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  • Run command remotely on Windows computer

    - by Bilal Aslam
    I have a Windows Server 2008 instance on Amazon EC2 (Amazon's cloud compute platform, which provides VMs in the cloud). It has an external IP, and I have an admin account on the box. I would like to 'bootstrap' this instance remotely i.e. I want to run commands to download, install and configure apps on it, all without having to log on even once. Also, I cannot use psexec on the source computer. I have figured out how to do this to a remote, domain-joined computer using WMI. However, I have NOT been able to do for a remote computer on EC2. Here are some specific restrictions: The remote computer is not part of my domain, hence no Kerberos The remote computer does not have a cert I trust, or vice versa I am sure I am running into to some auth/trust restriction. Is there any way I can run a single command on the remote, given that I have admin privileges? I'm not tied down to using WMI, but I do need to run a command somehow. Feels like this should be a solved problem.

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  • Dedicated server automatic backup solution

    - by Luigi
    I have a dedicated Ubuntu web server in a cloud environment, and I am looking for a nice way to do automated backups. I would like to backup some directories with web apps, and all my MySql databases. As for destination: make snapshots every two hours localy, and every six hours to a remote ftp server. Also delete backup archives older than seven days(localy + ftp), and notify on any problems by email. Now to achieve some of this functionality I use cron + shell script, and http://www.mysqldumper.net/, but really that doesn't answer my needs. Mysqldumper doesn't know automaticly about new databases, and shell script does not notify on problems. It's something I have to check out from time to time, and i don't have trust for. I googled a while, and seems like most people solve this stuff with shell scripts. Is this a method you can trust? Are there any web-gui tools, I'm missing? Maybe there is a smarter startegy for doing this? I'm a little bit confused.

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  • Run command remotely on Windows computer from C#

    - by Bilal Aslam
    I have a Windows Server 2008 instance on Amazon EC2 (Amazon's cloud compute platform, which provides VMs in the cloud). It has an external IP, and I have an admin account on the box. I would like to 'bootstrap' this instance remotely i.e. I want to run commands to download, install and configure apps on it, all without having to log on even once. Also, I cannot use psexec on the source computer. I have figured out how to do this to a remote, domain-joined computer using WMI. However, I have NOT been able to do for a remote computer on EC2. Here are some specific restrictions: 1) The remote computer is not part of my domain, hence no Kerberos 2) The remote computer does not have a cert I trust, or vice versa I am sure I am running into to some auth/trust restriction. Is there any way I can run a single command on the remote, given that I have admin privileges? I'm not tied down to using WMI, but I do need to run a command somehow. Feels like this should be a solved problem.

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  • Docs for OpenSSH CA-based certificate based authentication

    - by Zoredache
    OpenSSH 5.4 added a new method for certificate authentication (changes). * Add support for certificate authentication of users and hosts using a new, minimal OpenSSH certificate format (not X.509). Certificates contain a public key, identity information and some validity constraints and are signed with a standard SSH public key using ssh-keygen(1). CA keys may be marked as trusted in authorized_keys or via a TrustedUserCAKeys option in sshd_config(5) (for user authentication), or in known_hosts (for host authentication). Documentation for certificate support may be found in ssh-keygen(1), sshd(8) and ssh(1) and a description of the protocol extensions in PROTOCOL.certkeys. Is there any guides or documentation beyond what is mentioned in the ssh-keygen man-page? The man page covers how to generate certificate and use them, but it doesn't really seem to provide much information about the certificate authority setup. For example, can I sign the keys with an intermediate CA, and have the server trust the parent CA? This comment about the new feature seems to mean that I could setup my servers to trust the CA, then setup a method to sign keys, and then users would not have to publish their individual keys on the server. This also seems to support key expiration, which is great since getting rid of old/invalid keys is more difficult then it should be. But I am hoping to find some more documentation about describe the total configuration CA, SSH server, and SSH client settings needed to make this work.

