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  • Creating thumbnails PHP problem

    - by Wayne
    I have this source code where I got it from net tutsplus. I have configured it and made it work in one PHP file. It does work by transferring the original image, but it does not generate to the thumbnails folder. <?php $final_width_of_image = 100; $path_to_image_directory = "../../img/events/" . urldecode($_GET['name']) . "/"; $path_to_thumbs_directory = "../../img/events/" . urldecode($_GET['name']) . "/thumbnails/"; function createThumbnail($filename) { if(preg_match('/[.](jpg)$/', $filename)) { $im = imagecreatefromjpeg($path_to_image_directory . $filename); } elseif(preg_match('/[.](gif)$/', $filename)) { $im = imagecreatefromgif($path_to_image_directory . $filename); } elseif(preg_match('/[.](png)$/', $filename)) { $im = imagecreatefrompng($path_to_image_directory . $filename); } $ox = imagesx($im); $oy = imagesy($im); $nx = $final_width_of_image; $ny = floor($oy * ($final_width_of_image / $ox)); $nm = imagecreatetruecolor($nx, $ny); imagecopyresized($nm, $im, 0,0,0,0,$nx,$ny,$ox,$oy); imagejpeg($nm, $path_to_thumbs_directory . $filename); $tn = '<img src="' . $path_to_thumbs_directory . $filename . '" alt="image" />'; echo $tn; } if(isset($_FILES['fupload'])) { if(preg_match('/[.](jpg)|(gif)|(png)$/', $_FILES['fupload']['name'])) { $filename = $_FILES['fupload']['name']; $source = $_FILES['fupload']['tmp_name']; $target = $path_to_image_directory . $filename; move_uploaded_file($source, $target); createThumbnail($filename); } } ?> Basically it is supposed to generate a thumbnail of the uploaded image and store the original image into a different folder. The paths are correct, it works by getting the folder name in the URL, it does work, but nothing works for the thumbnails folder. BEFORE you ask this related question, yes, thumbnails generation does work on my server by the PHP GD, I have tested it separately. So this is not the problem. :) How do I get this to work? :(

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  • UIButtons creating a native-like keyboard behavior.

    - by camilo
    Greets. A somehow detailed explanation on my problem, and what I have already done, and what I cannot do. I want to create a behavior resembling the one in the iPhone's keyboard. Basically, I want a view to appear when the user taps a button and WHILE the user taps that button. This, I accomplished. When the user lets go of the button WHILE his finger is on that button's area, I want to trigger an action "doing stuff". This, I was also able to do. Since all the buttons are near (like in the keyboard) and I don't want the user to select other button than the one he pressed, I reduced the hit area for the button using the -(BOOL)pointInside:(CGPoint)point withEvent:(UIEvent )event function. When the user presses the button, not lifting its finger, and dragging outside the button area, I want another action to trigger. This is the first problem... This function only triggers when the user's finger is far from the buttons' area, and this time the pointInside function is not being my friend. How can I detect the user finger "left" the button area the moment it exits its bounds? This, in case you didn't realize... was problem 1. The second problem is related with the drag enter. Again, I need to limit the area like in the drag exit. But I suppose that when I solve one of these, the other is the same. The problem is that in order to have a behavior like in the keyboard, I may need to detect the user started the touch in another button, never lifted his finger, and changed to another button. I can detect drag enter and drag exit IN THIS ORDER while on the same button. I cannot detect drag enter when the user first touched anywhere else other than the button where I want to detect the drag enter event. Basically what I need is to detect touch on any button (and not anywhere else in the view), and while the user is changing buttons without lifting the finger, I want to detect the new button being touched. This gigantic paragraph was problem #2. Any help, as you might guess, is highly appreciated. Best Regards. Thanks a lot!

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  • embedded Italic, bold fonts don't look the same in flex as in Windows...

    - by Mark
    ...unless they're something like "Times New Roman" or some other established font with a fully designed italic and bold, presumably in seperate files. Let me explain what I mean (though why no one has commented on this before I have no idea.) Numerous, numerous fonts do not have a seperate file for italic and bold, and in fact to the best of my knowledge don't even have italic and bold defined as such. But if you install them on windows (for example) and then use them in an app, You can still make use of italic and bold with those fonts. For italic, and oblique angle is just given to it, presumably by Windows, and it looks the same in all Windows apps, and the bold is just given a heavier weight. OK, well here's the problem: if you embed a font like that in a Flex app, as a "SystemFont" the italic and bold will not look the same as they do in Windows. Specifically, the oblique angle is invariably much less than in Windows (i.e the italic slant is much less) and the bold version is not bold enough. I vaguely recall thinking that there was some flex mechanism to assign custom oblique angles for italic (and weight for bold) but now can't recall what it is. Does anyone know the correct established way to do this. The following is actually a seperate (but related) font question (in case anyone is expert in all this.) Its rather a lengthy question and can be skipped, but its something that's plagued me for a long time. I mention above embedding as a "SystemFont", so iow something like this: package fonts { import flash.display.Sprite; public class FLW_Script_I extends Sprite { [Embed(systemFont='FLW Script', fontName='FLW Script', fontStyle='italic', fntWeight='normal', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype')] public var wrFont:Class; } } The other alternative to SystemFont for embedding, is "Source" followed by the name of an actual font file. If you try to embed one of the aformentioned single file fonts as a Source file (as opposed to SystemFont) and specify fontStyle='italic', then the mxmlc compiler will return an error and say there is no italic info in the font file. So up to now I have only been embedding these fonts as "SystemFont". The problem is, flex uses two different font compilers internally for Source embedding and SystemFont embedding. For source font embeds it uses the "Batik" compiler and for SystemFont, the JRE (Java Runtime) font compiler. Well actually the Batik is considered a superior compiler and generally produces better looking fonts. And also if you mix normal fonts compiled with Batik and italic compiled with JRE, sometimes the line spacing is different for the two, and it doesn't look right. So does anyone have an idea how to get mxmlc to do italic and bold for these single file fonts when embedding as "Source". Would there be a way using C++ or whatever to construct an "italic" font file from the SystemFont for such a font in windows.

