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  • Trying to use Rhino, getEngineByName("JavaScript") returns null in OpenJDK 7

    - by Yuval
    When I run the following piece of code, the engine variable is set to null when I'm using OepnJDK 7 (java-7-openjdk-i386). import javax.script.ScriptEngine; import javax.script.ScriptEngineManager; import javax.script.ScriptException; public class TestRhino { /** * @param args */ public static void main(String[] args) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub ScriptEngineManager factory = new ScriptEngineManager(); ScriptEngine engine = factory.getEngineByName("JavaScript"); try { System.out.println(engine.eval("1+1")); } catch (ScriptException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } } It runs fine with java-6-openjdk and Oracle's jre1.7.0. Any idea why? I'm using Ubuntu 11.10. All JVMs are installed under /usr/lib/jvm. I noticed OpenJDK 7 has a different directory structure. Perhaps something is not installed right? $ locate rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-6-openjdk/jre/lib/rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-7-openjdk-common/jre/lib/rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-7-openjdk-i386/jre/lib/rhino.jar Edit Since ScriptEngineManager uses a ServiceProvider to find the available script engines, I snooped around resources.jar's META-INF/services. I noticed that in OpenJDK 6, resources.jar has a META-INF/services/javax.script.ScriptEngineFactory entry which is missing from OpenJDK 7. Any idea why? I suspect this is a bug? Here is the contents of that entry (from OpenJDK 6): #script engines supported com.sun.script.javascript.RhinoScriptEngineFactory #javascript Another edit Apparently, according to this thread, the code simply isn't there, perhaps because of merging issues between Sun and Mozilla code. I still don't understand why it was present in OpenJDK 6 and not 7. The class com.sun.script.javascript.RhinoScriptEngineFactory exists in 6's rt.jar but not in 7's. If it was not meant to be included, why is there a OpenJDK 7 rhino.jar then; and why is the source still in the OpenJDK source tree (here)?

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  • Inserting script from jQuery / Javascript

    - by Colby77
    Hi, I'm trying to insert reCaptcha code into my page from jQuery, but it doesn't work. Here is my code: $("#button").click(function() { $("#loginBox").html($.getRecaptcha()); }) When I try the following, my code doesn't even run. I think it's trying to execute instead of rendering it. $.getRecaptcha = function(){ return '<script type="text/javascript"' + 'src="http://api.recaptcha.net/challenge?' + 'k=6Ld3iAsAAAAAAGyX8QT244GagPEpCDSD-96o4gEi"></script>'; } With the following, the code runs, but when I click to #button I get an empty, full white browser window. $.getRecaptcha = function(){ var captcha = $("<script>") .attr("type", "text/javascript") .attr("src", "http://api.recaptcha.net/challenge?k=6Ld3iAsAAAAAAGyX8QT244GagPEpCDSD-96o4gEi"); return captcha; } I don't want to insert reCaptcha code into my html from the beginning, because it downloads the reCaptcha content from the reCaptcha server even if my users don't want to use it. I could set the visibility of the container that holds the reCaptcha to invisible (display: none;), but it will dowload the content irrespectively of it. I can insert the "noScript" code that reCaptcha gives us, but it doesn't work either, because it can spot that the browser allow javascript but I use noScript. Any suggestions? (I know I put my public reCaptcha key into the code, but it is just for testing purposes, and you could get it from my html or javascript code anyway)

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  • Ajax Javascript method cannot be called

