Search Results

Search found 54098 results on 2164 pages for 'something broken'.

Page 408/2164 | < Previous Page | 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415  | Next Page >

  • Access Violation When Writing Dynamic 2D Array... Sometimes

    - by Shraptnel
    This program is meant to generate a dynamic array, however it gives an access violation error when writing when given certain dimensions. Eg: R = 6, C = 5 crashes, but then R = 5, C = 6 doesn't. In case your wondering, it isn't my homework to "fix" this broken program, this is the method we were taught in class. Also part of my assessment is to use this method, so vectors are out. Thanks in advance! #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main(){ const int R = 6; const int C = 5; char **d; d = new char *[R]; for(int i=0; i<C; ++i){ d[i] = new char[C]; } //initialise for(int i=0; i<R; ++i){ for(int j=0; j<C; ++j){ d[i][j] = 'd'; cout<<d[i][j]; } cout<<endl; } cout<<endl; system("pause"); return 0; }

    Read the article

  • Full Text Search MSSQL2008 show wrong display_item for Thai Language

    - by ensecoz
    I am working on MSSQL2008. My task is to investigate the issue that why FTS cannot find the right result for Thai. First, I am having the table which enable the FTS on the column 'ItemName' which is nvarchar. The Catalog is created with the Thai Language. Note that, Thai language is one of the language that doesn't separate the word by space so '????' '???' '????' are written like this in the sentence '???????????' In the table, there are many rows that include the word (????) for examples row#1 (ItemName: '???????????') On the webpage, I try to search for '????' but SQLServer cannot find it. So I try to investigate it by trying the following query in SQLServer select * from sys.dm_fts_parser(N'"???????????"', 1054, 0, 0) To see how the words are broken. The first one is the text to be break. The second parameter is specify that using Thai (WorkBreaker, so on). and here is the result: row#1 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#2 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#3 (display_item: '??', source_item: '???????????') Notice that the first and second row display the worng display_item '?' in the '????' isn't even Thai characters. '?' in '????' is not Thai charater either. So the question is where is those alien characters come from? I guess this i why I cannot search for '????' because the word breaker is mis-borken and keeping the wrong character in the indexes. Please help!

    Read the article

  • Search XDocument with LINQ with out knowing the Namespace

    - by BarDev
    Is there a way to search a XDocument without knowing the Namespace. I have a process that logs all soap requests and encrypts the sensitive data. I want to find any elements based on name. Something like, give me all elements where the name is CreditCard. I don't care what the namespace is. My problem seems to be with LINQ and requiring a xml namespace. I have other processes that retrieve values from XML, but I know the namespace for these other process. XDocument xDocument = XDocument.Load(@"C:\temp\Packet.xml"); XNamespace xNamespace = "http://CompanyName.AppName.Service.Contracts"; var elements = xDocument.Root.DescendantsAndSelf().Elements().Where(d = d.Name == xNamespace + "CreditCardNumber"); But what I really want, is to have the ability to search xml without knowing about namespaces, something like this: XDocument xDocument = XDocument.Load(@"C:\temp\Packet.xml"); var elements = xDocument.Root.DescendantsAndSelf().Elements().Where(d = d.Name == "CreditCardNumber") But of course this will not work be cause I do no have a namespace. BarDev

    Read the article

  • Upgrade to Delphi 2010, or stick with Delphi 7 "forever"?

    - by tim11g
    I am an individual user of Delphi, starting back in the early Turbo Pascal days. I have quite a bit of code developed over the years, but I have never sold software commercially or used it for business. Historically, Borland supported the non-professional users with lower cost versions, but Embarcadero does not. As I consider upgrading to Delphi 2010, I am put off by the high price. Embarcadero is also trying to "encourage" upgrading by threatening to charge "new user" prices for upgrades after Dec 31st. I have several questions for the community to help me decide whether to upgrade. 1) I have read about difficulties updating existing code to support the unicode string types. I have no need for unicode strings, and I am happy with the string support in D7. Will I have to modify existing code and components just to re-compile under D2010? Or are there compiler options to allow backward compatibility if new string types are not required? 2) The main reason I'm considering upgrading is for IDE improvements, and to get access to new APIs added to Windows since 2002. Are there any Windows 7 APIs or capabilities that would be impossible to support from my programs compiled using using Delphi 7 (assuming appropriate JEDI API libraries, for example)? 3) Is there anything else about Delphi 2010 that is really compelling for someone who is primarily interested in Win32 apps, and not working with databases? I have read that D2010 is slow to load, and other versions between D7 and D2010 have had stability issues, and the help system was "broken". What is the biggest benefit to D2010?