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  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

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  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

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  • Using a Button to navigate to another Page in a NavigationWindow

    - by Will
    I'm trying to use the navigation command framework in WPF to navigate between Pages within a WPF application (desktop; not XBAP or Silverlight). I believe I have everything configured correctly, yet its not working. I build and run without errors, I'm not getting any binding errors in the Output window, but my navigation button is disabled. Here's the app.xaml for a sample app: <Application x:Class="Navigation.App" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" StartupUri="First.xaml"> </Application> Note the StartupUri points to First.xaml. First.xaml is a Page. WPF automatically hosts my page in a NavigationWindow. Here's First.xaml: <Page x:Class="Navigation.First" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="First"> <Grid> <Button CommandParameter="/Second.xaml" CommandTarget="{Binding RelativeSource= {RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type NavigationWindow}}}" Command="NavigationCommands.GoToPage" Content="Go!"/> </Grid> </Page> The button's CommandTarget is set to the NavigationWindow. The command is GoToPage, and the page is /Second.xaml. I've tried setting the CommandTarget to the containing Page, the CommandParameter to "Second.xaml" (First.xaml and Second.xaml are both in the root of the solution), and I've tried leaving the CommandTarget empty. I've also tried setting the Path to the Binding to various navigational-related public properties on the NavigationWindow. Nothing has worked so far. What am I missing here? I really don't want to do my navigation in code. Clarification. If, instead of using a button, I use a Hyperlink: <Grid> <TextBlock> <Hyperlink NavigateUri="Second.xaml">Go! </Hyperlink> </TextBlock> </Grid> everything works as expected. However, my UI requirements means that using a Hyperlink is right out. I need a big fatty button for people to press. That's why I want to use the button to navigate. I just want to know how I can get the Button to provide the same ability that the Hyperlink does in this case.

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  • UTF-8 GET using Indy 10.5.8.0 and Delphi XE2

    - by Bogdan Botezatu
    I'm writing my first Unicode application with Delphi XE2 and I've stumbled upon an issue with GET requests to an Unicode URL. Shortly put, it's a routine in a MP3 tagging application that takes a track title and an artist and queries Last.FM for the corresponding album, track no and genre. I have the following code: function GetMP3Info(artist, track: string) : TMP3Data //<---(This is a record) var TrackTitle, ArtistTitle : WideString; webquery : WideString; [....] WebQuery := UTF8Encode('http://ws.audioscrobbler.com/2.0/?method=track.getcorrection&api_key=' + apikey + '&artist=' + artist + '&track=' + track); //[processing the result in the web query, getting the correction for the artist and title] // eg: for artist := Bucovina and track := Mestecanis, the corrected values are //ArtistTitle := Bucovina; // TrackTitle := Mestecani?; //Now here is the tricky part: webquery := UTF8Encode('http://ws.audioscrobbler.com/2.0/?method=track.getInfo&api_key=' + apikey + '&artist=' + unescape(ArtistTitle) + '&track=' + unescape(TrackTitle)); //the unescape function replaces spaces (' ') with '+' to comply with the last.fm requests [some more processing] end; The webquery looks in a TMemo just right (http://ws.audioscrobbler.com/2.0/?method=track.getInfo&api_key=e5565002840xxxxxxxxxxxxxx23b98ad&artist=Bucovina&track=Mestecani?) Yet, when I try to send a GET() to the webquery using IdHTTP (with the ContentEncoding property set to 'UTF-8'), I see in Wireshark that the component is GET-ing the data to the ANSI value '/2.0/?method=track.getInfo&api_key=e5565002840xxxxxxxxxxxxxx23b98ad&artist=Bucovina&track=Mestec?ni?' Here is the full headers for the GET requests and responses: GET /2.0/?method=track.getInfo&api_key=e5565002840xxxxxxxxxxxxxx23b98ad&artist=Bucovina&track=Mestec?ni? HTTP/1.1 Content-Encoding: UTF-8 Host: ws.audioscrobbler.com Accept: text/html, */* Accept-Encoding: identity User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2.23) Gecko/20110920 Firefox/3.6.23 SearchToolbar/1.22011-10-16 20:20:07 HTTP/1.0 400 Bad Request Date: Tue, 09 Oct 2012 20:46:31 GMT Server: Apache/2.2.22 (Unix) X-Web-Node: www204 Access-Control-Allow-Origin: * Access-Control-Allow-Methods: POST, GET, OPTIONS Access-Control-Max-Age: 86400 Cache-Control: max-age=10 Expires: Tue, 09 Oct 2012 20:46:42 GMT Content-Length: 114 Connection: close Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <lfm status="failed"> <error code="6"> Track not found </error> </lfm> The question that puzzles me is am I overseeing anything related to setting the property of the tidhttp control? How can I stop the well-formated URL i'm composing in the application from getting wrongfully sent to the server? Thanks.

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  • Is it possible to read infinity or NaN values using input streams?

    - by Drise
    I have some input to be read by a input filestream (for example): -365.269511 -0.356123 -Inf 0.000000 When I use std::ifstream mystream; to read from the file to some double d1 = -1, d2 = -1, d3 = -1, d4 = -1; (assume mystream has already been opened and the file is valid), mystream >> d1 >> d2 >> d3 >> d4; mystream is in the fail state. I would expect std::cout << d1 << " " << d2 << " " << d3 << " " << d4 << std::endl; to output -365.269511 -0.356123 -1 -1. I would want it to output -365.269511 -0.356123 -Inf 0 instead. This set of data was output using C++ streams. Why can't I do the reverse process (read in my output)? How can I get the functionality I seek? From MooingDuck: #include <iostream> #include <limits> using namespace std; int main() { double myd = std::numeric_limits<double>::infinity(); cout << myd << '\n'; cin >> myd; cout << cin.good() << ":" << myd << endl; return 0; } Input: inf Output: inf 0:inf See also: http://ideone.com/jVvei Also related to this problem is NaN parsing, even though I do not give examples for it.