    - by blackmage
    I made this method to load javascript functions dynamically. It does include the .js file but when I call a method, the method says that it is undefinited. The following to .js files are ajax_object.js and user_manager.js . The alert outside the function is read and works but the alert inside does not. enter code here //ajax_object.js //Load a javascript library function loadJavascript( src, url ){ XMLHttpRequestObject=getXmlHttpRequestObject(); if( XMLHttpRequestObject){ XMLHttpRequestObject.onreadystatechange = function() { if (XMLHttpRequestObject.readyState == 4 ){ if (XMLHttpRequestObject.status == 200 || XMLHttpRequestObject.status == 304) { includeJavaScript( src, url, XMLHttpRequestObject.responseText ); } } } } XMLHttpRequestObject.open('GET', url, true); XMLHttpRequestObject.send(null); }//end LoadJavaScript //Add Library to header function includeJavaScript(src, fileUrl, xmlObject) { if ( ( xmlObject != null ) && ( !document.getElementById( src ) ) ){ var documentHead = document.getElementsByTagName('HEAD').item(0); var includeScript = document.createElement( "script" ); includeScript.language = "javascript"; includeScript.type = "text/javascript"; //includeScript.id = src; includeScript.src=fileUrl.concat(src); includeScript.defer = true; includeScript.text = xmlObject; documentHead.appendChild( includeScript ); } } //user_manager.js //First alert is read alert("Outside User Manager"); function selectUserManagerModuleType(){ XMLHttpRequestObject=getXmlHttpRequestObject(); //This doesn't work //throws selectUserManagerModuleType undefined alert("Inside The User Manager"); }

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  • Javascript parentNode and innerHTML do not work properly in FireFox

    - by Uda
    Hello, I have a problem when using javascript in Firefox, here is the html: <HTML> <BODY> <TABLE align="center"> <TR><td><input type=button name=submit onclick="javascript:submitIt()" value="submit" align="center"></td></TR> <TD> <TABLE> <DIV STYLE="display:none position:relative;"> <FORM ID="formA" NAME="formA" METHOD="post" ACTION="b.html" TARGET="_blank"> <INPUT TYPE="hidden" NAME=aInput VALUE="1294457296"> </FORM> </DIV> </TABLE> </TD> </TABLE></BODY></HTML> and here's the javascript: <script language="Javascript"> function submitIt() { oForm = document.getElementById("formA"); strRequest = "<HTML><BODY>" + oForm.parentNode.innerHTML + "</BODY></HTML>"; newDoc = window.open("", "", ""); newDoc.document.write(strRequest); } Problem is when you click submit button in this html page, you'll get a new html with source: <HTML><BODY><form id="formA" name="formA" method="post" action="b.html" target="_blank"></form> <input name="aInput" value="1294457296" type="hidden"> </BODY></HTML> but it's supposed to be <HTML><BODY><form id="formA" name="formA" method="post" action="b.html" target="_blank"> <input name="aInput" value="1294457296" type="hidden"></form> </BODY></HTML> Could anyone please help please? it will be really appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Defining an implementation independent version of the global object in JavaScript

    - by Aadit M Shah
    I'm trying to define the global object in JavaScript in a single line as follows: var global = this.global || this; The above statement is in the global scope. Hence in browsers the this pointer is an alias for the window object. Assuming that it's the first line of JavaScript to be executed in the context of the current web page, the value of global will always be the same as that of the this pointer or the window object. In CommonJS implementations, such as RingoJS and node.js the this pointer points to the current ModuleScope. However, we can access the global object through the property global defined on the ModuleScope. Hence we can access it via the this.global property. Hence this code snippet works in all browsers and in at least RingoJS and node.js, but I have not tested other CommomJS implementations. Thus I would like to know if this code will not yield correct results when run on any other CommonJS implementation, and if so how I may fix it. Eventually, I intend to use it in a lambda expression for my implementation independent JavaScript framework as follows (idea from jQuery): (function (global) { // javascript framework })(this.global || this);

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  • Writing a JavaScript zip code validation function

    - by mkoryak
    I would like to write a JavaScript function that validates a zip code, by checking if the zip code actually exists. Here is a list of all zip codes: http://www.census.gov/tiger/tms/gazetteer/zips.txt (I only care about the 2nd column) This is really a compression problem. I would like to do this for fun. OK, now that's out of the way, here is a list of optimizations over a straight hashtable that I can think of, feel free to add anything I have not thought of: Break zipcode into 2 parts, first 2 digits and last 3 digits. Make a giant if-else statement first checking the first 2 digits, then checking ranges within the last 3 digits. Or, covert the zips into hex, and see if I can do the same thing using smaller groups. Find out if within the range of all valid zip codes there are more valid zip codes vs invalid zip codes. Write the above code targeting the smaller group. Break up the hash into separate files, and load them via Ajax as user types in the zipcode. So perhaps break into 2 parts, first for first 2 digits, second for last 3. Lastly, I plan to generate the JavaScript files using another program, not by hand. Edit: performance matters here. I do want to use this, if it doesn't suck. Performance of the JavaScript code execution + download time. Edit 2: JavaScript only solutions please. I don't have access to the application server, plus, that would make this into a whole other problem =)