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  • Using our own certificate authority for business email encryption

    - by LumenAlbum
    I've read the available similar questions on serverfault but I haven't quite found a definite answer to the security aspect of it - hence here's my question: I'm administrator of an office working with tax data and we want to start using certificate-based eMail encryption with our clients. Considering the prices for issued certificates by VeriSign & Co I was wondering if we couldn't issue the necessary certificates with a certificate authority of our own. I realize that they do not offer the trust hierarchy that commercial certificates do but I don't see why we would need that. Most of our clients have small businesses and only 20% of them even exchange data with us via email. So if we were to issue certificates for those 20% and our employees, that would enable us to use encrypted emails. Of course they would have to trust our certificate authority and thus once receive our public root certificate. But if we would hand them out to them (or install it) personally, they'd know that it really is our certificate. Is thery a huge security risk that I am missing here? As long as nobody has access to our certificate authority server nobody should be able to interfere with security, right? And the client certificates would be generated and handed out by us, as well... Please advise me if I am making an error in judgement here and thank you in advance.

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  • Ruckus wireless AP and Dell PowerConnect configuration problems

    - by DanielJay
    We are working on trying to get some Ruckus Access Points to work correctly on our network. Currently our network is as follows: VLAN 10 - Servers VLAN 11 – Computers/DHCP VLAN 12 – Voice VLAN 13 – Guest We use Dell PowerConnect 6248P switches for our switches. Port settings are as follows: ZoneDirector 1100 is plugged into this port. Should be accessing the server VLAN and then allowing all other traffic. interface ethernet 1/g2 classofservice trust ip-dscp description 'Ruckus ZoneDirector 1100' switchport mode general switchport general pvid 10 switchport general allowed vlan add 10 switchport general allowed vlan add 11-13 tagged exit Access point is plugged into this port. The port has to be on VLAN 11 in order to get DHCP. interface ethernet 1/g16 classofservice trust ip-dscp description 'Ruckus - IT' switchport mode general switchport general pvid 11 switchport general allowed vlan add 10-12 switchport general allowed vlan add 13 tagged exit If we tag the traffic from the SSID as VLAN 11 data fails. If we leave the SSID tagged as 1 the data flows correctly. Are there problems with passing tagged traffic to untagged ports? We are looking to see what we can do to get the SSID tagged as 11 instead of 1. Any suggestions?

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  • su not giving proper message for restricted LDAP groups

    - by user1743881
    I have configured PAM authentication on Linux box to restrict particular group only to login. I have enabled pam and ldap through authconfig and modified access.conf like below, [root@test root]# tail -1 /etc/security/access.conf - : ALL EXCEPT root test-auth : ALL Also modified sudoers file, to get su for this group <code> [root@test ~]# tail -1 /etc/sudoers %test-auth ALL=/bin/su</code> Now, only this ldap group members can login to system. However when from any of this authorized user, I tried for su, it asks for password and then though I enter correct password it gives message like Incorrect password and login failed. /var/log/secure shows that user is not having permission to get the access, but then it should print message like Access denied.The way it prints for console login. My functionality is working but its no giving proper messages. Could anyone please help on this. My /etc/pam.d/su file, [root@test root]# cat /etc/pam.d/su #%PAM-1.0 auth sufficient pam_rootok.so # Uncomment the following line to implicitly trust users in the "wheel" group. #auth sufficient pam_wheel.so trust use_uid # Uncomment the following line to require a user to be in the "wheel" group. #auth required pam_wheel.so use_uid auth include system-auth account sufficient pam_succeed_if.so uid = 0 use_uid quiet account include system-auth password include system-auth session include system-auth session optional pam_xauth.so

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  • ntpdate cannot receive data