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  • Interoperability between two AES algorithms

    - by lpfavreau
    Hello, I'm new to cryptography and I'm building some test applications to try and understand the basics of it. I'm not trying to build the algorithms from scratch but I'm trying to make two different AES-256 implementation talk to each other. I've got a database that was populated with this Javascript implementation stored in Base64. Now, I'm trying to get an Objective-C method to decrypt its content but I'm a little lost as to where the differences in the implementations are. I'm able to encrypt/decrypt in Javascript and I'm able to encrypt/decrypt in Cocoa but cannot make a string encrypted in Javascript decrypted in Cocoa or vice-versa. I'm guessing it's related to the initialization vector, nonce, counter mode of operation or all of these, which quite frankly, doesn't speak to me at the moment. Here's what I'm using in Objective-C, adapted mainly from this and this: @implementation NSString (Crypto) - (NSString *)encryptAES256:(NSString *)key { NSData *input = [self dataUsingEncoding: NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSData *output = [NSString cryptoAES256:input key:key doEncrypt:TRUE]; return [Base64 encode:output]; } - (NSString *)decryptAES256:(NSString *)key { NSData *input = [Base64 decode:self]; NSData *output = [NSString cryptoAES256:input key:key doEncrypt:FALSE]; return [[[NSString alloc] initWithData:output encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] autorelease]; } + (NSData *)cryptoAES256:(NSData *)input key:(NSString *)key doEncrypt:(BOOL)doEncrypt { // 'key' should be 32 bytes for AES256, will be null-padded otherwise char keyPtr[kCCKeySizeAES256 + 1]; // room for terminator (unused) bzero(keyPtr, sizeof(keyPtr)); // fill with zeroes (for padding) // fetch key data [key getCString:keyPtr maxLength:sizeof(keyPtr) encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSUInteger dataLength = [input length]; // See the doc: For block ciphers, the output size will always be less than or // equal to the input size plus the size of one block. // That's why we need to add the size of one block here size_t bufferSize = dataLength + kCCBlockSizeAES128; void* buffer = malloc(bufferSize); size_t numBytesCrypted = 0; CCCryptorStatus cryptStatus = CCCrypt(doEncrypt ? kCCEncrypt : kCCDecrypt, kCCAlgorithmAES128, kCCOptionECBMode | kCCOptionPKCS7Padding, keyPtr, kCCKeySizeAES256, nil, // initialization vector (optional) [input bytes], dataLength, // input buffer, bufferSize, // output &numBytesCrypted ); if (cryptStatus == kCCSuccess) { // the returned NSData takes ownership of the buffer and will free it on deallocation return [NSData dataWithBytesNoCopy:buffer length:numBytesCrypted]; } free(buffer); // free the buffer; return nil; } @end Of course, the input is Base64 decoded beforehand. I see that each encryption with the same key and same content in Javascript gives a different encrypted string, which is not the case with the Objective-C implementation that always give the same encrypted string. I've read the answers of this post and it makes me believe I'm right about something along the lines of vector initialization but I'd need your help to pinpoint what's going on exactly. Thank you!

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  • Symfony : ajax call cause server to queue next queries

    - by Remiz
    Hello, I've a problem with my application when an ajax call on the server takes too much time : it queue all the others queries from the user until it's done server side (I realized that canceling the call client side has no effect and the user still have to wait). Here is my test case : <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <a href="another-page.php">Go to another page on the same server</a> <script type="text/javascript"> url = 'http://localserver/some-very-long-complex-query'; $.get(url); </script> So when the get is fired and then after I click on the link, the server finish serving the first call before bringing me to the other page. My problem is that I want to avoid this behavior. I'm on a LAMP server and I'm looking in a way to inform the server that the user aborted the query with function like connection_aborted(), do you think that's the way to go ? Also, I know that the longest part of this PHP script is a MySQL query, so even if I know that connection_aborted() can detect that the user cancel the call, I still need to check this during the MySQL query... I'm not really sure that PHP can handle this kind of "event". So if you have any better idea, I can't wait to hear it. Thank you. Update : After further investigation, I found that the problem happen only with the Symfony framework (that I omitted to precise, my bad). It seems that an Ajax call lock any other future call. It maybe related to the controller or the routing system, I'm looking into it. Also for those interested by the problem here is my new test case : -new project with Symfony 1.4.3, default configuration, I just created an app and a default module. -jquery 1.4 for the ajax query. Here is my actions.class.php (in my unique module) : class defaultActions extends sfActions { public function executeIndex(sfWebRequest $request) { //Do nothing } public function executeNewpage() { //Do also nothing } public function executeWaitingaction(){ // Wait sleep(30); return false; } } Here is my indexSuccess.php template file : <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <a href="<?php echo url_for('default/newpage');?>">Go to another symfony action</a> <script type="text/javascript"> url = '<?php echo url_for('default/waitingaction');?>'; $.get(url); </script> For the new page template, it's not very relevant... But with this, I'm able to reproduce the lock problem I've on my real application. Is somebody else having the same issue ? Thanks.