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  • Accessing functions in a swf-file through javascript [chatroulette.com]

    - by RadiantHeart
    Lately I have been interested in the code behind chatroulette.com. As you probably know it is a peer-to-peer webcam-chat-service written in actionscript, as I understand. What i have been wondering about is weather its possible to extract the ip-address of whomever you are currently communicating with. I have seen services that do that, but they require that you install a program that runs alongside on your computer sniffing UDP-packages. I was wondering if there was a simpler method. What I do know is that the javascript on the page communicates with the application via "ExternalInterface". On this area I am pretty much a novice but according to my limited understanding you cant get information from the flash-application unless you have configured a listener for a call from javascript and then attach a callback to that event. Is this correct or can you access public functions and variables directly through javascript? There is for example a public function like this: public function get outgoingAddress():String{ return (this.__info.outgoingAddress); } Can it be accessed directly through javascript? If it cant be done so easily, is it possible to decompile the .swf-file, change it (add some functions) and recompile it and run it instead? I am hoping someone can satisfy my curiosity here. Here are two links to a decompiled version of the swf-file. The first with line numbering and one without. With line numbering ˜ 3.5 Mbyte Without line numbering ˜ 2.1 Mbyte

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  • Redeclared javascript global variable overrides old value in IE

    - by Yousuf Haider
    (creating a separate question after comments on this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2634410/javascript-redeclared-global-variable-overrides-old-value) I am creating a globally scoped variable using the square bracket notation and assigning it a value inside an external js file. In another js file I declare a var with the same name as the one I just created above. Note I am not assigning a value. Since this is a redeclaration of the same variable the old value should not be overriden as described here: http://www.w3schools.com/js/js_variables.asp Create 2 javascript files with the following content : Script1 //create global variable with square bracket notation window['y'] = 'old'; Script2 //redeclaration of the same variable var y; if (!y) y = 'new'; alert(y); //shows New instead of Old in IE Include these 2 files in your html file <html> <head></head> <body> <script type="text/javascript" src="my.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="my2.js"></script> </body> </html> Opening this page in Firefox and Chrome alerts 'old' which is the expected behavior. However in IE 8 the page will actually alert 'new' Any ideas on why this happens on IE ?

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  • html select execute javascript onload

    - by portoalet
    I am using HTML select onchange event to fire another javascript function func1. This html select is written into a form element, which are dynamically generated when users click on a button. The problem is how can I fire the javascript func1 when the dynamically generated form is first shown ? I am thinking of something along the line of on_first_show event for form ? Here is the snippet. I couldnt get the alert('don') to work either (the one just after div) var sPopupContents = "<div ><script type='text/javascript'>alert('don');</script> </div>"; // this javascript is not executed ? I cant get the alert. sPopupContents += "<form name='theform' >"; sPopupContents += "<select name='theselect' onchange='alert(2);"; sPopupContents += "func1()>'"; sPopupContents += "<option value='0' selected='selected'>Value1</option><option value='1'>Value2</option><br/>"; sPopupContents += "</form>";

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  • Counting string length in javascript and Ruby on Rails

