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  • Is there a way to allow a property of a user control to be modified only during design time?

    - by Dan
    I've looked into the DesignOnly attribute, but that doesn't seem to accomplish what I want*. Basically, I'm looking for some way to indicate that some property of a user control (let's say Text) can be modified during design time -- i.e., from the Windows Forms designer in VS (or presumably from any GUI designer that can be used to modify a Windows Forms GUI) -- but not during run time. Once the application is running, the property should effectively be readonly. Is this possible? * When I add the DesignOnly attribute to a property, the value I select for that property from design mode doesn't seem to stick; the property just ends up being whatever I have it set to by default in code.

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  • Is it possible for a XSS attack to obtain HttpOnly cookies?

    - by Dan Herbert
    Reading this blog post about HttpOnly cookies made me start thinking, is it possible for an HttpOnly cookie to be obtained through any form of XSS? Jeff mentions that it "raises the bar considerably" but makes it sound like it doesn't completely protect against XSS. Aside from the fact that not all browser support this feature properly, how could a hacker obtain a user's cookies if they are HttpOnly? I can't think of any way to make an HttpOnly cookie send itself to another site or be read by script, so it seems like this is a safe security feature, but I'm always amazed at how easily some people can work around many security layers. In the environment I work in, we use IE exclusively so other browsers aren't a concern. I'm looking specifically for other ways that this could become an issue that don't rely on browser specific flaws.

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  • jQuery animation if load() returns something different...

    - by Dan LaManna
    setInterval(function() { var prevTopArticle = $("#toparticles table:first").html(); $("#toparticles").load("myurloffeed.com/topfeed", function() { alternateBG(); var newTopArticle = $("#toparticles table:first").html(); if (prevTopArticle!=newTopArticle) { $("#toparticles table:first").effect("highlight", {color:"#faffc4"}, 2000); } }); }, 8000); So it sets the current first table item to a variable, loads the toparticles div with the tables off the url, and if they are different it will perform the highlight effect, however it does the highlight effect anyway, completely unsure why it isn't working.

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  • How do I pass a DBNull value to a parameterized SELECT statement?

    - by Dan
    I have a SQL statement in C# (.NET Framework 4 running against SQL Server 2k8) that looks like this: SELECT [Column1] FROM [Table1] WHERE [Column2] = @Column2 The above query works fine with the following ADO.NET code: DbParameter parm = Factory.CreateDbParameter(); parm.Value = "SomeValue"; parm.ParameterName = "@Column2"; //etc... This query returns zero rows, though, if I assign DBNull.Value to the DbParameter's Value member even if there are null values in Column2. If I change the query to accommodate the null test specifically: SELECT [Column1] FROM [Table1] WHERE [Column2] IS @Column2 I get an "Incorrect syntax near '@Column2'" exception at runtime. Is there no way that I can use null or DBNull as a parameter in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement?

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  • Custom DataGridView column sort based on Value not Formatted value

    - by Dan Neely
    I have a custom DGV cell I'm using to display the contents of MyType objects. To control how they're being formatted I'm overriding the GetFormattedValue() and FormattedvalueType methods of DataGridViewTextBoxCell because in this case I don't want to use the default ToString() method. The problem is that when I do this the DGV is sorting the column by the string in FormattedValue instead of by Value. I'm not seeing a method I can override to change the sort behavior of the column. While I know I can, I don't want to have to write custom Sort mthods for the DGVs themselves because I'm using this in multiple DGV's.

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  • How to use Comparator in Java to sort