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  • linq to sql with nservicebus table lock issue

    - by IGoor
    I am building a system using NServiceBus and my DataLayer is using Linq 2 SQL. The system is made up of 2 services. Service1 receives messages from NSB. It will query Table1 in my database and inserts a record into Table1 If a certain condition is met a new NSB message is sent to the 2nd service Service2 will update records also in Table1 when it receives messages from Service1 and it does some other non database related work. Service2 is a long running process. The problem I am having is the moment Service2 updates a record in Table1, the table is locked. The lock seems to be in place until Service2 has completed all it is processing. i.e. The lock is not released after my datacontext is disposed. This causes the query in Service1 to timeout. Once Service2 completes processing, Service1 resumes processing again without problem. So for example Service1 code may look like: int x =0; using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { x = (from dp in db.Table1 select dp).Count(); // this line will timeout while service2 is processing Table1 t = new Table1(); t.Data = "test"; db.Table1.InsertOnSubmit(t); db.SubmitChanges(); } if(x % 50 == 0) CallService2(); The code in service2 may look like: using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { Table1 t = db.Table1.Where(t => t.id == myId); t.Data = "updated"; db.SubmitChanges(); } // I would have expected the lock to have been released at this point, but this is not the case. DoSomeLongRunningTasks(); // lock will be released once service2 exits I don't understand why the lock is not released when the datacontext is disposed in Service2. To get around the problem I have been calling: db.ExecuteCommand("SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL READ UNCOMMITTED"); and this works, but I am not happy using it. I want to solve this problem properly. Has any one experienced this sort of problem before and does any one know how to solve it? Why is the lock not released after the datacontext has been disposed? Thanks in advance. p.s. sorry for the extremely long post.

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  • Different behaviour using unidirectional or bidirectional relation

    - by sinuhepop
    I want to persist a mail entity which has some resources (inline or attachment). First I related them as a bidirectional relation: @Entity public class Mail extends BaseEntity { @OneToMany(mappedBy = "mail", cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) private List<MailResource> resource; private String receiver; private String subject; private String body; @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date queued; @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date sent; public Mail(String receiver, String subject, String body) { this.receiver = receiver; this.subject = subject; this.body = body; this.queued = new Date(); this.resource = new ArrayList<>(); } public void addResource(String name, MailResourceType type, byte[] content) { resource.add(new MailResource(this, name, type, content)); } } @Entity public class MailResource extends BaseEntity { @ManyToOne(optional = false) private Mail mail; private String name; private MailResourceType type; private byte[] content; } And when I saved them: Mail mail = new Mail("[email protected]", "Hi!", "..."); mail.addResource("image", MailResourceType.INLINE, someBytes); mail.addResource("documentation.pdf", MailResourceType.ATTACHMENT, someOtherBytes); mailRepository.save(mail); Three inserts were executed: INSERT INTO MAIL (ID, BODY, QUEUED, RECEIVER, SENT, SUBJECT) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) INSERT INTO MAILRESOURCE (ID, CONTENT, NAME, TYPE, MAIL_ID) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?) INSERT INTO MAILRESOURCE (ID, CONTENT, NAME, TYPE, MAIL_ID) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?) Then I thought it would be better using only a OneToMany relation. No need to save which Mail is in every MailResource: @Entity public class Mail extends BaseEntity { @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) @JoinColumn(name = "mail_id") private List<MailResource> resource; ... public void addResource(String name, MailResourceType type, byte[] content) { resource.add(new MailResource(name, type, content)); } } @Entity public class MailResource extends BaseEntity { private String name; private MailResourceType type; private byte[] content; } Generated tables are exactly the same (MailResource has a FK to Mail). The problem is the executed SQL: INSERT INTO MAIL (ID, BODY, QUEUED, RECEIVER, SENT, SUBJECT) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) INSERT INTO MAILRESOURCE (ID, CONTENT, NAME, TYPE) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?) INSERT INTO MAILRESOURCE (ID, CONTENT, NAME, TYPE) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?) UPDATE MAILRESOURCE SET mail_id = ? WHERE (ID = ?) UPDATE MAILRESOURCE SET mail_id = ? WHERE (ID = ?) Why this two updates? I'm using EclipseLink, will this behaviour be the same using another JPA provider as Hibernate? Which solution is better?

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  • Difference in DocumentBuilder.parse when using JRE 1.5 and JDK 1.6

    - by dhiller
    Recently at last we have switched our projects to Java 1.6. When executing the tests I found out that using 1.6 a SAXParseException is not thrown which has been thrown using 1.5. Below is my test code to demonstrate the problem. import java.io.StringReader; import javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilder; import javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilderFactory; import javax.xml.transform.stream.StreamSource; import javax.xml.validation.SchemaFactory; import org.junit.Test; import org.xml.sax.InputSource; import org.xml.sax.SAXParseException; /** * Test class to demonstrate the difference between JDK 1.5 to JDK 1.6. * * Seen on Linux: * * <pre> * #java version "1.6.0_18" * Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_18-b07) * Java HotSpot(TM) Server VM (build 16.0-b13, mixed mode) * </pre> * * Seen on OSX: * * <pre> * java version "1.6.0_17" * Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_17-b04-248-10M3025) * Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 14.3-b01-101, mixed mode) * </pre> * * @author dhiller (creator) * @author $Author$ (last editor) * @version $Revision$ * @since 12.03.2010 11:32:31 */ public class TestXMLValidation { /** * Tests the schema validation of an XML against a simple schema. * * @throws Exception * Falls ein Fehler auftritt * @throws junit.framework.AssertionFailedError * Falls eine Unit-Test-Pruefung fehlschlaegt */ @Test(expected = SAXParseException.class) public void testValidate() throws Exception { final StreamSource schema = new StreamSource( new StringReader( "<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"UTF-8\"?>" + "<xs:schema xmlns:xs=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" " + "elementFormDefault=\"qualified\" xmlns:xsd=\"undefined\">" + "<xs:element name=\"Test\"/>" + "</xs:schema>" ) ); final String xml = "<Test42/>"; final DocumentBuilderFactory newFactory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); newFactory.setSchema( SchemaFactory.newInstance( "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" ).newSchema( schema ) ); final DocumentBuilder documentBuilder = newFactory.newDocumentBuilder(); documentBuilder.parse( new InputSource( new StringReader( xml ) ) ); } } When using a JVM 1.5 the test passes, on 1.6 it fails with "Expected exception SAXParseException". The Javadoc of the DocumentBuilderFactory.setSchema(Schema) Method says: When errors are found by the validator, the parser is responsible to report them to the user-specified ErrorHandler (or if the error handler is not set, ignore them or throw them), just like any other errors found by the parser itself. In other words, if the user-specified ErrorHandler is set, it must receive those errors, and if not, they must be treated according to the implementation specific default error handling rules. The Javadoc of the DocumentBuilder.parse(InputSource) method says: BTW: I tried setting an error handler via setErrorHandler, but there still is no exception. Now my question: What has changed to 1.6 that prevents the schema validation to throw a SAXParseException? Is it related to the schema or to the xml that I tried to parse?