    - by williamjones
    I've got a text area on a web site that should be limited in length. I'm allowing users to enter 255 characters, and am enforcing that limit with a Rails validation: validates_length_of :body, :maximum => 255 At the same time, I added a javascript char counter like you see on Twitter, to give feedback to the user on how many characters he has already used, and to disable the submit button when over length, and am getting that length in Javascript with a call like this: element.length Lastly, to enforce data integrity, in my Postgres database, I have created this field as a varchar(255) as a last line of defense. Unfortunately, these methods of counting characters do not appear to be directly compatible. Javascript counts the best, in that it counts what users consider as number of characters where everything is a single character. Once the submission hits Rails, however, all of the carriage returns have been converted to \r\n, now taking up 2 characters worth of space, which makes a close call fail Rails validations. Even if I were to handcode a different length validation in Rails, it would still fail when it hits the database I think, though I haven't confirmed this yet. What's the best way for me to make all this work the way the user would want? Best Solution: an approach that would enable me to meet user expectations, where each character of any type is only one character. If this means increasing the length of the varchar database field, a user should not be able to sneakily send a hand-crafted post that creates a row with more than 255 letters. Somewhat Acceptable Solution: a javascript change that enables the user to see the real character count, such that hitting return increments the counter 2 characters at a time, while properly handling all symbols that might have these strange behaviors.

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  • can javascript process binary data?

    - by Johnny
    admit me describe my questions in situation-oriented way: assume IE is still the dominate web browser(the firefox have document for binary processing): the XMLHttpRequest.responseText or XMLHttpRequest.responseXML in ie desire txt or xml/xhtml/html,but what about the server response the xmlHttprequest whith MIME TYPE application/octet ? would the response string all little than 256 ?(every char of that string < 256), thanks very much for a straight answer, i have no webserver env,so i don't know how to test it out. because use txt or xml have a issue of character set encode, and i don't know how to process #[[[CDDATA node of one encoded xml(ex : utf-8,ascii,gb18030) with javascript, when i getNodeText, does the docObj return me byte or decoded char ? if it was decoded char which according to the header indicated charSet in the httpresponse , it would be all wrong. to avoid mess up with charSet ,i would like the server to response octet data and force strings data to be encoded as utf-8 but another charSet in the binary format. if the response is octal, so i guess the browser would not try to decode the response"txt" does this weird? or miss understanding the fundamental things? EDIT: I believe the question is asking this: Can Javascript safely process strings that aren't encoded in Unicode? What are the problems with trying to do so? EDIT: no no no , i means if http-header: content-type is "application/octet" , would the ie try to decoded it as (16bits Unicode | ie local setting charset ) when i get XMLHttpRequestobj.responseText use javascript ? or it(ie) just wrap every single byte of the response body as a javascript string, then every char in that string little than or equal 256 (char<=256), am i talking Mars language? sadly, if i were Marsizen,i would come as tourist without fuzzy questions. however i am in a country which share at least one property with Mars : RED

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  • PHP/Javascript limiting amount of checkboxes

    - by Carl294
    Hi everyone Im trying to limit the amount of checkboxes that can be checked, in this case only 3 can be checked. When using plain HTML this works fine. The code can be seen below. HTML example <td ><input type=checkbox name=ckb value=2 onclick='chkcontrol()';></td><td>Perl</td> Javascript Function <script type="text/javascript"> function chkcontrol(j) { var total=0; for(var i=0; i < document.form1.ckb.length; i++){ if(document.form1.ckb[i].checked){ total =total +1;} if(total > 3){ alert("Please Select only three") document.form1.ckb[j].checked = false; return false; } } } </script> The problem appears when replacing the fixed HTML values with values from a MYSQL database. All the information appears correctly, and can be posted to another page via a submit button. However, it seems like the 'value' assigned to each record from the database is not making its way too the javascript function. <td><input name="checkbox[]" type="checkbox" value="<?php echo $rows['TCA_QID'];?>" onclick="chkcontrol();"></td> I have tried changed the name in the javascript function to match the 'checkbox' name.Any advice would be greatly appreciated Thanks

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  • Javascript problem with iframe that's hidden before loaded