    Read the article

  • Blackberry how to display message in app if device got no internet connection?

    - by Johannes
    Hello I've just started with programming for the Blackberry device. I'm using version 5 of the API. I'm building a very simple application which is just a browserfield. So far it's all working great. I can display my browserfield with the content I need. The problem I'm having now is if the device doesn't have an active internet connection I get the ugly "Error requesting content for" message. I would need to someone display my own message if the device doesn't have an active connection. Something like "You need to have an active internet connection to use this application" with an Exit button which closes the app. I've tried to find this for hours but no luck. Hopefully it's something relatively easy so I can get help here. Here's my code so far: package com.mycompany.webview; import net.rim.device.api.browser.field2.*; import net.rim.device.api.ui.*; import net.rim.device.api.ui.container.*; public class webview extends UiApplication { public static void main(String[] args) { webview app = new webview(); app.enterEventDispatcher(); } public webview() { pushScreen(new webviewScreen()); } } class webviewScreen extends MainScreen { public webviewScreen() { BrowserField myBrowserField = new BrowserField(); add(myBrowserField); myBrowserField.requestContent("http://www.google.com"); } } Would really appreciate some help please. Thanks

    Read the article

  • WPF Storyboard delay in playing wma files

    - by Rita
    I'm a complete beginner in WPF and have an app that uses StoryBoard to play a sound. public void PlaySound() { MediaElement m = (MediaElement)audio.FindName("MySound.wma"); m.IsMuted = false; FrameworkElement audioKey = (FrameworkElement)keys.FindName("MySound"); Storyboard s = (Storyboard)audioKey.FindResource("MySound.wma"); s.Begin(audioKey); } <Storyboard x:Key="MySound.wma"> <MediaTimeline d:DesignTimeNaturalDuration="1.615" BeginTime="00:00:00" Storyboard.TargetName="MySound.wma" Source="Audio\MySound.wma"/> </Storyboard> I have a horrible lag and sometimes it takes good 10 seconds for the sound to be played. I suspect this has something to do with the fact that no matter how long I wait - The sound doesn't get played until after I leave the function. I don't understand it. I call Begin, and nothing happens. Is there a way to replace this method, or StoryBoard object with something that plays instantly and without a lag?

    Read the article

  • C++ errors not shown in Visual Studio C# project

    - by Diana
    I have in Visual Studio 2008 a .NET 3.5 C# project that uses a dll compiled from a C# project (let's call it dll A). Dll A is using on his turn some C++ libraries. The problem is that when I encounter an error while calling objects from dll A, the application just closes, without showing any error. But I need to know what's the problem, I cannot just guess and go blind all along the project with this... I checked Window's event log, could not find anything. I checked the settings of throwing errors in Visual Studio, in menu Debug - Exceptions, all of them are checked (including C++ exceptions), so, any errors should be thrown. My code looks something like this: tessnet2.Tesseract tessocr = new tessnet2.Tesseract(); tessocr.Init(@"s:\temp\tessdata", "eng", false); tessocr.GetThresholdedImage(bmp, Rectangle.Empty).Save("s:\\temp\\" + Guid.NewGuid().ToString() + ".bmp"); List<tessnet2.Word> words = ocr.DoOCR(bmp, "eng"); //App exits at this line If I put in my code something like int x = Convert.ToInt32("test"); this should throw an error. And it throws, and Visual Studio shows it. Does anyone having any idea why the errors are not being shown? Or where else could be registered? Any help is very appreciated! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Cleanest RESTful design for purely "action" calls?