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  • C++ Virtual Constructor, without clone()

    - by Julien L.
    I want to perform "deep copies" of an STL container of pointers to polymorphic classes. I know about the Prototype design pattern, implemented by means of the Virtual Ctor Idiom, as explained in the C++ FAQ Lite, Item 20.8. It is simple and straightforward: struct ABC // Abstract Base Class { virtual ~ABC() {} virtual ABC * clone() = 0; }; struct D1 : public ABC { virtual D1 * clone() { return new D1( *this ); } // Covariant Return Type }; A deep copy is then: for( i = 0; i < oldVector.size(); ++i ) newVector.push_back( oldVector[i]->clone() ); Drawbacks As Andrei Alexandrescu states it: The clone() implementation must follow the same pattern in all derived classes; in spite of its repetitive structure, there is no reasonable way to automate defining the clone() member function (beyond macros, that is). Moreover, clients of ABC can possibly do something bad. (I mean, nothing prevents clients to do something bad, so, it will happen.) Better design? My question is: is there another way to make an abstract base class clonable without requiring derived classes to write clone-related code? (Helper class? Templates?) Following is my context. Hopefully, it will help understanding my question. I am designing a class hierarchy to perform operations on a class Image: struct ImgOp { virtual ~ImgOp() {} bool run( Image & ) = 0; }; Image operations are user-defined: clients of the class hierarchy will implement their own classes derived from ImgOp: struct CheckImageSize : public ImgOp { std::size_t w, h; bool run( Image &i ) { return w==i.width() && h==i.height(); } }; struct CheckImageResolution; struct RotateImage; ... Multiple operations can be performed sequentially on an image: bool do_operations( std::vector< ImgOp* > v, Image &i ) { std::for_each( v.begin(), v.end(), /* bind2nd(mem_fun(&ImgOp::run), i ...) don't remember syntax */ ); } int main( ... ) { std::vector< ImgOp* > v; v.push_back( new CheckImageSize ); v.push_back( new CheckImageResolution ); v.push_back( new RotateImage ); Image i; do_operations( v, i ); } If there are multiple images, the set can be split and shared over several threads. To ensure "thread-safety", each thread must have its own copy of all operation objects contained in v -- v becomes a prototype to be deep copied in each thread.

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  • XY-Scatter Chart In SSRS Won't Display Points

    - by Dalin Seivewright
    I'm a bit confused with this one. I have a Dataset with a BackupDate and a BackupTime as well as a BackupType. The BackupDate is comprised of 12 characters from the left of a datetime string within a table. The BackupTime is comprised of 8 characters from the right of that same datetime string. So for example: BackupDate would be 'December 12 2008' and the BackupTime would be '12:53PM.' I have added an XY-scatter chart to the report. I've added a 'series' value for the BackupType (so one can distinguish between a Full/Incr/Log backup). I've added a category value of BackupDate and set the Scale for the X-axis from the Min of BackupDate to the Max of BackupDate. I've then added an item to the Values with the Y variable set to BackupTime and the X variable set to BackupDate. The interval for the Y-axis is 12:00AM to 11:59PM and the formatting for the labels is 'hh:mmtt'. The BackupTime matches the format of the Y-axis. The BackupDate matches the format of the X-axis. 10 entries are retrieved by my Dataset and the Legend is properly populated by the BackupType field. No points are being plotted on the graph and no markers/pointers are shown if they are enabled. There should be a point on the graph for every point in time of each day there is a backup of a specific type. Am I missing something? Does anyone know of a good tutorial dealing specifically with XY-scatter graphs and using them in a way I intend? I am using the 2005 version of SSRS rather than the 2008 version. Screenshot of what my chart currently looks like: In case it could be dataset related: SELECT TOP (10) backup_type, LTRIM(RTRIM(LEFT(backup_finish_date, 12))) AS BackupDate, LTRIM(RTRIM(RIGHT(backup_finish_date, 8))) AS BackupTime FROM DBARepository.Backup_History As requested, here are the results of this query. There is a Where clause to constrain the results to a specific database of a specific server that was not included in the above SQL Query. Log Dec 26 2008 12:00PM Log Dec 27 2008 4:00AM Log Dec 27 2008 8:00AM Log Dec 27 2008 12:00PM Log Dec 27 2008 4:00PM Log Dec 27 2008 8:00PM Database Dec 27 2008 10:01PM Log Dec 28 2008 12:00AM Log Dec 28 2008 4:00AM Log Dec 28 2008 8:00AM

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  • How can I edit an entity in MVC4 with EF5 which has a unique constraint?