    - by Aistina
    I have a page that contains an iframe that gets loaded using Javascript: index.html <iframe id="myFrame" width="800" height="600" style="display: none;"></iframe> <div id="loader"><!-- some loading indicator --></div> <script type="text/javascript"> function someFunction() { var myFrame = document.getElementById('myFrame'); var loader = document.getElementById('loader'); loader.style.display = 'block'; myFrame.src = 'myFrame.html'; myFrame.onload = function() { myFrame.style.display = 'block'; loader.style.display = 'none'; }; } </script> The page that gets loaded in the iframe contains some Javascript logic which calculates the sizes of certain elements for the purposes of adding a JS driven scrollbar (jScrollPane + jQuery Dimensions). myFrame.html <div id="scrollingElement" style="overflow: auto;"> <div id="several"></div> <div id="child"></div> <div id="elements"></div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).load(function() { $('#scrollingElement').jScrollPane(); }); </script> This works in Chrome (and probably other Webkit browsers), but fails in Firefox and IE because at the time jScrollPane gets called, all the elements are still invisble and jQuery Dimensions is unable to determine any element's dimensions. Is there a way to make sure my iframe is visible before $(document).ready(...) gets called? Other than using setTimeout to delay jScrollPane, which is something I definitely want to avoid.

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  • Trigger JavaScript action after Datatable is loaded

    - by perissf
    In a JSF 2.1 + PrimeFaces 3.2 web application, I need to trigger a JavaScript function after a p:dataTable is loaded. I know that there is no such event in this component, so I have to find a workaround. In order to better understand the scenario, on page load the dataTable is not rendered. It is rendered after a successful login: <p:commandButton value="Login" update=":aComponentHoldingMyDataTable" action="#{loginBean.login}" oncomplete="handleLoginRequest(xhr, status, args)"/> As you can see from the above code, I have a JavaScript hook after the successful login, if it can be of any help. Immediately after the oncomplete action has finished, the update attribute renders the dataTable: <p:dataTable var="person" value="#{myBean.lazyModel}" rendered="#{p:userPrincipal() != null}" /> After the datatable is loaded, I need to run a JavaScript function on each row item, in order to subscribe to a cometD topic. In theory I could use the oncomplete attribute of the login Button for triggering a property from myBean in order to retrieve once again the values to be displayed in the dataTable, but it doesn't seem very elegant. The JavaScript function should do something with the rowKey of each row of the dataTable: function javaScriptFunctionToBeTriggered(rowKey) { // do something }

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  • Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

    - by Ian
    Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

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  • Calling a javascript function from an aspx.cs code behind

    - by David Hodgson
    Hi, I would like to call a javascript function from an aspx control. For instance, suppose I had: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript"> function test(x, y) { } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" onclick="Button1_Click"/> </div> </form> </body> </html> and in the code behind: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // do stuff (really going to a database to fill x and y) int[] x = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; int[] y = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; // call javascript function as test(x,y); } Is there a way to do it? DUPLICATE:calling-a-javascript-function-at-the-end-of-button-click-code-behind

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  • Why is my JavaScript function "a" not defined?

    - by 4l3x
    When I call my JavaScript function B, the javascript console in firefox said that function A is not defined, but on chrome browser if defined. And when I call function "A" in body segment: <input type="button" onclick="A()" value=" ..A.. "> , firefox said that function B is not defined? :S <html> <head> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function B(){ alert(" hi B "); document.write('<br><br><input type="button" onClick="A()" value=" ..A..">'); }; function A(){ alert(" hi A"); document.write('<br><br><input type="button" onclick="B()" value=" ..b..">'); if (window.WebCL == undefined) { alert("Unfortunately your system does not support WebCL. "); return false; } } </script> </head> <body> <input type="button" onclick="B()" value=" ..B.. "> </body> </html>

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  • JavaScript doesn't parse when mod-rewrited through a PHP file?