    - by Josh Handel
    Hello all, I am sticking my toe in the RESTful waters and I just can't find a "satisfactory" solution to how to handle truely "action" oriented calls on a RESTful service? My quandry can be broken down into two parts. 1) Transactional calls: I understand the idea of having an ActionTransactor that you get a resource too with a post, update the parameters and then commit with a PUT (as described all over the place and in the Orilly RESTful Web services book).. But I struggle with the idea of keeping URLs with states present for ever.. If we really honestly don't need to keep a transaction for ever can we kill the resource URI? do URIs need to be perminate or can they be transiant URIs that expire 2) Non transactional calls: these might be calls to perform some workflow that spans multiple resources but having a resource just doesn't make since.. An example might be to re-generating some calculated ans cached value like a large aggreget or re-indexing blog or some such "purely" action. Anyways, I'm curious about the communities thoughts on this... Thus far, I've read that Overloading Post is the cleanest way to handle part 2.. But there is an equal amount of argument against that approach as well. And (to me) its not self documenting which I though was one of the key design goals of RESTful APIs.

    Read the article

  • .NET EventHandlers - Generic or no?

    - by Chris Marasti-Georg
    Every time I start in deep in a C# project, I end up with lots of events that really just need to pass a single item. I stick with the EventHandler/EventArgs practice, but what I like to do is have something like: public delegate void EventHandler<T>(object src, EventArgs<T> args); public class EventArgs<T>: EventArgs { private T item; public EventArgs(T item) { this.item = item; } public T Item { get { return item; } } } Later, I can have my public event EventHandler<Foo> FooChanged; public event EventHandler<Bar> BarChanged; However, it seems that the standard for .NET is to create a new delegate and EventArgs subclass for each type of event. Is there something wrong with my generic approach? EDIT: The reason for this post is that I just re-created this in a new project, and wanted to make sure it was ok. Actually, I was re-creating it as I posted. I found that there is a generic EventHandler<TEventArgs, so you don't need to create the generic delegate, but you still need the generic EventArgs<T class, because TEventArgs: EventArgs. Another EDIT: One downside (to me) of the built-in solution is the extra verbosity: public event EventHandler<EventArgs<Foo>> FooChanged; vs. public event EventHandler<Foo> FooChanged; It can be a pain for clients to register for your events though, because the System namespace is imported by default, so they have to manually seek out your namespace, even with a fancy tool like Resharper... Anyone have any ideas pertaining to that?

    Read the article

  • How to connect from ruby to MS Sql Server

    - by apetrov
    Hi Crowd! I'm trying to connect to the sql server 2005 database from *NIX machine: I have the following configuration: Linux 64bit ruby -v ruby 1.8.6 (2007-09-24 patchlevel 111) [x86_64-linux] important gems: dbd-odbc (0.2.4) dbi (0.4.1) active record sql server adapter - as plugin ruby-odbc 0.9996 (installed without any options.) unixODBC is installed freeTDS is installed cat /etc/odbcinst.ini [FreeTDS] Description = TDS driver (Sybase/MS SQL) Driver = /usr/lib/libtdsodbc.so Setup = /usr/lib/odbc/libtdsS.so CPTimeout = CPReuse = FileUsage = 1 DSN: DRIVER=FreeTDS;TDS_Version=8.0;SERVER=XXXX;DATABASE=XXX;Port=1433;uid=XXX;pwd=XXXX;" or DRIVER=/usr/lib/libtdsodbc.so;TDS_Version=8.0;SERVER=XXXX;DATABASE=XXX;Port=1433;uid=XXX;pwd=XXXX;" I receive the following error: >>ActiveRecord::Base.sqlserver_connection({"mode"=>"ODBC", "adapter"=>"sqlserver", "dsn"=>my_dns) DBI::DatabaseError: IM002 (0) [unixODBC][Driver Manager]Data source name not found, and no default driver specified from /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/DBD/ODBC/ODBC.rb:95:in `connect' from /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/dbi.rb:424:in `connect' from /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/dbi.rb:215:in `connect' from /opt/ublip/rails/current/vendor/plugins/activerecord-sqlserver-adapter/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/sqlserver_adapter.rb:47:in `sqlserver_connection' It looks like ODBC unable to find appropriate ODBC driver, but I have no ideas why. I had a problem with /usr/lib/libtdsodbc.so which is empty in default debian package free-tds dev, but i solved it with remove broken package and installation from sources. Will appreciate any thought! Thanks & Regards Note: I'm albe to connect using the same steps on mac 10.5

    Read the article

  • how to compile with llvm and g++?