    - by Yoeri
    [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Car car) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { db.Entry(car).State = EntityState.Modified; db.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(car); } This is a controller method scaffolded by MCV 4 My "car" entity has a unique field: LicensePlate. I have custom validation on my Entity: Validation: public partial class Car { partial void ValidateObject(ref List<ValidationResult> validationResults) { using (var db = new GarageIncEntities()) { if (db.Cars.Any(c => c.LicensePlate.Equals(this.LicensePlate))) { validationResults.Add( new ValidationResult("This licenseplate already exists.", new string[]{"LicensePlate"})); } } } } should it be usefull, my car entity: public partial class Car:IValidatableObject { public int Id { get; set; } public string Color { get; set; } public int Weight { get; set; } public decimal Price { get; set; } public string LicensePlate { get; set; } public System.DateTime DateOfSale { get; set; } public int Type_Id { get; set; } public int Fuel_Id { get; set; } public virtual CarType Type { get; set; } public virtual Fuel Fuel { get; set; } public IEnumerable<ValidationResult> Validate(ValidationContext validationContext) { var result = new List<ValidationResult>(); ValidateObject(ref result); return result; } partial void ValidateObject(ref List<ValidationResult> validationResults); } QUESTION: Everytime I edit a car, it raises an error: Validation failed for one or more entities. See 'EntityValidationErrors' property for more details. The error is the one raised by my validation, saying it can't edit because there is already a car with that license plate. If anyone could point me in the right direction to fix this, that would be great! I searched but couldn't find anything, so even related posts are welcome!

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  • IPHONE DEVELOPMENT PROFILE EXPIRED - I TRIED EVERYTHING AND YES, I READ THE DOCS

    - by theiphoneguy
    I really combed this site and others. I read and re-read the related links here and the Apple docs. I'm sorry, but either I am obviously missing something right under my nose, or this Apple profile/certificate stuff is a bit convoluted. Here it is: I have a product in the App Store. I have updated it several times and users like it. My development profile recently expired just when I was improving the app for its next release. I can run the app in the simulator. I can compile and put the distribution build on my iPhone just fine. I went to the Apple portal and renewed the development profile. I downloaded it and installed it in Xcode. I see it in the Organize window. I see it on my iPhone. I CANNOT put the debug build on my iPhone to debug or run with Instruments. The message is that either there is not a valid signed profile or it is untrusted. I subsequently tried to download and install the certificate to my Mac's keychain. Still no success. I checked the code signing section of Project settings and also for the target and the root. All appears to indicate that it is using the expected development profile for debug. Yes, I had deleted the old profile from my iPhone, from the Organizer. I cleaned the Xcode cache and all targets. I have done all of this several times and in varying sequences to try to cover every possibility. I am ready to do anything to be able to debug with Instruments in order to check for leaks or high memory usage. Even though the distribution compile runs fine on my iPhone and plays well with other running processes, I will not release anything without a leaks/memory test. Any ideas will be appreciated. If I missed something obvious, please forgive me - it was not due to just posting a question without searching for similar postings. Thanks!

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  • NHibernate Many to Many delete all my data in the table

    - by Daoming Yang
    I would love to thank @Stefan Steinegger and @David helped me out yesterday with many-to-many mapping. I have 3 tables which are "News", "Tags" and "News_Tags" with Many-To-Many relationship and the "News_Tags" is the link table. If I delete one of the news records, the following mappings will delete all my news records which have the same tags. One thing I need to notice, I only allowed unique tag stored in the "Tag" table. This mapping make sense for me, it will delete the tag and related News records, but how can I implement a tagging system with NHibernate? Can anyone give me some suggestion? Many thanks. Daoming. News Mapping: <class name="New" table="News" lazy="false"> <id name="NewID"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Title" type="String"></property> <property name="Description" type="String"></property> <set name="TagsList" table="New_Tags" lazy="false" inverse="true" cascade="all"> <key column="NewID" /> <many-to-many class="Tag" column="TagID" /> </set> </class> Tag Mapping: <class name="Tag" table="Tags" lazy="false"> <id name="TagID"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="TagName" type="String"></property> <property name="DateCreated" type="DateTime"></property> <!--inverse="true" has been defined in the "News mapping"--> <set name="NewsList" table="New_Tags" lazy="false" cascade="all"> <key column="TagID" /> <many-to-many class="New" column="NewID" /> </set> </class>

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  • Mootools 1.2.4 delegation not working in IE8...?

    - by michael
    Hey there everybody-- So I have a listbox next to a form. When the user clicks an option in the select box, I make a request for the related data, returned in a JSON object, which gets put into the form elements. When the form is saved, the request goes thru and the listbox is rebuilt with the updated data. Since it's being rebuilt I'm trying to use delegation on the listbox's parent div for the onchange code. The trouble I'm having is with IE8 (big shock) not firing the delegated event. I have the following HTML: <div id="listwrapper" class="span-10 append-1 last"> <select id="list" name="list" size="20"> <option value="86">Adrian Franklin</option> <option value="16">Adrian McCorvey</option> <option value="196">Virginia Thomas</option> </select> </div> and the following script to go with it: window.addEvent('domready', function() { var jsonreq = new Request.JSON(); $('listwrapper').addEvent('change:relay(select)', function(e) { alert('this doesn't fire in IE8'); e.stop(); var status= $('statuswrapper').empty().addClass('ajax-loading'); jsonreq.options.url = 'de_getformdata.php'; jsonreq.options.method = 'post'; jsonreq.options.data = {'getlist':'<?php echo $getlist ?>','pkey':$('list').value}; jsonreq.onSuccess = function(rObj, rTxt) { status.removeClass('ajax-loading'); for (key in rObj) { status.set('html','You are currently editing '+rObj['cname']); if ($chk($(key))) $(key).value = rObj[key]; } $('lalsoaccomp-yes').set('checked',(($('naccompkey').value > 0)?'true':'false')); $('lalsoaccomp-no').set('checked',(($('naccompkey').value > 0)?'false':'true')); } jsonreq.send(); }); }); (I took out a bit of unrelated stuff). So this all works as expected in firefox, but IE8 refuses to fire the delegated change event on the select element. If I attach the change function directly to the select, then it works just fine. Am I missing something? Does IE8 just not like the :relay? Sidenote: I'm very new to mootools and javascripting, etc, so if there's something that can be improved code-wise, please let me know too.. Thanks!

