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• What do I do about a Java program that spawned two instaces of itself?

  - by user288915

  I have a java JAR file that is triggered by a SQL server job. It's been running successfully for months. The process pulls in a structured flat file to a staging database then pushes that data into an XML file. However yesterday the process was triggered twice at the same time. I can tell from a log file that gets created, it looks like the process ran twice simultaneously. This caused a lot of issues and the XML file that it kicked out was malformed and contained duplicate nodes etc. My question is, is this a known issue with Java JVM's spawning multiple instances of itself? Or should I be looking at sql server as the culprit? I'm looking into 'socket locking' or file locking to prevent multiple instances in the future. This is the first instance of this issue that I've ever heard of. More info: The job is scheduled to run every minute. The job triggers a .bat file that contains the java.exe - jar filename.jar The java program runs, scans a directory for a file and then executes a loop to process if the file if it finds one. After it processes the file it runs another loop that kicks out XML messages. I can provide code samples if that would help. Thank you, Kevin

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• issue with keychain and updates from app store

  - by xonegirlz

  I am having a very frustrating error. I have tested for an app upgrade by first installing the previous version (1.0.1) and then running version (1.0.2). Everything worked fine. I submitted the app and then I am getting issues people are getting crashes when they upgrade. I tried doing the same thing, which is installing the 1.0.1 and then install the binary on the app store, then it crashed. I looked at the console and crash logs and I get this: Jul 7 08:07:45 unknown MyApp[1429] <Warning>: KeychainUtils keychainValueForKey: - Error finding keychain value for key. Status code = -25300 Jul 7 08:07:45 unknown MyApp[1429] <Warning>: AccountSession readUserDataFromDisk - Error finding keychain value for key /var/mobile/Applications/997B32E7-6FFC-4696-9CAA-129BADE2FE64/Documents/instagram_json Jul 7 08:07:45 unknown MyApp[1429] <Warning>: UISegmentedControlStyleBezeled is deprecated. Please use a different style. Jul 7 08:07:45 unknown MyApp[1429] <Error>: *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '-[__NSCFDictionary setObject:forKey:]: attempt to insert nil value (key: username)' *** First throw call stack: (0x33ee688f 0x367e7259 0x33ee6789 0x33ee67ab 0x33e5368b 0x14fd99 0x152319 0x1530bb 0x170299 0x3270ec59 0x32711817 0x354e7dfb 0x354e7cd0) Jul 7 08:07:45 unknown UIKitApplication:com.firesnakelabs.pinstagram[0x14e4][1429] <Notice>: terminate called throwing an exception >

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• Preview of code-only WPF controls in VS2010 - how?

  - by Christian

  Hi, I hope I am able to illustrate the problem using a lot of images. First of all, I was no real fan of XAML (Silverlight issues, crashes in Preview, and so on...) Now, with VS2010 the situation has become better. There are still a lot of things I like better in code, but I also want a preview in my VS. So, take a look at the following control: It is really simple, a todo details list. The first screenshot shows the code of the control, pretty straighforward: There is no XAML, so obviously no preview. Of course, I could encapsulate it in another control, like shown in the next screenshot: But, in that case I have an additional file I do not want or need. So I had the idea to move the init stuff inside the contructor of a XAML control. For simplicity, I used simple elements. But they do not show up in the preview... Finally, I know I could use the controls in other parts of my app when creating UIs. But I am using layout manager, PRISM and a lot of other stuff, so I just want an easy preview of some specific control I created (without having to have a XAML wrapper file for each control) Thanks for help, and sorry for the post structure, but I though with images it is better to understand... Chris

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• Problem deleting .svn directories on Windows XP

  - by John L

  I don't seem to have this problem on my home laptop with Windows XP, but then I don't do much work there. On my work laptop, with Windows XP, I have a problem deleting directories when it has directories that contain .svn directories. When it does eventually work, I have the same issue emptying the Recycle bin. The pop-up window says "Cannot remove folder text-base: The directory is not empty" or prop-base or other folder under .svn This continued to happen after I changed config of TortoiseSVN to stop the TSVN cache process from running and after a reboot of the system. Multiple tries will eventually get it done. But it is a huge annoyance because there are other issues I'm trying to fix, so I'm hoping it is related. 'Connected Backup PC' also runs on the laptop and the real problem is that cygwin commands don't always work. So I keep thinking the dot files and dot directories have something to do with both problems and/or the backup or other process scanning the directories is doing it. But I've run out of ideas of what to try or how to identify the problem further.

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• How are table headers supposed to be used?

  - by stevebot

  Hi, Recently I saw some code like this: <tr> <th> Some label: </th> <td> <input type="text" value=""/> </td> <th> Another label: </th> <td> <input type="text" value=""/> </td> </tr> I am used to table headers being used like <tr> <th> Some label: </th> <th> Another label: </th> </tr> <tr> <td> <input type="text" value=""/> </td> <td> <input type="text" value=""/> </td> </tr> How are table headers supposed to be used? The first example above, lead me to some pretty funky formatting issues, and it seems like in example 1 <label> should be used in place of <th>.