    - by Dan
    I learned how to use the comparable but I'm having difficulty with the Comparator. I am having a error in my code: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ClassCastException: New.People cannot be cast to java.lang.Comparable at java.util.Arrays.mergeSort(Unknown Source) at java.util.Arrays.sort(Unknown Source) at java.util.Collections.sort(Unknown Source) at New.TestPeople.main(TestPeople.java:18) Here is my code: import java.util.Comparator; public class People implements Comparator{ private int id; private String info; private double price; public People(int newid, String newinfo, double newprice){ setid(newid); setinfo(newinfo); setprice(newprice); } public int getid() { return id; } public void setid(int id) { this.id = id; } public String getinfo() { return info; } public void setinfo(String info) { this.info = info; } public double getprice() { return price; } public void setprice(double price) { this.price = price; } public int compare(Object obj1, Object obj2) { Integer p1 = ((People)obj1).getid(); Integer p2 = ((People)obj2).getid(); if (p1 p2 ){ return 1; } else if (p1 < p2){ return -1; } else return 0; } } import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.Collections; public class TestPeople { public static void main(String[] args) { ArrayList peps = new ArrayList(); peps.add(new People(123, "M", 14.25)); peps.add(new People(234, "M", 6.21)); peps.add(new People(362, "F", 9.23)); peps.add(new People(111, "M", 65.99)); peps.add(new People(535, "F", 9.23)); Collections.sort(peps); for(int i=0;i I believe it has to do something with the casting in the compare method but I was playing around with it and still could not find the solution

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  • Making a view scrollable when keyboard active

    - by Dan Ray
    I have a view with half a dozen text fields and labels, and a button. I want it to be that when the keyboard pops up, the view becomes scrollable, so you can scroll the view up and see the bottom half of the fields without having to dismiss the keyboard to get to them. Just putting it inside a UIScrollView doesn't seem to do it.

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  • Javascript/jQuery: programmatically follow a link

    - by Dan
    In Javascript code, I would like to programmatically cause the browser to follow a link that's on my page. Simple case: <a id="foo" href="mailto:[email protected]">something</a> function goToBar() { $('#foo').trigger('follow'); } This is hypothetical as it doesn't actually work. And no, triggering click doesn't do it. I am aware of window.location and window.open but these differ from native link-following in some ways that matter to me: a) in the presence of a <base /> element, and b) in the case of mailto URLs. The latter in particular is significant. In Firefox at least, calling window.location.href = "mailto:[email protected]" causes the window's unload handlers to fire, whereas simply clicking a mailto link does not, as far as I can tell. I'm looking for a way to trigger the browser's default handling of links, from Javascript code. Does such a mechanism exist? Toolkit-specific answers also welcome (especially for Gecko).

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  • Linq qurery with multiple where's

    - by Dan
    I am trying the to query my Status Update repository using the following var result = (from s in _dataContext.StatusUpdates where s.Username == "friend1" && s.Username == "friend2" etc... select s).ToList(); Insead of using s.Username == "friendN" continously is there anyway I can pass a list or array or something like that rather that specifying each one, or can i use a foreach loop in the middle of the query. Thanks

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  • Using Flex Builder with source control

    - by Dan Monego
    When setting up a source control repository for a Flex Builder workspace, what do you consider to be worth checking in? Do you exclude the workspace .metadata folder but keep the .project and other project specific files? Keep both? Throw away both? Is there a guideline you use to decide which is worth holding onto or do you do it out of practical experience?

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  • In flex how do I pass data retrieved from a remote object service to a modules interface?

    - by Dan G
    I found at this Adobe tutorial a nice "RemoteService" class that creates a RemoteObject and contains the functions for handling the result and fault events. If I wanted to use this approach, how could I pass the data from the result handler to interfaces that modules from the main application could use? I could put the RemoteService/RemoteObject in the modules, but (in my opinion- and I could be wrong) the best design seems to be using the remote calls in the main app and passing the data along to the modules.

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  • Firefox jquery flicker bug problem

    - by Dan
    This is possibly a really silly question but I've stared at this code way too long for it to make sense! I'm having problems with a flicker of the screen in firefox; It is related a filtering script... I have a website that is a one page vertical scroll; with different anchors to define sections and a smooth scroll script to make it pretty... See the example here: http://tiny.cc/7g5mn I've tried everything... Please help me, I'm begging you, my eyes hurt!

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  • Data Access example using Entity Framework

    - by Dan
    Does anyone know of or having any good examples of how to use Entity Framework version 2 in the Data Access layer and put an interface on it so the business layer uses the interface rather than knowing about EF? I have found some examples but they are all from 2009 and I'm not sure how they relate to Entity Framework version 2.