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  • Strange problem publishing a fresh Ruby on Rails 3 application on localhost (Apache, Passenger and VirtualHosts)

    - by user502052
    I recently created a new Ruby on Rails 3 application locally on a Mac OS, named "test". Since I use apache2, in the private/etc/apache2/httpd.conf I set the VirtualHost for the "test" application: <VirtualHost *:443> ServerName test.pjtmain.localhost:443 DocumentRoot "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/test/public" RackEnv development <Directory "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/test/public"> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> # SSL Configuration SSLEngine on ... </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName test.pjtmain.localhost DocumentRoot "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/test/public" RackEnv development <Directory "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/test/public"> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> Of course I restart apache2, but trying to access to http://test.pjtmain.localhost/ I have this error message from: FIREFOX Oops! Firefox could not find test.pjtmain.localhost Suggestions: * Search on Google: ... SAFARI Safari can’t find the server. Safari can’t open the page “http://test.pjtmain.localhost/” because Safari can’t find the server “test.pjtmain.localhost”. I have other RoR3 applications setted like that above in the httpd.conf file and all them work. What is the problem (maybe it is not related to apache...)? Notes: 1. Using the 'Network Uility' I did a Ping with the following result: ping: cannot resolve test.pjtmain.localhost: Unknown host and I did a Lookup with the follonwing result: ; <<>> DiG 9.6.0-APPLE-P2 <<>> test.pjtmain.localhost +multiline +nocomments +nocmd +noquestion +nostats +search ;; global options: +cmd <MY_BROADBAND_TELECOMUNICATIONS_COMPANY_NAME>.com. 115 IN SOA dns1.<MY_BROADBAND_TELECOMUNICATIONS_COMPANY_NAME>.com. dnsmaster.<MY_BROADBAND_TELECOMUNICATIONS_COMPANY_NAME>.com. ( 2010110500 ; serial 10800 ; refresh (3 hours) 900 ; retry (15 minutes) 604800 ; expire (1 week) 86400 ; minimum (1 day) ) 2. I am using Phusion Passenger 3. Since I not changed nothing to the new "test" application, I expect to see the default RoR index.html page: 4. It seems that in the 'Console Messages' there is any warning or error

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  • List<> of objects, different types, sort and pull out types individually?

    - by Brazos
    I've got a handful of products, any, all, or none of which may be associated with a specific submission. All 7 products are subclasses of the class Product. I need to store all the products associated with a submission, and then retrieve them and their field data on my presentation layer. I've been using a List, and List, but when I use the OfType, I throw an error saying that I can't implicitly convert systems.generic.IEnumerable to type 'Product'. I've tried to cast, but to no avail. When I use prodlist.OfType<EPL>(); there are no errors, but when I try and store that in an instance of EPL "tempEpl", I get the aforementioned cast-related error. What gives? Code below. ProductService pserv = new ProductService(); IList<object> prodlist = pserv.getProductById(x); EPL tempEpl = new EPL(); if ((prodlist.OfType<EPL>()) != null) { tempEpl = prodlist.OfType<EPL>(); // this throws a conversion error. } the Data layer List<object> TempProdList = new List<object>(); conn.Open(); SqlCommand EplCmd = new SqlCommand(EPLQuery, conn); SqlDataReader EplRead = null; EplRead = EplCmd.ExecuteReader(); EPL TempEpl = new EPL(); if (EplRead.Read()) { TempEpl.Entity1 = EplRead.GetString(0); TempEpl.Employees1 = EplRead.GetInt32(1); TempEpl.CA1 = EplRead.GetInt32(2); TempEpl.MI1 = EplRead.GetInt32(3); TempEpl.NY1 = EplRead.GetInt32(4); TempEpl.NJ1 = EplRead.GetInt32(5); TempEpl.PrimEx1 = EplRead.GetInt32(6); TempEpl.EplLim1 = EplRead.GetInt32(7); TempEpl.EplSir1 = EplRead.GetInt32(8); TempEpl.Premium1 = EplRead.GetInt32(9); TempEpl.Wage1 = EplRead.GetInt32(10); TempEpl.Sublim1 = EplRead.GetInt32(11); TempProdList.Add(TempEpl); }

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  • Spring constructor injection error

    - by Jeune
    I am getting the following error for a bean in my application context: Related cause: org.springframework.beans.factory.UnsatisfiedDependencyException: Error creating bean with name 'businessLogicContext' d efined in class path resource [activemq-jms-consumer.xml]: Unsatisfied dependency expressed through constructor argument with index 0 of type [java.lang.String]: Could not convert constructor argument value of type [java.util.ArrayList] to required type [java.lang.String]: Failed to convert value of type [java.util.ArrayList] to required type [java.lang.Stri ng]; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Cannot convert value of type [java.util.ArrayList] to requi red type [java.lang.String]: no matching editors or conversion strategy found at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.ConstructorResolver.createArgumentArray(ConstructorResolver.java:53 4) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.ConstructorResolver.autowireConstructor(ConstructorResolver.java:18 6) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.autowireConstructor(AbstractAuto wireCapableBeanFactory.java:855) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBeanInstance(AbstractAutow ireCapableBeanFactory.java:765) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCap ableBeanFactory.java:412) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory$1.run(AbstractAutowireCapableBea nFactory.java:383) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBean(AbstractAutowireCapab leBeanFactory.java:353) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory$1.getObject(AbstractBeanFactory.java:245) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultSingletonBeanRegistry.getSingleton(DefaultSingletonBeanRegis try.java:169) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.getBean(AbstractBeanFactory.java:242) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.getBean(AbstractBeanFactory.java:164) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.preInstantiateSingletons(DefaultListable BeanFactory.java:400) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.finishBeanFactoryInitialization(AbstractApplic ationContext.java:736) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:369) at org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.<init>(ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.java :123) at org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.<init>(ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.java :66) Here is my bean: <bean id="businessLogicContext" class="org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext" depends-on="resolveProperty"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <list> <value>jms-applicationContext.xml</value> <value>jms-managerBeanContext.xml</value> <value>jms-daoContext.xml</value> <value>jms-serviceContext.xml</value> </list> </constructor-arg> </bean> I don't know what's wrong, I have googled how to inject a string array via constructor injection and the way I do it above seems okay.