    - by Sriram
    Hi, I use a fedora-11 system and recently I installed llvm ( sudo yum -y install llvm llvm-docs llvm-devel ). When I search for llvm I get them in /usr/bin. some of the links to the binaries are broken(llvm-gcc,llvm-g++,llvm-cpp,etc.) the include files are found within /usr/include/llvm and libs at /usr/lib/llvm. How to compile them using g++? I tried to compile the kaleidoscope code given in the tutorial (http://llvm.org/docs/tutorial/LangImpl3.html) as per directed, but it fails to compile.. I get this... toy.cpp:5:30: error: llvm/LLVMContext.h: No such file or directory toy.cpp:352: error: ‘getGlobalContext’ was not declared in this scope toy.cpp: In member function ‘virtual llvm::Value* NumberExprAST::Codegen()’: toy.cpp:358: error: ‘getGlobalContext’ was not declared in this scope toy.cpp: In member function ‘virtual llvm::Value* BinaryExprAST::Codegen()’: toy.cpp:379: error: ‘getDoubleTy’ is not a member of ‘llvm::Type’ toy.cpp:379: error: ‘getGlobalContext’ was not declared in this scope toy.cpp: In member function ‘llvm::Function* PrototypeAST::Codegen()’: toy.cpp:407: error: ‘getDoubleTy’ is not a member of ‘llvm::Type’ toy.cpp:407: error: ‘getGlobalContext’ was not declared in this scope toy.cpp:408: error: ‘getDoubleTy’ is not a member of ‘llvm::Type’ toy.cpp: In member function ‘llvm::Function* FunctionAST::Codegen()’: toy.cpp:454: error: ‘getGlobalContext’ was not declared in this scope toy.cpp: In function ‘int main()’: toy.cpp:543: error: ‘LLVMContext’ was not declared in this scope toy.cpp:543: error: ‘Context’ was not declared in this scope toy.cpp:543: error: ‘getGlobalContext’ was not declared in this scope I cannot find the LLVMContext.h file too. so i guess this might be a version problem. what should i do to make it work? some help would be good! thanks in advance... :)

    Read the article

  • What's the expectation for silverlight 2's lifespan?

    - by dwidel
    Way back when I built an internal site for a customer using silverlight 2. They've been happy with it and I've barely had to touch it. Is the expectation that this site will always work? What I'm afraid of is suddenly getting a call years from now that the users installed silverlight X and now it's broken and I'm going to have to convert it immediately past Y versions of Silverlight to get the site back up, and I don't even do Silverlight anymore. I already went through this once when it went from 2 beta to 2 release and and scrambling to fix all the breaking changes and get the site back up. It wasn't as big a deal then as we were in beta anyway. I could upgrade now but it would be really tough to go back to the customer and ask for money to do an upgrade when they are happy now and will see no noticeable benefit from staying current. Additionally there are some third party controls that would have to be licensed again. So I guess what I'm asking is there a known end of life? Or do we just play it by ear?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Concurrency with RowVersion in Edit Action

    - by Jorin
    I'm wanting to do a simple edit form for our Issue Tracking app. For simplicity, the HttpGet Edit action looks something like this: // Issues/Edit/12 public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var thisIssue = edmx.Issues.First(i => i.IssueID == id); return View(thisIssue); } and then the HttpPost action looks something like this: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection form) { // this is the dumb part where I grab the object before I update it. // concurrency is sidestepped here. var thisIssue = edmx.Issues.Single(c => c.IssueID == id); TryUpdateModel(thisIssue); if (ModelState.IsValid) { edmx.SaveChanges(); TempData["message"] = string.Format("Issue #{0} successfully modified.", id); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(thisIssue); } Which works wonderfully. However, the concurrency check doesn't work because in the Post, I'm re-retreiving the current entity right before I attempt to update it. However, with EF, I don't know how to use the fanciness of SaveChanges() but attach my thisIssue to the context. I tried to call edmx.Issues.Attach(thisIssue) but I get The object cannot be attached because it is already in the object context. An object can only be reattached when it is in an unchanged state. How do I handle concurrency in MVC with EF and/or how do I properly Attach my edited object to the context? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Automatic Adjusting Range Table