    - by Hengjie
    I have a problem where running ntpdate on my server doesn't return any data therefore I get the following error: [root@server etc]# ntpdate -d -u -v time.nist.gov 12 Apr 01:10:09 ntpdate[32072]: ntpdate [email protected] Fri Nov 18 13:21:21 UTC 2011 (1) Looking for host time.nist.gov and service ntp host found : 24-56-178-141.co.warpdriveonline.com transmit(24.56.178.141) transmit(24.56.178.141) transmit(24.56.178.141) transmit(24.56.178.141) transmit(24.56.178.141) 24.56.178.141: Server dropped: no data server 24.56.178.141, port 123 stratum 0, precision 0, leap 00, trust 000 refid [24.56.178.141], delay 0.00000, dispersion 64.00000 transmitted 4, in filter 4 reference time: 00000000.00000000 Thu, Feb 7 2036 14:28:16.000 originate timestamp: 00000000.00000000 Thu, Feb 7 2036 14:28:16.000 transmit timestamp: d3303975.1311947c Thu, Apr 12 2012 1:10:13.074 filter delay: 0.00000 0.00000 0.00000 0.00000 0.00000 0.00000 0.00000 0.00000 filter offset: 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 delay 0.00000, dispersion 64.00000 offset 0.000000 12 Apr 01:10:14 ntpdate[32072]: no server suitable for synchronization found I have tried Googling the 'no server suitable for synchronization found' error online and I have tried disabling my firewall (running iptables -L returns no rules). I have also confirmed with my DC that there are no rules that are blocking ntp (port 123). Does anyone have any ideas on how I may fix this? Btw, this is what the output should look like on a working server in another DC: 11 Apr 19:01:24 ntpdate[725]: ntpdate [email protected] Fri Nov 18 13:21:17 UTC 2011 (1) Looking for host 184.105.192.247 and service ntp host found : 247.conarusp.net transmit(184.105.192.247) receive(184.105.192.247) transmit(184.105.192.247) receive(184.105.192.247) transmit(184.105.192.247) receive(184.105.192.247) transmit(184.105.192.247) receive(184.105.192.247) transmit(184.105.192.247) receive(184.105.192.247) transmit(184.105.192.247) server 184.105.192.247, port 123 stratum 2, precision -20, leap 00, trust 000 refid [184.105.192.247], delay 0.18044, dispersion 0.00006 transmitted 4, in filter 5 reference time: d330364e.e956694f Wed, Apr 11 2012 18:56:46.911 originate timestamp: d3303765.8702d025 Wed, Apr 11 2012 19:01:25.527 transmit timestamp: d3303765.73b213e3 Wed, Apr 11 2012 19:01:25.451 filter delay: 0.18069 0.18044 0.18045 0.18048 0.18048 0.00000 0.00000 0.00000 filter offset: -0.00195 -0.00197 -0.00211 -0.00202 -0.00202 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 delay 0.18044, dispersion 0.00006 offset -0.001970

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  • Password Authentication Fails - NTLMv2

    - by JMeterX
    Environment: Windows 2000 sp4 EDIT: Domain Controller with no trust setup with the Win2008 Server Windows XP machines Windows 2008 Server Netapp NAS Problem: We have a shared folder that resides on a NAS using a Windows 2008 AD for the authentication with the proper permissions setup. When the Windows 2000 machine tries to open the share residing on the Win2008 machine, it is prompted for a username and password. Upon entering the credentials it continuously re-asks for credentials. Important Details: The Windows 2000 machine can ping both the XP machines and the Windows 2008 Server The Windows 2008 machine is mandated to only use NTLMv2 The Windows 2000 machine was originally set to NTLM but was recently switched to NTLMv2 if negotiated for the purpose of trying to connect to the share. As I am sure it will come up, we are using Windows 2000 because of contractual obligations Questions: Why is password Authentication failing in this case? After setting a GPO for the Win2000 machine for it to use NTLMv2, do we need to reboot the machine for the changes to take affect? We used SECEDIT to update the GPOs without rebooting. UPDATE We checked both of the 2008 Domain Controllers to find an error code. We received: Microsoft_Auth_Package_V1_0 0xc000006a Event ID: 4776 I know this to be an authentication error via THIS article "The value provided as the current password is not correct" We know this password to be correct, but since these two domains (Win2000 & Win2008) do not have a trust setup what authentication account needs to be used? One that resides on the Win2000 hosted domain?

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  • Deploying ASP.NET MVC to Windows Server 2003

    - by pete the pagan-gerbil
    Hi, I have a problem with an MVC 2 website on Windows Server 2003 running IIS 6. It is externally hosted, but we have a 2003 server internally for testing. The internal server runs the website fine, the external server gives a 403 ("website declined to show this page") error when navigating to the root of the site, and a 404 if I try to navigate directly to a page resource. I have tried the wildcard ISAPI mapping and extension mapping, and a couple of other common checks (I forget exactly which now, most of them were already set correctly), but so far no joy. All the settings can be replicated on our internal server and the pages return properly. IIS logs just show exactly what the browser shows - 404 errors and 403s. I've read about a different level of trust required for an MVC application compared to a WebForms application - how can I check permissions and trust levels on the external and internal servers (assuming I am able to check that) and if that would cause these errors, what are the minimum levels that MVC require? Failing that, what else might be causing this error for me to try out?