    - by Newbtophp
    If I do the following (this is the actual/direct path to the JavaScript file): <script href="http://localhost/tpl/blue/js/functions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> It works fine, and the JavaScript parses - as its meant too. However I'm wanting to shorten the path to the JavaScript file (aswell as do some caching) which is why I'm rewriting all JavaScript files via .htaccess to cache.php (which handles the caching). The .htaccess contains the following: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^js/(.+?\.js)$ cache.php?file=$1 [NC] </IfModule> cache.php contains the following PHP code: <?php if (extension_loaded('zlib')) { ob_start('ob_gzhandler'); } $file = basename($_GET['file']); if (file_exists("tpl/blue/js/".$file)) { header("Content-Type: application/javascript"); header('Cache-Control: must-revalidate'); header('Expires: ' . gmdate('D, d M Y H:i:s', time() + 3600) . ' GMT'); echo file_get_contents("tpl/blue/js/".$file); } ?> and I'm calling the JavaScript file like so: <script href="http://localhost/js/functions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> But doing that the JavaScript doesn't parse? (if I call the functions which are within functions.js later on in the page they don't work) - so theirs a problem either with cache.php or the rewrite rule? (because the file by itself works fine). If I access the rewrited file- http://localhost/js/functions.js directly it prints the JavaScript code, as any JavaScript file would - so I'm confused as to what I'm doing wrong... All help is appreciated! :)

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  • Login form validation using javascript and php

    - by ipl
    Hi, I have been trying to create a login form using javascript.My login form needs to do the fllowing using javascript validation 1.login field contains only letters with a minimum of 4 and a maximum of 6 letters 2.password is at least 5 characters long and not more than 7 characters and contains only letters and digits with at least 1 letter and at least 1 digit 3.if the data is incorrect, generate an alert window with an appropriate message and set the cursor to the incorrect input field and the form needs to be submitted to a php file which needs to validate against a text file I tried to use regular expression to check for the login fiels and password in the javascript and i have used a login .php but havent done anything in that till now.However my javascript/html file which i have pasted below doesnt seem to work.Can anyone tell me the issue with my file? Rgds ip function validateFormOnSubmit(theForm) { reason += validateUsername(theForm.username.value) reason += validatePassword (theForm.pwd.value) if (reason == "") return true else { alert(reason); return false } } function validateUsername(fld) { if (fld == "") return "No username entered" else if((fld.length 6) || (fld.length 7 ) { return "length shoild be b/w 4 and 7"; } else if (!/[a-z]/.test(fld) || !/[A-Z]/.test(fld) || !/[0-9]/.test(fld)){ return "passwords rewuire one of the letters or digitys"; } } SignupForm Your user name: Your Password:    

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  • AJAX UpdatePanel.Visible Property not working with Javascript

    - by Ahmet Altun
    I have code below. I want to hide the update panel by using Javascript (without going to server) when the user clicks Hide button. Although javascript funciton seems to be working fine in debugging, it does not hide! <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" % <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function Show() { document.getElementById("UpdatePanel1").Visible = true; } function Hide() { document.getElementById("UpdatePanel1").Visible = false; } </script> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:Button ID="btnShow" runat="server" Text="Show" OnClientClick="Show(); return false;" /> <asp:Button ID="BtnHide" runat="server" Text="Hide" OnClientClick="Hide(); return false;" /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <br /> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" TextMode="MultiLine"></asp:TextBox> <br /> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" Text="Gönder" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" /> <br /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> </form>

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  • Loading Javascript through an AJAX load through jQuery??

    - by Jason Axelrod
    I have an javascript that I place into a page using the code below. What the code does is place an object/embed code into a webpage. Simple javascript loader to a NicoVideo movie <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ext.nicovideo.jp/thumb_watch/sm13154955?w=640&h=395"></script> This works great in a webpage. But what if I want to load this javascript into a page using AJAX? This no longer works for the obvious reasons, you would need to eval the script in order to get it to run. However, I have no idea how to do this. I am using jQuery on my page; so keep that in mind. I have tried the following code, but it doesn't seem to work through AJAX, or even in a normal page load environment. <script>$.getScript("http://ext.nicovideo.jp/thumb_watch/sm13154955?w=640&h=395");</script> Any ideas on how I would get this to work?

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  • Passing Object From Controller to JavaScript JQuery

    - by TMan
    This is driving me crazy. All I'm trying to do is to pass in a Id to a ActionMethod which is working and have an Object be returned to the javascript. Then in javascript, I want to be able to say something like..Objec.Property, ie/ Student.Name, or Student.GPA. Any help is appreciated. I tried json but couldn't get that to work either. ActionResult: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public Epic GetEpicPropertyDetails(int id) { var Epictemplist = epicRepository.Select().Where(x => x.Id.Equals(id)); return Epictemplist.SingleOrDefault(); } javascript: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".ListBoxClass").click(function (event) { var selectedid = $(this).find("option:selected").val(); event.preventDefault(); $.get("/Estimate/GetEpicPropertyDetails", { id: selectedid }, function (result) { $(".TimeClass").val(result); }); }); }); </script> result.Name is obviously wrong I just dont know how to call this the right way.