    - by Bradford
    I have a table with a start date range, an end date range, and a few other additional columns. On input of a new record, I want to automatically adjust any overlapping date ranges (shrinking them to allow for the new input). I also want to ensure that no overlapping records can accidentally be inserted into this table. I'm using Oracle and Java for my application code. How should I enforce the prevention of overlapping date ranges and also allow for automatically adjusting overlapping ranges? Should I create an AFTER INSERT trigger, with a dbms_lock to serialize access, to prevent the overlapping data. Then in Java, apply the logic to auto adjust everything? Or should that part be in PL/SQL in stored procedure call? This is something that we need for a couple other tables so it'd be nice to abstract. If anyone has something like this already written, please share :) I did find this reference: http://asktom.oracle.com/pls/asktom/f?p=100:11:0::::P11_QUESTION_ID:474221407101 Here's an example of how each of the 4 overlapping cases should be handled for adjustment on insert: = Example 1 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (20, 50, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(20, 50, 'A') **(51, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 2 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (40, 80, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 39, 'Z') **(40, 80, 'A') **(81, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 3 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (50, 120, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 49, 'Z') **(50, 120, 'A') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 4 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (20, 120, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(20, 120, 'A') (200, 500, 'Y') The algorithm is as follows: given range = g; input range = i; output range set = o if i.start <= g.start if i.end >= g.end o_1 = i else o_1 = i o_2 = (o.end + 1, g.end) else if i.end >= g.end o_1 = (g.start, i.start - 1) o_2 = i else o_1 = (g.start, i.start - 1) o_2 = i o_3 = (i.end + 1, i.end)

    Read the article

  • Are PyArg_ParseTuple() "s" format specifiers useful in Python 3.x C API?

    - by Craig McQueen
    I'm trying to write a Python C extension that processes byte strings, and I have something basically working for Python 2.x and Python 3.x. For the Python 2.x code, near the start of my function, I currently have a line: if (!PyArg_ParseTuple(args, "s#:in_bytes", &src_ptr, &src_len)) ... I notice that the s# format specifier accepts both Unicode strings and byte strings. I really just want it to accept byte strings and reject Unicode. For Python 2.x, this might be "good enough"--the standard hashlib seems to do the same, accepting Unicode as well as byte strings. However, Python 3.x is meant to clean up the Unicode/byte string mess and not let the two be interchangeable. So, I'm surprised to find that in Python 3.x, the s format specifiers for PyArg_ParseTuple() still seem to accept Unicode and provide a "default encoded string version" of the Unicode. This seems to go against the principles of Python 3.x, making the s format specifiers unusable in practice. Is my analysis correct, or am I missing something? Looking at the implementation for hashlib for Python 3.x (e.g. see md5module.c, function MD5_update() and its use of GET_BUFFER_VIEW_OR_ERROUT() macro) I see that it avoids the s format specifiers, and just takes a generic object (O specifier) and then does various explicit type checks using the GET_BUFFER_VIEW_OR_ERROUT() macro. Is this what we have to do?

    Read the article

  • Date since 1600 to NSDate?

    - by Steven Fisher
    I have a date that's stored as a number of days since January 1, 1600 that I need to deal with. This is a legacy date format that I need to read many, many times in my application. Previously, I'd been creating a calendar, empty date components and root date like this: self.gregorian = [[[NSCalendar alloc] initWithCalendarIdentifier: NSGregorianCalendar ] autorelease]; id rootComponents = [[[NSDateComponents alloc] init] autorelease]; [rootComponents setYear: 1600]; [rootComponents setMonth: 1]; [rootComponents setDay: 1]; self.rootDate = [gregorian dateFromComponents: rootComponents]; self.offset = [[[NSDateComponents alloc] init] autorelease]; Then, to convert the integer later to a date, I use this: [offset setDay: theLegacyDate]; id eventDate = [gregorian dateByAddingComponents: offset toDate: rootDate options: 0]; (I never change any values in offset anywhere else.) The problem is I'm getting a different time for rootDate on iOS vs. Mac OS X. On Mac OS X, I'm getting midnight. On iOS, I'm getting 8:12:28. (So far, it seems to be consistent about this.) When I add my number of days later, the weird time stays. OS | legacyDate | rootDate | eventDate ======== | ========== | ==========================|========================== Mac OS X | 143671 | 1600-01-01 00:00:00 -0800 | 1993-05-11 00:00:00 -0700 iOS | 143671 | 1600-01-01 08:12:28 +0000 | 1993-05-11 07:12:28 +0000 In the previous release of my product, I didn't care about the time; now I do. Why the weird time on iOS, and what should I do about it? (I'm assuming the hour difference is DST.) I've tried setting the hour, minute and second of rootComponents to 0. This has no impact. If I set them to something other than 0, it adds them to 8:12:28. I've been wondering if this has something to do with leap seconds or other cumulative clock changes. Or is this entirely the wrong approach to use on iOS?