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  • HTML5 audio object doesn't play on iPad (when called from a setTimeout)

    - by Dan Halliday
    I have a page with a hidden <audio> object which is being started and stopped using a custom button via javascript. (The reason being I want to customise the button, and that drawing an audio player seems to destroy rendering performance on iPad anyway). A simplified example (in coffeescript): // Works fine on all browsers constructor: (@_button, @_audio) -> @_button.on 'click', @_play // Bind button's click event with jQuery _play: (e) => @_audio[0].play() // Call play() on audio element The audio plays fine when triggered from a function bound to a click event, but I actually want an animation to complete before the file plays so I put .play() inside a setTimeout. However I just can't get this to work: // Will not play on iPad constructor: (@_button, @_audio) -> @_button.on 'click', @_play // Bind button's click event with jQuery _play: (e) => setTimeout (=> // Declare a 300ms timeout @_audio[0].play() // Call play() on audio element ), 300 I've checked that @_audio (this._audio) is in scope and that its play() method exists. Why doesn't this work on iPad?

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  • jquery child element as trigger

    - by Dan w
    When "forum-title" is clicked, I want "subtopic-frame" within the parent "forum-topics-head" to expand. There are multiple "forum-topics-head" (with all associated children) on this page. The way I have it now, the "forum-topics-head" is the trigger, but I want the "forum-title" to be the trigger. html: <div class="forum-topic-head"> <div class="forum-title">Forum Title</div> <div class="subtopic-frame"> subtopic 1 subtopic 2 </div> </div>

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  • How do you pipe output from a Ruby script to 'head' without getting a broken pipe error

    - by dan
    I have a simple Ruby script that looks like this require 'csv' while line = STDIN.gets array = CSV.parse_line(line) puts array[2] end But when I try using this script in a Unix pipeline like this, I get 10 lines of output, followed by an error: ruby lib/myscript.rb < data.csv | head 12080450 12080451 12080517 12081046 12081048 12081050 12081051 12081052 12081054 lib/myscript.rb:4:in `write': Broken pipe - <STDOUT> (Errno::EPIPE) Is there a way to write the Ruby script in a way that prevents the broken pipe exception from being raised?

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  • Javascript permission denied. Not cross domain?

    - by Dan
    I'm working on a web app that very rarely returns a Javacript permission denied error when attempting to access document elements. I'm well aware of cross-domain issues and I am actively pursuing them as a possible cause. My question is: are there other possible causes for a permission denied exception? Just want to make sure I'm looking in to all possible avenues. Thanks!

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  • PHP: Join two separate mysql queries into the same json data object

    - by Dan
    I'm trying to mesh the below mysql query results into a single json object, but not quite sure how to do it properly. //return data $sql_result = mysql_query($sql,$connection) or die ("Fail."); $arr = array(); while($obj = mysql_fetch_object($sql_result)) { $arr[] = $obj; } echo json_encode($arr); //return json //plus the selected options $sql_result2 = mysql_query($sql2,$connection) or die ("Fail."); $arr2 = array(); while($obj2 = mysql_fetch_object($sql_result2)) { $arr2[] = $obj2; } echo json_encode($arr2); //return json Here's the current result: [{"po_number":"test","start_date":"1261116000","end_date":"1262239200","description":"test","taa_required":"0","account_overdue":"1","jobs_id":null,"job_number":null,"companies_id":"4","companies_name":"Primacore Inc."}][{"types_id":"37"},{"types_id":"4"}] Notice how the last section [{"types_id":"37"},{"types_id":"4"}] is placed into a separate chunk under root. I'm wanting it to be nested inside the first branch under a name like, "types". I think my question has more to do with Php array manipulation, but I'm not the best with that. Thank you for any guidance.

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  • Cannot connect to SQL Server from ASP.NET MVC app

    - by Dan Fergus
    I have an ASP.NET MVC app that has on a hosted server for over a year, connecting to SQL Server. I've had to change hosting services, the new one supports MVC 1.0. I've also moved a non MVC ASP app to the same hosting service. Now, MY MVC based app retturnes this error when I try to validate a user login. A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) Now, the non-MVC app can access the exact same database and authenticate users just fine. The MVC app, when run from my dev box connects fine. It also run/connects/authenticates without problem when I install and run the site from an internal SQL 2008 server running IIS 7. I, along with the hosting support techs, am at a loss how the exact same connect string works every where except on the hosted server, and only when run from inside an ASP.NET MVC web app. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated.

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