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  • SQL Server 2008 login problem with ASP.NET application: Failed to open the explicitly specified database

    - by eulerfx
    I am running SQL Server 2008 Express Edition on Windows Server 2008 with an ASP.NET application which must access the server. The ASP.NET application is associated with an application pool that runs on the NetworkService account. This account in turn has a Login and User record on SQL Server in the required database. When I attempt to run the ASP.NET website I get a blank page and when viewed in the error log, I seem to be getting this information event record: Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE'. Reason: Failed to open the explicitly specified database. [CLIENT: myLocalMachine] The connection string has Trusted_Connection=True; and the required database specified. When I explicitly specify the user name and password I get another login error stating the password is incorrect, even though the same un/pw combination works through SQL Server Management studio. The NETWORK SERVICE account seems to have all the required privileges for the database. Also, I made a test ASP.NET website project which does a simple select from a table in that database, and using the same config file I am not getting the error and it seems to work. Is it something to do with trust levels then, because the original ASP.NET web app references various DLLs including open source libraries. Also, the application does not seem to be able to write to the event log itself, throwing a security exception, even though everything in the config files, including machine.config states the app is in full trust.

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  • What are secure ways of sharing a server (ssh+LAMP) with friends?

    - by Bran the Blessed
    What is the best way to share a virtual server with friends? More precisely, I have the following assets: A virtual private server (Debian Lenny) with root access for myself, running... SSH apache2 mysql Some unused disk space Some friends in need of hosting The problem I would now like to do the following: Hosting one or several domains per friend My friends should have full access to their domains, including running PHP scripts, for example My friends should not be able to poke around in other directories The security of my server should not be compromised by faulty PHP scripts To clarify: I do trust my friends in the sense that they are not trying to do something evil with their access. I just do not trust the programs they are going to run. So, what are your recommendations for establishing such a scenario? Partial solution I already came up with the following plan: Add chrooted SSH users for my friends Add Apache vhosts per user (point the directories to subdirectories of the homedirectories, i.e. /home/alice/example.com, /home/bob/example.net, etc. But how can I enforce a chroot-like environment for the scripts they are running within these vhosts? Any pointers would be appreciated.

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  • GPG - why am I encrypting with subkey instead of primary key?

    - by khedron
    When encrypting a file to send to a collaborator, I see this message: gpg: using subkey XXXX instead of primary key YYYY Why would that be? I've noticed that when they send me an encrypted file, it also appears to be encrypted towards my subkey instead of my primary key. For me, this doesn't appear to be a problem; gpg (1.4.x, macosx) just handles it & moves on. But for them, with their automated tool setup, this seems to be an issue, and they've requested that I be sure to use their primary key. I've tried to do some reading, and I have the Michael Lucas's "GPG & PGP" book on order, but I'm not seeing why there's this distinction. I have read that the key used for signing and the key used for encryption would be different, but I assumed that was about public vs private keys at first. In case it was a trust/validation issue, I went through the process of comparing fingerprints and verifying, yes, I trust this key. While I was doing that, I noticed the primary & subkeys had different "usage" notes: primary: usage: SCA subkey: usage: E "E" seems likely to mean "Encryption". But, I haven't been able to find any documentation on this. Moreover, my collaborator has been using these tools & techniques for some years now, so why would this only be a problem for me?

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  • Ajax comments form in ASP.NET MVC2