    Read the article

  • Java 1.4 singleton containing a mutable field

    - by Philippe
    Hi, I'm working on a legacy Java 1.4 project, and I have a factory that instantiates a csv file parser as a singleton. In my csv file parser, however, I have a HashSet that will store objects created from each line of my CSV file. All that will be used by a web application, and users will be uploading CSV files, possibly concurrently. Now my question is : what is the best way to prevent my list of objects to be modified by 2 users ? So far, I'm doing the following : final class MyParser { private File csvFile = null; private static Set myObjects = Collections.synchronizedSet(new HashSet); public synchronized void setFile(File file) { this.csvFile = file; } public void parse() FileReader fr = null; try { fr = new FileReader(csvFile); synchronized(myObjects) { myObjects.clear(); while(...) { // foreach line of my CSV, create a "MyObject" myObjects.add(new MyObject(...)); } } } catch (Exception e) { //... } } } Should I leave the lock only on the myObjects Set, or should I declare the whole parse() method as synchronized ? Also, how should I synchronize - both - the setting of the csvFile and the parsing ? I feel like my actual design is broken because threads could modify the csv file several times while a possibly long parse process is running. I hope I'm being clear enough, because myself am a bit confused on those multi-synchronization issues. Thanks ;-)

    Read the article

  • How do I reset the scale/zoom of a web app on an orientation change on the iPhone?

    - by Elisabeth
    I'm having the same problem that a couple of others have had with getting the correct behavior in a web app on an orientation change, and there doesn't seem to be an obvious solution - I've seen this question asked a couple of times on Stack Overflow and no one's yet been able to answer it. When I start the app in portrait mode, it works fine. Then I rotate into landscape and it's scaled up. To get it to scale correctly for the landscape mode I have to double tap on something twice, first to zoom all the way in (the normal double tap behavior) and again to zoom all the way out (again, the normal double tap behavior). When it zooms out, it zooms out to the correct NEW scale for landscape mode. Switching back to portrait seems to work more consistently; that is, it handles the zoom so that the scale is correct when the orientation changes back to portrait. I am trying to figure out if this is a bug? or if this is something that can be fixed with Javascript? With the viewport meta content, I am setting the initial-scale to 1.0 and I am NOT setting minimum or maximum scale (nor do I want to). I am setting the width to device-width. Any ideas? I know a lot of people would be grateful to have a solution as it seems to be a persistent problem. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Flash movies in inactive browser tabs pause or don't execute in real time

    - by ZenBlender
    I'm noticing some unexpected behavior. Some time in the last few months, a change in either Firefox, the Flash player, or both, has made it so that Flash movies that are in inactive browser tabs no longer execute in real time. They appear to still execute, but only in bursts, and not in a predictable way. This is a problem because I develop a Flash-based (Actionscript 2.0, Flash CS3) multiplayer game that maintains a network connection and allows players to chat, etc. Many of our players complain about Firefox crashing while playing the game. I have noticed it too, not too frequently, but it crashes several times a week. (Firefox crashes, I do not get a message from Flash player that indicates an infinite loop or problem in my code) My theory is that this new behavior is causing crashes when there is a lot of activity in my game, leading to lots of unhandled network traffic for my game getting buffered before Firefox/Flash will give it a chance to execute. Maybe this leads to a buffer overflow or missing packets, and as a result, something crashes. At times I will switch back to the tab that is running my game and discover a display bug, which looks as though Flash has simply failed to execute something that it was supposed to. I would assume this new behavior is on purpose, for example to prevent all the Flash-based advertisements in inactive tabs from executing and therefore killing performance. In a quick test on Chrome (5.0.342.9 beta), this "pausing" of Flash seems to be there as well, but somehow it seems much less of a problem. My users have only complained about Firefox crashing, not other browsers. My machine: Windows 7 x64 Firefox 3.6.3 Flash Player 10.1.50.426 My game: triplejack.com Any ideas? Ideally I'd like to disable this behavior for my Flash game so it can execute in real time even when in an inactive tab. Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • Error CS0117: Namespace.A does not contain definition for Interface..

