameborder='0' /> </frameset> </head> <body > </body> here the first frame contains a html generated by Flex Builder 3 and on button click on that flex project i am calling function func2() in main.js using External Interface. ---- main.js----------------- var flag2=0; function func2() { flag2=1; parent.frames['one'].location="file:///C:/Documents%20and%20Settings/demo/Desktop/FlexTrail/project1/bin-debug/project1.html"; parent.frames['two'].location="file:///C:/Documents%20and%20Settings/demo/Desktop/FlexTrail/project2/bin-debug/project2.html"; } I want the other file to open in same window bellow the first one.But the problem here is when i run this in IE8 the other frame opens in a different window but in Firefox im not getting any respose. Note:- Javascript is enabled in both browsers and popup are not blocked Plz tell me where i m wrong Thanks in advance Prashant Dubey

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  • branch prediction

    - by Alexander
    Consider the following sequence of actual outcomes for a single static branch. T means the branch is taken. N means the branch is not taken. For this question, assume that this is the only branch in the program. T T T N T N T T T N T N T T T N T N Assume a two-level branch predictor that uses one bit of branch history—i.e., a one-bit BHR. Since there is only one branch in the program, it does not matter how the BHR is concatenated with the branch PC to index the BHT. Assume that the BHT uses one-bit counters and that, again, all entries are initialized to N. Which of the branches in this sequence would be mis-predicted? Use the table below. Now I am not asking answers to this question, rather than guides and pointers on this. What does a two level branch predictor means and how does it works? What does the BHR and BHT stands for?

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  • Strange rare out-of-order data received using Indy

    - by Jim
    We're having a bizarre problem with Indy10 where two large strings (a few hundred characters each) that we send out one after the other are appearing at the other end intertwined oddly. This happens extremely infrequently. Each string is a complete XML message terminated with a LF and in general the READ process reads an entire XML message, returning when it sees the LF. The call to actually send the message is protected by a critical section around the call to the IOHandler's writeln method and so it is not possible for two threads to send at the same time. (We're certain the critical section is implemented/working properly). This problem happens very rarely. The symptoms are odd...when we send string A followed by string B what we received at the other end (on the rare occasions where we have failure) is the trailing section of string A by itself (i.e., there's a LF at the end of it) followed by the leading section of string A and then the entire string B followed by a single LF. We've verified that the "timed out" property is not true after the partial read - we log that property after every read that returns content. Also, we know there are no embedded LF characters in the string, as we explicitly replace all non-alphanumeric characters in the string with spaces before appending the LF and sending it. We have log mechanisms inside the critical sections on both the transmission and receiving ends and so we can see this behavior at the "wire". We're completely baffled and wondering (although always the lowest possibility) whether there could be some low-level Indy issues that might cause this issue, e.g., buffers being sent in the wrong order....very hard to believe this could be the issue but we're grasping at straws. Does anyone have any bright ideas?

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  • Help with pregreplace and uniqid for jquery dialog boxes

    - by Scarface
    First of all, do not be overwhelmed by the long code, I just put it for reference...I have a function that runs preg_replace on each comment users post and puts matches in a jquery dialog box with a matching open-link. For example, if there is a paragraph with two matches, they will be put inside two divs, and a jquery dialog function will be echoed twice; one for each div. While this works for one match, if there are multiple matches, it does not. I am not sure how to distribute unique ids at a point in time for each of the divs and matching dialog open-scripts. Keep in mind, I removed the preg replace function since it kind of complicates the problem. If anyone has any ideas, they will be greatly appreciated. <?php $id=uniqid(); $id2=uniqid(); echo "<div id=\"$id2\"> </div>"; ?> $.ui.dialog.defaults.bgiframe = true; $(function() { $("<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>").dialog({hide: 'clip', modal: true ,width: 600,height: 350,position: 'center', show: 'clip',stack: true,title: 'title', minHeight: 25, minWidth: 100, autoOpen: false}); $('<?php echo"#$id"; ?>').click(function() { $('<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>').dialog('open'); }) .hover( function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-hover"); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-hover"); } ).mousedown(function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-active"); }) .mouseup(function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-active"); }); });