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  • Javascript function with PHP throwing a "Illegally Formed XML Syntax" error

    - by Joe
    I'm trying to learn some javascript and i'm having trouble figuring out why my code is incorrect (i'm sure i'm doing something wrong lol), but anyways I am trying to create a login page so that when the form is submitted javascript will call a function that checks if the login is in a mysql database and then checks the validity of the password for the user if they exist. however I am getting an error (Illegally Formed XML Syntax) i cannot resolve. I'm really confused, mostly because netbeans is saying it is a xml syntax error and i'm not using xml. here is the code in question: function validateLogin(login){ login.addEventListener("input", function() { $value = login.value; if (<?php //connect to mysql mysql_connect(host, user, pass) or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Connected.');"); echo("</script>"); //select db mysql_select_db() or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Database Selected.');"); echo("</script>"); //query $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM logins") or die(mysql_error()); //check results against given login while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)){ if($row[login] == $value){ echo("true"); exit(0); } } echo("false"); exit(0); ?>) { login.setCustomValidity("Invalid Login. Please Click 'Register' Below.") } else { login.setCustomValidity("") } }); } the code is in an external js file and the error throws on the last line. Also from reading i understand best practices is to not mix js and php so how would i got about separating them but maintaining the functionality i need? thanks!

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  • ASP.NET javascript embed in template column

    - by Mahesh
    Hi, I am developing a web page in which a rad grid displays the list of exams. I included a template column which shows count down timer when the exam is going to expire. Code is as given below: <telerik:RadGrid ID="radGrid" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false"> <MasterTableView> <Columns> <telerik:GridTemplateColumn HeaderText="template" DataField="Date"> <ItemTemplate> <script language="JavaScript" type="text/javascript"> TargetDate = '<%# Eval("Date") %>'; BackColor = "white"; ForeColor = "black"; CountActive = true; CountStepper = -1; LeadingZero = true; DisplayFormat = "%%D%% Days, %%H%% Hours, %%M%% Minutes, %%S%% Seconds."; FinishMessage = "It is finally here!"; </script> <script language="JavaScript" src="http://scripts.hashemian.com/js/countdown.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </ItemTemplate> </telerik:GridTemplateColumn> </Columns> </MasterTableView> </telerik:RadGrid> I am giving DataTable as datasource to this grid. But my problem is , the template column is showing data only for the first record and the value taken is from the last row in the DataTable. For Ex: If I give data as given below, I can see 3 records but with only the first record displaying the counter with last value(10/10/2010 05:43 PM). 02/02/2011 01:00 AM 08/09/2010 11:00 PM 10/10/2010 05:43 PM Could you please help in this?? Thanks, Mahesh

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  • Delay PHP execution until JavaScript cookie set?

    - by Adam184
    I am trying to delay PHP execution until a cookie is set through JavaScript. The code is below, I trimmed the createCookie JavaScript function for simplicity (I've tested the function itself and it works). <?php if(!isset($_COOKIE["test"])) { ?> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { // createCookie script createCookie("test", 1, 3600); }); </script> <?php // Reload the page to ensure cookie was set if(!isset($_COOKIE["test"])) { header("Location: http://localhost/asdf.php/"); } } ?> At first I had no idea why this didn't work, however after using microtime() I figured out that the PHP after the <script> was executing before the jQuery ready function. I reduced my code significantly to show a simple version that is answerable, I am well aware that I am able to use setcookie() in PHP, the requirements for the cookie are client-side. I understand mixing PHP and JavaScript is incorrect, but any help on how to make this work (is there a PHP delay? - I tried sleep(), didn't work and didn't think it would work, since the scripts would be delayed as well) would be greatly appreciated.

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