    - by SnOrfus
    I'm getting the error: 'Namespace.A' does not contain a definition for 'MyObjectInterface' and no extension method 'MyObjectInterface' accepting a first argument of type ... I've looked at this and this and neither seems to apply. The code looks like: public abstract class Base { public IObject MyObjectInterface { get; set; } } public class A : Base { /**/ } public class Implementation { public void Method() { Base obj = new A(); obj.MyObjectInterface = /* something */; // Error here } } IObject is defined in a separate assembly, but: IObject is in a separate assembly/namespace Base and A are in the same assembly/namespace each with correct using directives Implementation is in a third separate assembly namespace, also with correct using directives. Casting to A before trying to set MyObjectInterface doesn't work Specifically, I'm trying to set the value of MyObjectInterface to a mock object (though, I created a fake instead to no avail) I've tried everything I can think of. Please help before I lose more hair. edit I can't reproduce the error by creating a test app either, which is why I'm here and why I'm frustrated. @Reed Copsey: /* something */ is either an NUnit.DynamicMock(IMailer).MockInstance or a Fake object I created that inherits from IObject and just returns canned values. @Preet Sangha: I checked and no other assembly that is referenced has a definition for an IObject (specifically, it's called an IMailer). Thing is that intellisense picks up the Property, but when I compile, I get CS0117. I can even 'Go To Definition' in the implementation, and it takes me to where I defined it.

    Read the article

  • Can't write the SysWow64 value to registry with vbscript for Screensaver

    - by Valentein
    Scripts, registries, screen-savers, oh my! I'm trying to use a screen-saver on a Windows XP 64 bit machine which uses a .NET app which makes an interop call which relies on some x86 Shockwave Dlls (some Shockwave animation). Everything should be in the %systemroot%\WINNT\SysWOW64 directory. When the timeout for the screensaver occurs, the process should looks like this: Screensaver.scr - .NET app - shockwave animation. During installation I want a vbscript to my screen-saver file to copy the Screensaver.scr to the SysWow64 directory and then set the proper registry key to this file for Windows to launch the screen-saver. The code is something like this: Dim sScreenSaver, tScreenSaver sScreenSaver = "C:\SourceFiles\bin\ScreenSaver.scr" 'screensaver tScreenSaver = "C:\winnt\SysWOW64\" Set WshShell = WScript.CreateObject("WScript.Shell") 'script shell to run objects Set FSO = createobject("scripting.filesystemobject") 'file system object 'copy screensaver FSO.CopyFile sScreenSaver, tScreenSaver, True 'set screen saver Dim p1 p1 = "HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Control Panel\Desktop\" WshShell.RegWrite p1 & "SCRNSAVE.EXE", (tScreenSaver & "ScreenSaver.scr") After installation, I can verify the the Screensaver exists in the correct directory. (It actually seems to be in both the system32 and the sysWOW64 directories---whether that's the install script or something I did post-install I'm in the process of verifying.) However, the registry entry is not correct. In both the 32 and 64 bit regedit I see the HKCU\ControlPanel\Desktop\SCRNSAVE.EX is set to: C:\WINNT\system32\Screensaver.scr This isn't right. The screen-saver won't run from this directory. It only runs from SysWOW64. If I manually edit the registry with regedit to the correct SysWOW64 path everything works fine. Is this a problem with using the script or is this a Windows registry redirection, or filesystem redirection problem? You'd think this would be simple...