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  • Loading JSON-encoded AJAX content into jQuery UI tabs

    - by pocketfullofcheese
    We want our of our AJAX calls in our web app to receive JSON-encoded content. In most places this is already done (e.g. in modals) and works fine. However, when using jQueryUI's tabs (http://jqueryui.com/demos/tabs/) and their ajax functionality, only plaintext HTML can be returned (i.e. from the URLs specified in the a tags below). How do I get the tab function to recognize that on each tab's click, it will be receiving JSON-encoded data from the specified URL, and to load in the .content index of that JSON? $(function() { $('div#myTabs').tabs(); }); <div id="mytabs" class="ui-tabs ui-widget ui-widget-content ui-corner-all"> <ul class="ui-tabs-nav ui-helper-reset ui-helper-clearfix ui-widget-header ui-corner-all"> <li class="ui-state-default ui-corner-top"><a href="/url/one">Tab one</a></li> <li class="ui-state-default ui-corner-top"><a href="/url/two">Tab two</a></li> </ul> </div>

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  • How do I reference Django Model from another model

    - by user313943
    Im looking to create a view in the admin panel for a test program which logs Books, publishers and authors (as on djangoproject.com) I have the following two models defined. class Author(models.Model): first_name = models.CharField(max_length=30) last_name = models.CharField(max_length=30) email = models.EmailField() def __unicode__(self): return u'%s %s' % (self.first_name, self.last_name) class Book(models.Model): title = models.CharField(max_length=100) authors = models.ManyToManyField(Author) publisher = models.ForeignKey(Publisher) publication_date = models.DateField() def __unicode__(self): return self.title What I want to do, is change the Book model to reference the first_name of any authors and show this using admin.AdminModels. #Here is the admin model I've created. class BookAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): list_display = ('title', 'publisher', 'publication_date') # Author would in here list_filter = ('publication_date',) date_hierarchy = 'publication_date' ordering = ('-publication_date',) fields = ('title', 'authors', 'publisher', 'publication_date') filter_horizontal = ('authors',) raw_id_fields = ('publisher',) As I understand it, you cannot have two ForeignKeys in the same model. Can anyone give me an example of how to do this? I've tried loads of different things and its been driving me mad all day. Im pretty new to Python/Django. Just to be clear - I'd simply like the Author(s) First/Last name to appear alongside the book title and publisher name. Thanks

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  • Java AtomicInteger: what are the differences between compareAndSet and weakCompareAndSet?

    - by WizardOfOdds
    (note that this question is not about CAS, it's about the "May fail spuriously" Javadoc). The only difference in the Javadoc between these two methods from the AtomicInteger class is that the weakCompareAndSet contains the comment: "May fail spuriously". Now unless my eyes are cheated by some spell, both method do look to be doing exactly the same: public final boolean compareAndSet(int expect, int update) { return unsafe.compareAndSwapInt(this, valueOffset, expect, update); } /* ... * May fail spuriously. */ public final boolean weakCompareAndSet(int expect, int update) { return unsafe.compareAndSwapInt(this, valueOffset, expect, update); } So I realize that "May" doesn't mean "Must" but then why don't we all start adding this to our codebase: public void doIt() { a(); } /** * May fail spuriously */ public void weakDoIt() { a(); } I'm really confused with that weakCompareAndSet() that appears to do the same as the compareAndSet() yet that "may fail spuriously" while the other can't. Apparently the "weak" and the "spurious fail" are in a way related to "happens-before" ordering but I'm still very confused by these two AtomicInteger (and AtomicLong etc.) methods: because apparently they call exactly the same unsafe.compareAndSwapInt method. I'm particularly confused in that AtomicInteger got introduced in Java 1.5, so after the Java Memory Model change (so it is obviously not something that could "fail spuriously in 1.4" but whose behavior changed to "shall not fail spuriously in 1.5").