    - by Artiom Chilaru
    I've been playing around with different aspects of MVC for some time now, and I've reached a situation where I'm not sure what would be the best way to solve a problem. I'm hoping that the SO community will help me out here :P I've seen a number of examples of Ajax.BeginForm on the internet, and it seems like a very nifty idea. E.g. you have a dropdown where you select a customer - and on selecting one it will load this client's details in some placeholder on the page. This works perfectly fine. But what to do if you want to tie in some validation in the box? Just hypothetically, imagine an article page, and user comments in the bottom. Below the comments area there's an ajax-y "Add comment" box. When a user adds a comment, it will appear in the comments area, below the last comment there. If I set the Ajax.BeginForm to Append the result of the call to the Comments area, it will work fine. But what if the data posted is not valid? Instead of appending a "successful" comment to the comments area I have to show the user validation errors. At this point I decided that the area INSIDE the Ajax.BeginForm will be inside a partial, and the form's submits will return this partial. Validation works fine. On each submit we reload the contents inside the form element. But how to add the successful comment to the top? Other things to consider: The comment form also has a "Preview" button. When the user clicks on Preview, I should load the rendered comment into a preview box. This will probably be inside the form area as well. I was thinking of using Json results instead. When the user submits the form, the server code will generate a Json object with a Success value, and html rendered partials as some properties. Something like { "success": true, "form": "<html form data>", "comment": "successful comment html to inject into the page" } This would be a perfect solution, except there's no way in MVC to render a partial into a string, inside the controller (separation of context, remember?). So.. what should I do then? Any "correct" way to implement this?

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  • Validation does not work when I use Validator.TryValidateObject.

    - by ashraf
    DataAnnotations does not work with buddy class. The following code always validate true. Why ? var isValid = Validator.TryValidateObject(new Customer(), Context, results, true); and here is the buddy class. public partial class Customer { public string Name { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } } [MetadataType(typeof(CustomerMetaData))] public partial class Customer { public class CustomerMetaData { [Required(ErrorMessage = "You must supply a name for a customer.")] public string Name { get; set; } } } Here is another thread with same question., but no answer. link text

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  • Secondary monitor bug: a problem in WPF or in the graphics driver?

    - by emddudley
    I have discovered a strange bug with my WPF application and I am trying to determine whether it is a problem with WPF or my graphics driver so that I can report it to the appropriate company. I have a Quadro FX 1700 with the latest drivers (197.54) on a Windows XP system, running a .NET 3.5 SP1 application. I have dual monitors, and when I maximize then minimize a child window of the main window on my primary monitor, the child window gets drawn on the secondary monitor as well. It appears in both places. I made a sample application (code is below) which induces this behavior. Start the application and ensure the main window is on your primary monitor. Double-click the main window. A green child window should appear. Click the green child window to maximize. Click the green child window to minimize. Can anyone else reproduce this problem? On my system the green child restores, but then it's drawn on both my primary and secondary monitors, rather than just the primary monitor. App.xaml <Application xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" x:Class="DualMonitorBug.App" StartupUri="Shell.xaml" /> App.xaml.cs using System.Windows; namespace DualMonitorBug { public partial class App : Application { } } Shell.xaml <Window xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" x:Class="DualMonitorBug.Shell" Title="Shell" Height="480" Width="640" MouseDoubleClick="ShowDialog" /> Shell.xaml.cs using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Input; namespace DualMonitorBug { public partial class Shell : Window { public Shell() { InitializeComponent(); } private void ShowDialog(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { DialogWindow dialog = new DialogWindow(); dialog.Owner = this; dialog.Show(); } } } DialogWindow.xaml <Window xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" x:Class="DualMonitorBug.DialogWindow" Title="Dialog Window" Height="240" Width="320" AllowsTransparency="True" Background="Green" MouseLeftButtonDown="ShowHideDialog" WindowStyle="None" /> DialogWindow.xaml.cs using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Input; namespace DualMonitorBug { public partial class DialogWindow : Window { public DialogWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void ShowHideDialog(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { this.WindowState = (this.WindowState == WindowState.Normal) ? WindowState.Maximized : WindowState.Normal; } } }

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  • Jquery-UI tabs : Double loading of the default tab