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  • .NET and C# Exceptions. What is it reasonable to catch.

    - by djna
    Disclaimer, I'm from a Java background. I don't do much C#. There's a great deal of transfer between the two worlds, but of course there are differences and one is in the way Exceptions tend to be thought about. I recently answered a C# question suggesting that under some circstances it's reasonable to do this: try { some work } catch (Exeption e) { commonExceptionHandler(); } (The reasons why are immaterial). I got a response that I don't quite understand: until .NET 4.0, it's very bad to catch Exception. It means you catch various low-level fatal errors and so disguise bugs. It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed, so even if the callExceptionReporter fuunction tries to log and quit, it may not even get to that point (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database). May I'm more confused than I realise, but I don't agree with some of that. Please would other folks comment. I understand that there are many low level Exceptions we don't want to swallow. My commonExceptionHandler() function could reasonably rethrow those. This seems consistent with this answer to a related question. Which does say "Depending on your context it can be acceptable to use catch(...), providing the exception is re-thrown." So I conclude using catch (Exception ) is not always evil, silently swallowing certain exceptions is. The phrase "Until .NET 4 it is very bad to Catch Exception" What changes in .NET 4? IS this a reference to AggregateException, which may give us some new things to do with exceptions we catch, but I don't think changes the fundamental "don't swallow" rule. The next phrase really bothers be. Can this be right? It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database) My understanding is that if some low level code had lowLevelMethod() { try { lowestLevelMethod(); } finally { some really important stuff } } and in my code I call lowLevel(); try { lowLevel() } catch (Exception e) { exception handling and maybe rethrowing } Whether or not I catch Exception this has no effect whatever on the excution of the finally block. By the time we leave lowLevelMethod() the finally has already run. If the finally is going to do any of the bad things, such as corrupt my disk, then it will do so. My catching the Exception made no difference. If It reaches my Exception block I need to do the right thing, but I can't be the cause of dmis-executing finallys

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  • Grid sorting with persistent master sort

    - by MikeWyatt
    I have a UI with a grid. Each record in the grid is sorted by a "master" sort column, let's call it a page number. Each record is a story in a magazine. I want the user to be able to drag and drop a record to a new position in the grid and automatically update the page number field to reflect the updated position. Easy enough, right? Now imagine that I also want to have the grid sortable by any other column (story title, section, author name, etc.). How does the drag and drop operation work now? Revert to page number sort during or after the drag and drop operation? This could confuse the user (why did my sort just change?). It would also result in arbitrary row positioning. Would the story now be before the row that was after it when the user dropped it? Or, would it be after the row that was before it? Those rows may now be widely separated after the master order sort. Disable the drag and drop feature if the grid isn't currently sorted by the page number? This would be easy, but the user might wonder why he can't drag and drop at certain times. Knowing to first sort by page number may not be very intuitive. Let the user rearrange his rows, but not make any changes to the page number? Require the user to enter a "Arrange Stories" mode, in which the grid sort is temporarily switched to page number and drag and drop is enabled? They would then exit the mode, and the previous sort would be reapplied. The big difference between this and the second option is that it would be more explicit than simply clicking on a column header. Any other ideas, or reasons why one of the above is the way to go? EDIT I'd like to point out that any of the above is technically possible, and easy to implement. My question is design-related. What is the most intuitive way to solve this problem, from the user's perspective?

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  • Improving performance on data pasting 2000 rows with validations

    - by Lohit
    I have N rows (which could be nothing less than 1000) on an excel spreadsheet. And in this sheet our project has 150 columns like this: Now, our application needs data to be copied (using normal Ctrl+C) and pasted (using Ctrl+V) from the excel file sheet on our GUI sheet. Copy pasting 1000 records takes around 5-6 seconds which is okay for our requirement, but the problem is when we need to make sure the data entered is valid. So we have to validate data in each row generate appropriate error messages and format the data as per requirement. So we need to at runtime parse and evaluate data in each row. Now all the formatting of data and validations come from the back-end database and we have it in a data-table (dtValidateAndFormatConditions). The conditions would be around 50. So you can see how slow this whole process becomes since N X 150 X 50 operations are required to complete this whole process. Initially it took approximately 2-3 minutes but now i have reduced it to 20 - 30 seconds. However i have increased the speed by making an expression parser of my own - and not by any algorithm, is there any other way i can improve performance, by using Divide and Conquer or some other mechanism. Currently i am not really sure how to go about this. Here is what part of my code looks like: public virtual void ValidateAndFormatOnCopyPaste(DataTable DtCopied, int CurRow) { foreach (DataRow dRow in dtValidateAndFormatConditions.Rows) { string Condition = dRow["Condition"]; string FormatValue = Value = dRow["Value"]; GetValidatedFormattedData(DtCopied,ref Condition, ref FormatValue ,iRowIndex); Condition = Parse(Condition); dRow["Condition"] = Condition; FormatValue = Parse(FormatValue ); dRow["Value"] = FormatValue; } } The above code gets called row-wise like this: public override void ValidateAndFormat(DataTable dtChangedRecords, CellRange cr) { int iRowStart = cr.Row, iRowEnd = cr.Row + cr.RowCount; for (int iRow = iRowStart; iRow < iRowEnd; iRow++) { ValidateAndFormatOnCopyPaste(dtChangedRecords,iRow); } } Please know my question needs a more algorithmic solution than code optimization, however any answers containing code related optimizations will be appreciated as well. (Tagged Linq because although not seen i have been using linq in some parts of my code).

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