    Read the article

  • Dojo: dojo onblur events

    - by Jane Wilkie
    Hi guys, I have a form setup with dojo 1.5. I am using a dijit.form.ComboBox and a dijit.form.TextBox The Combobox has values like "car","bike","motorcycle" and the textbox is meant to be an adjective to the Combobox. So it doesn't matter what is in the Combobox but if the ComboBox does have a value then something MUST be filled in the TextBox. Optionally, if nothing is in the ComboBox, then nothing can be in the TextBox and that is just fine. In fact if something isn't in the Combobox then nothing MUST be in the text box. In regular coding I would just use an onBlur event on the text box to go to a function that checks to see if the ComboBox has a value. I see in dojo that this doesn't work... Code example is below... Vehicle: <input dojoType="dijit.form.ComboBox" store="xvarStore" value="" searchAttr="name" name="vehicle_1" id="vehicle_1" /> Descriptor: <input type="text" dojoType="dijit.form.TextBox" value="" class=lighttext style="width:350px;height:19px" id="filter_value_1" name="filter_value_1" /> My initial attempt was to add an onBlur within the Descriptor's <input> tag but discovered that that doesn't work. How does Dojo handle this? Is it via a dojo.connect parameter? Even though in the example above the combobox has an id of "vehicle_1" and the text box has an id of "filter_value_1", there can be numerous comboboxes and textboxes numbering sequentially upward. (vehicle_2, vehicle_3, etc) Any advice or links to resources would be greatly appreciated. Janie

    Read the article

  • Using Haml & Sass with Eclipse

    - by Sam Hasler
    Are there any plugins for eclipse that add syntax highlighting and other niceties for editing Haml and Sass? Google searches only seem to point to a dead project on lucky-dip.net. Note: it's Sass I'm most interested in. A solution for using just Sass (or something similar to it like less) in Eclipse would suit my needs. Also, I'm developing for Google App Engine (Java), using the App Engine plugin for Eclipse. So switching to another IDE isn't an option. Update: So I've got syntax highlighting now using Pascal's answer and I've installed Ruby and Compass to compile sass into css. However I'm aware that the syntax of sass will be changing with 2.4 so I'd still like to get the Haml and Sass Editors that come with Aptana to work. When I tried to use them they threw an exception and wouldn't display the files. I'd be interested to know if that's because I misconfigured Aptana or is an actual bug in the editors. I'd also be very interested in any way of compiling Sass that integrated with Ecplise so that I didn't have to run something separate from it. (or a way of putting Sass/Compass in the Ecplise build process.)

    Read the article

  • Loading a RSA private key from memory using libxmlsec

    - by ereOn
    Hello, I'm currently using libxmlsec into my C++ software and I try to load a RSA private key from memory. To do this, I searched trough the API and found this function. It takes binary data, a size, a format string and several PEM-callback related parameters. When I call the function, it just stucks, uses 100% of the CPU time and never returns. Quite annoying, because I have no way of finding out what is wrong. Here is my code: d_xmlsec_dsig_context->signKey = xmlSecCryptoAppKeyLoadMemory( reinterpret_cast<const xmlSecByte*>(data), static_cast<xmlSecSize>(datalen), xmlSecKeyDataFormatBinary, NULL, NULL, NULL ); data is a const char* pointing to the raw bytes of my RSA key (using i2d_RSAPrivateKey(), from OpenSSL) and datalen the size of data. My test private key doesn't have a passphrase so I decided not to use the callbacks for the time being. Has someone already done something similar ? Do you guys see anything that I could change/test to get forward on this problem ? I just discovered the library on yesterday, so I might miss something obvious here; I just can't see it. Thank you very much for your help.

    Read the article

  • drupal_add_css not working

    - by hfidgen
    Hiya, I need to use drupal_add_css to call stylesheets onto single D6 pages. I don't want to edit the main theme stylesheet as there will be a set of individual pages which all need completely new styles - the main sheet would be massive if i put it all in there. My solution was to edit the page in PHP editor mode and do this: <?php drupal_add_css("/styles/file1.css", "theme"); ?> <div id="newPageContent">stuff here in html</div> But when i view source, there is nothing there! Not even a broken css link or anything, it's just refusing to add the css sheet to the css package put into the page head. Variations don't seem to work either: drupal_add_css($path = '/styles/file1.css', $type = 'module', $media = 'all', $preprocess = TRUE) My template header looks like this, i've not changed anything from the default other than adding a custom JS. <head> <?php print $head ?> <title><?php print $head_title ?></title> <?php print $styles ?> <?php print $scripts ?> <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php print base_path() ?>misc/askme.js"></script> <!--[if lt IE 7]> <?php print phptemplate_get_ie_styles(); ?> <![endif]--> </head> Can anyone think of a reason why this function is not working? Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415  | Next Page >