    - by Stephane
    I use jqueryui-tabs to display a tabbed UI. here is how my markup looks in a MasterPage: <div id="channel-tabs" class="ui-tabs"> <ul class="ui-tabs-nav"> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Blogs", "Index", "Blog", new { query = Model.Query, lang = Model.SelectedLanguage, fromTo = Model.FromTo, filters = Model.FilterId }, new{ title="Blog Results" }) %></li> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Forums", "Index", "Forums", new { query = Model.Query, lang = Model.SelectedLanguage, fromTo = Model.FromTo, filters = Model.FilterId }, null) %></li> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Twitter", "Index", "Twitter", new { query = Model.Query, lang = Model.SelectedLanguage, fromTo = Model.FromTo, filters = Model.FilterId }, null) %></li> </ul> <div id="Blog_Results"> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="ResultPlaceHolder" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> If the content is loaded via ajax, I return a partial view with the content of the tab. If the content is loaded directly, I load a page that include the content in the ContentPlaceHolder. somewhat like this : <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="BlogPlaceHolder" runat="server"> <%=Html.Partial("Partial",Model) %> </asp:Content> //same goes for the other tabs. With this in place, if I access the url "/Forums" It loads the forum content in the Blog tab first, trigger the ajax load of the Blog tab and replace the content with the blog content. I tried putting a different placeholder for each tab, but that didn't fix everything either, since when loading "/Forums" it will sure load the forum tab, but the Blog tab will show up first. Furthermore, when using separate placeholders, If I load the "/Blogs" url, It will first load the content statically in the Blog contentplaceholder and then trigger an ajax call to load it a second time and replace it. If I just link the tab to the hashtag, then when loading the forum tabs, I won't get the blog content... How would you achieve the expected behaviour? I feel like I might have a deeper probelm in the organization of my views. Is putting the tabs in the masterpage the way to go? Maybe I should just hijax the links manually and not rely on jquery-ui tabs to do the work for me. I cannot load all tabs by default and display them using the hash tags, I need an ajax loading because it is a search process that can be long. So to sum up : /Forum should load the forum tab, and let the other tabs be loaded with an ajax call when clicking on it. /Twitter should load the twitter tab and let the other tabs.... the same goes for /Blogs and any tabs I would add later. Any idea to have this working properly?

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  • Android: Filtering a SimpleCursorAdapter ListView

    - by Diego Tori
    Right now, I'm running into issues trying to implement a FilterQueryProvider in my custom SimpleCursorAdapter, since I'm unsure of what to do in the FilterQueryProvider's runQuery function. In other words, since the query that comprises my ListView basically gets the rowID, name, and a third column from my databases's table, I want to be able to filter the cursor based on the partial value of the name column. However, I am uncertain of whether I can do this directly from runQuery without expanding my DB class since I want to filter the existing cursor, or will I have to create a new query function in my DB class that partially searches my name column, and if so, how would I go about creating the query statement while using the CharSequence constraint argument in runQuery? I am also concerned about the performance issues associated with trying to run multiple queries based on partial text since the DB table in question has about 1300-1400 rows. In other words, would I run into a bottleneck trying to filter the cursor?

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  • How can I use Functions in VB.NET that's not in App_code

    - by megatoast
    I am currently working with an IPhone API which consist of about 40 pages of aspx along with their respective aspx.vb pages. They are all partial classes because the API continues to add other phone platforms to it. Currently I have them residing just in a folder. /API/0.1 and /API/1.0 ... How would I call the functions from those IPhone API classes without having to put them in the App_code? example: I have a partial class SetTextBroadcast with a function like this Function BroadcastMessage(ByVal Brodcast_recipient() As net.pmgateway.Recipient, ByVal str_Message As String) As net.pmgateway.Reply 'code here End Function How do i use that function in a webform? or do I need to put it in App_Code? something like this is what i'm looking for. Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim objSetTextBroadCast as new SetTextBroadCast() End Sub but i get type "SetTextBroadCast" not defined. thanks for your help

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  • Anobody succeeded in using ICEFaces with jQuery?

    - by hubertg
    Basically jquery is usable with IceFaces. Then only problem arises when partial updates of the page are used. For example you have a panelgroup where a jquery datepicker element (jquery UI datepicker plugin) is used. If the panelGroup is visible from the beginning it's no problem. The jquery call to jQuery(".datepicker").datepicker finds the input and jquery can do it's magic. But if the panelGroup is shown because of a partial update of the page (because the visible propery is changed) jquery is not called again. Does anybody has a solution to this problem? Basically the idea would be that jquery is run each time the dom has changed.