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  • Primitive type 'short' - casting in Java

    - by gemm
    Hello, I have a question about the primitive type 'short' in Java. I am using JDK 1.6. If I have the following: short a = 2; short b = 3; short c = a + b; the compiler does not want to compile - it says that it "cannot convert from int to short" and suggests that I make a cast to short, so this: short c = (short) (a + b); really works. But my question is why do I need to cast? The values of a and b are in the range of short - the range of short values is {-32,768, 32767}. I also need to cast when I want to perform the operations -, *, / (I haven't checked for others). If I do the same for primitive type int, I do not need to cast aa+bb to int. The following works fine: int aa = 2; int bb = 3; int cc = aa +bb; I discovered this while designing a class where I needed to add two variables of type short, and the compiler wanted me to make a cast. If I do this with two variables of type int, I don't need to cast. Thank you very much in advance. A small remark: the same thing also happens with the primitive type byte. So, this workes: byte a = 2; byte b = 3; byte c = (byte) (a + b); but this not: byte a = 2; byte b = 3; byte c = a + b; For long, float, double, and int, there is no need to cast. Only for short and byte values.

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  • Sending hidden fields via POST in iPhone in-app email

    - by Michael
    I'm letting my App's user send email from within the app to share some content on myserver. To do so I need to include a button with two bits of data and I want to use POST to keep it somewhat hidden. I've decided to add an html form using POST and two hidden fields in the email rather, like so: NSString *buttonCode = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"<form method='post' action='http://www.example.com/iphone/nifty.php'> <input type='hidden' name='dataOne' value='%@'> <input type='hidden' name='dataTwo' value='%@'> <input type='submit'value='Submit'></form>",dataOne, dataTwo]; NSString *emailBody = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<b>%@ - %@</b>\n\n<HR WIDTH=200 SIZE=2 COLOR=#755f0f ALIGN=CENTER>\n Here is a email:<br><br>%@", dateString, timeString, buttonCode]; [picker setMessageBody:emailBody isHTML:YES]; I've confirmed by looking at the raw source of the email that the form is constructed correctly and I've copied and pasted it into a web page and it works. So here is the problem. When I click on the button in the received email (using apple's mail client) the dataOne and dataTwo variables don't get passed to my server. Is there a better way to do this or is the issue with my mail client?

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  • How does Android decide which background resource to draw on the foreground?

    - by Sebi
    I defined two ImageButton which are contained in a LinearLayout in my XML layout file: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/tabs" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="horizontal" android:minHeight="40px" android:background="@drawable/library_tabs_background"> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/button_library" android:layout_width="160px" android:paddingTop="7px" android:layout_height="40px" android:paddingLeft="30px" android:orientation="horizontal"> <ImageButton android:id="@+id/list" android:layout_width="110px" android:layout_height="30px" android:src="@drawable/library_tab1_button_active"> </ImageButton> </LinearLayout> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/button_search" android:layout_width="160px" android:paddingTop="7px" android:layout_height="40px" android:orientation="horizontal"> <ImageButton android:id="@+id/search" android:layout_width="110px" android:layout_height="30px" android:src="@drawable/library_tab2_button_deactive"> </ImageButton> </LinearLayout> </LinearLayout> As one can see in the XML file, also the LinearLayout in which the buttons are contained, a background image is set. This two images (the button background and the linearlayout background) are overlapping. So in some views, the button background is in front of the layout background and in other views (im using a view flipper), the background of the layer is in the foreground. How can i set a clear rule? How does Android decide which BackgroundResource to draw first?

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  • incorporate simple vimeo video request with jquery carousel

    - by Andrew Welch
    Hi, I did a tutorial for a jquery carousel that scrolls a ul. At the moment the ul is hardcoded, but I want to use a simple call to vimeo api to bring in the videos for a certain user into the carousel. I have uploaded my code here: http://www.welchcreative.co.uk/wp-content/infinitecarouselvimeo.zip My problem is that I don't know where I should put the code for the simple vimeo call, because at the moment, I think that the problem is that the vimeo videos load after the jquery stuff because it uses window.onload rather than document ready and I can't seem to work out how to put the two and two together. Ideally, 1. the code loads the vimeo videos first and puts them in a ul wiht the correct classes. 2. the carousel code then acts on the list above. in that order. I hope that isn't too vague. It's a pretty simple idea. I'm new to javascript and jquery. Thanks Andy

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