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  • AjaxSubmit File Upload - Trying to get response $(document).ready() to fire

    - by ncyankee
    I'm using the jquery form plugin (http://malsup.com/jquery/form/) to upload a file via ajax which is processed in the background. The upload is working correctly, and I am using ASP.Net MVC to return a partial view which contains a $(document).ready call to setup a 'timer' to check on the status of the upload file's processing status. When I return the partial view which contains a script block wit ha $(document).ready call, it is never fired, therefore the 'timer' to check for the status of the upload is never started. When I do this via a regular $.post call (without upload) the function fires correctly after the html is loaded into the DOM. Is there anything else I need to do when calling the ajaxSubmit function to get this to fire? Just a sample bit of code: $('form').live('submit', function () { $(this).ajaxSubmit({ success: function (data) { $('#statusDiv').html(data); } }); return false; });

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  • Merge items in nanoc

    - by Gordon Potter
    I have been trying to use nanoc for generating a static website. I need to organize a complex arrangement pages I want to keep my content DRY. How does the concept of includes or merges work within the nanoc system? I have read the docs but I can't seem to find what I want. For example: how can I take two partial content items and merge them together into a new content item. In staticmatic you can do some like the following inside your page. = partial('partials/shared/navigation') How would a similar convention work within nanoc?

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  • Ajax comments form in ASP.NET MVC2, howto?

    - by Artiom Chilaru
    I've been playing around with different aspects of MVC for some time now, and I've reached a situation where I'm not sure what would be the best way to solve a problem. I'm hoping that the SO community will help me out here :P I've seen a number of examples of Ajax.BeginForm on the internet, and it seems like a very nifty idea. E.g. you have a dropdown where you select a customer - and on selecting one it will load this client's details in some placeholder on the page. This works perfectly fine. But what to do if you want to tie in some validation in the box? Just hypothetically, imagine an article page, and user comments in the bottom. Below the comments area there's an ajax-y "Add comment" box. When a user adds a comment, it will appear in the comments area, below the last comment there. If I set the Ajax.BeginForm to Append the result of the call to the Comments area, it will work fine. But what if the data posted is not valid? Instead of appending a "successful" comment to the comments area I have to show the user validation errors. At this point I decided that the area INSIDE the Ajax.BeginForm will be inside a partial, and the form's submits will return this partial. Validation works fine. On each submit we reload the contents inside the form element. But how to add the successful comment to the top? Other things to consider: The comment form also has a "Preview" button. When the user clicks on Preview, I should load the rendered comment into a preview box. This will probably be inside the form area as well. I was thinking of using Json results instead. When the user submits the form, the server code will generate a Json object with a Success value, and html rendered partials as some properties. Something like { "success": true, "form": "<html form data>", "comment": "successful comment html to inject into the page" } This would be a perfect solution, except there's no way in MVC to render a partial into a string, inside the controller (separation of context, remember?). So.. what should I do then? Any "correct" way to implement this? Anyone???

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  • Using DataAnnotations with Entity Framework

    - by dcompiled
    I have used the Entity Framework with VS2010 to create a simple person class with properties, firstName, lastName, and email. If I want to attach DataAnnotations like as is done in this blog post I have a small problem because my person class is dynamically generated. I could edit the dynamically generated code directly but any time I have to update my model all my validation code would get wiped out. First instinct was to create a partial class and try to attach annotations but it complains that I'm trying to redefine the property. I'm not sure if you can make property declarations in C# like function declarations in C++. If you could that might be the answer. Here's a snippet of what I tried: namespace PersonWeb.Models { public partial class Person { [RegularExpression(@"(\w|\.)+@(\w|\.)+", ErrorMessage = "Email is invalid")] public string Email { get; set; } /* ERROR: The type 'Person' already contains a definition for 'Email' */ } }

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  • finding a string of random characters (with possible errors) within a large string of random charact

    - by mike
    I am trying to search a large string w/o spaces for a smaller string of characters. using regex I can easily find perfect matches but I can't figure out how to find partial matches. by partial matches i mean one or two extra characters in the string or one or two characters that have been changed, or one of each. the first and last characters will always match though. this would be similar to a spell checker but there are no spaces and the strings dont contain actual words, just random hex digits. i figured a way to find the string if there are no extra characters using indexOf(string.charAt(0)) and indexOf(charAt(string.length()-1) and looping through the characters between the two indexes. but this can be problematic when dealing with randomized characters because of the possibility of finding the first and last characters at the correct spacing but none of the middle characters matching. i've been scratching my head for hours on this issue. any ideas?

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