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• jQuery logic firing twice from a Usercontrol when used in a jQueryUI modal dialog

  - by AaronS

  I have an asp.net usercontrol that I'm using to put a bunch of HTML and Jquery logic into to be shared on several pages. This usercontrol has some dropdown boxes loaded from json calls and has no added codebehind logic. When I use this usercontrol on a normal page it works perfectly fine, and no issues at all. However, when I wrap the usercontrol in a div, and use a jqueryUI modal dialog, everything in the usercontrol fires twice. Not only code in the initial $(document).ready(function() {});, but also every function is also fired twice when called. Debugging this in Visual Studio, I see that everything is first being called from the external JS file, and then again from a "script block" file that is somehow getting generated on the fly. This script block file isn't getting generated on a page that doesn't wrap the user control in a modal. The same happens if I use IISExpress or IIS7. The question is, why is this script block file getting created, and why is all my jQuery logic firing twice? --edit-- Here is the div: <div id="divMyDiv" title="MyDiv"> <uc1:MyUserControl runat="server" ID="MyUsercontrol" /> </div> Here is the modal logic that uses it: $("#divMyDiv").dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 400, width: 400, modal: true, open: function (type, data) { $(this).parent().appendTo("form"); } }); Note: The problm still occurs, even if I remove the "open:" function. But, it does not occur if I remove the entire dialog block, so it is specific to this dialog call.

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• Always send certain values with an ajax request/post

  - by DZittersteyn

  I'm building a system that displays a list of user, and on selection of a user requests some form of password. These values are saved in a hidden field on the page, and need to be sent with every request as a form of authentication. (I'm aware of the MITM-vulnerability that lies herein, but it's a very low-key system, so security is not a large concern). Now I need to send these values with each and every request, to auth the currently 'logged in' user. I'd like to automate this, via ajaxSetup, however i'm running into some issues. My first try was: init_user_auth: function(){ $.ajaxSetup({ data: { 'user' : site_user.selected_user_id(), 'passcode': site_user.selected_user_pc(), 'barcode' : site_user.selected_user_bc() } }); }, However, as I should have known, this reads the values once, at the time of the call to ajaxSetup, and never rereads them. What I need is a way to actually call the functions every time an ajax-call is made. I'm currently trying to understand what is happening here: https://groups.google.com/forum/?fromgroups=#!topic/jquery-dev/OBcEfgvTJ9I, however through the flamewar and very low-level stuff going on there, I'm not exactly sure I get what is going on. Is this the way to proceed, or should I just face facts and manually add login-info to each ajax-call?

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• [c++] accessing the hidden 'this' pointer

  - by Kyle

  I have a GUI architecture wherein elements fire events like so: guiManager->fireEvent(BUTTON_CLICKED, this); Every single event fired passes 'this' as the caller of the event. There is never a time I dont want to pass 'this', and further, no pointer except for 'this' should ever be passed. This brings me to a problem: How can I assert that fireEvent is never given a pointer other than 'this', and how can I simplify (and homogenize) calls to fireEvent to just: guiManager->fireEvent(BUTTON_CLICKED); At this point, I'm reminded of a fairly common compiler error when you write something like this: class A { public: void foo() {} }; class B { void oops() { const A* a = new A; a->foo(); } }; int main() { return 0; } Compiling this will give you ../src/sandbox.cpp: In member function ‘void B::oops()’: ../src/sandbox.cpp:7: error: passing ‘const A’ as ‘this’ argument of ‘void A::foo()’ discards qualifiers because member functions pass 'this' as a hidden parameter. "Aha!" I say. This (no pun intended) is exactly what I want. If I could somehow access the hidden 'this' pointer, it would solve both issues I mentioned earlier. The problem is, as far as I know you can't (can you?) and if you could, there would be outcries of "but it would break encapsulation!" Except I'm already passing 'this' every time, so what more could it break. So, is there a way to access the hidden 'this', and if not are there any idioms or alternative approaches that are more elegant than passing 'this' every time?

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• Exclude category from main RSS feed, but not all feeds

  - by jamEs

  I've got a blog that supplies content to multiple MailChimp newsletters via RSS. The first newsletter works fine, but the second I'm having issues with. The issue I have is that the second newsletter has "hidden" content. This content isn't meant for wide consumption, so it doesn't appear on the frontpage, but is accessible elsewhere on the site. The snafu with this is that not all of this content is hidden, just some of it, while other pieces of content for this newsletter could overlap with the first newsletter. This obviously makes excluding everything problematic, as they could be assigned multiple categories, some of which I wouldn't want hidden. The issue I'm running into is that I have a way to exclude this content from the frontpage, but not from the main RSS feed. I'm using WP Hide Post for this, which allows me to exclude from feed, which in turn removes it from all feeds, including the ones that feed the newsletter. I'm currently using /feed?cat=XXX to reference these feeds. Is there a way to make it so category feeds still work, just the main /feed RSS would exclude it?

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• To NOLOCK or NOT to NOLOCK, that is the question

  - by Limey

  Hi all, This is really more of a discussion than a specific question about nolock. I took over an app recently that almost every query (and there are lots of them) has the nolock option on them. Now I am pretty new to SQL server (used Oracle for 10 years) but yet I find this pretty disturbing. So this weekend I was talking with one of my friends who runs a rather large ecommerce site (name will be withheld to protect the guilty) and he says he has to do this with all of his SQL servers cause he will always end in deadlocks. Is this just a huge short fall with SQL server? Is this just a failure in the DB design (mine is not 3rd level, but its close) Is anybody out there running an SQL server app without nolocks? These are issues that Oracle handles better with more grandulare recordlocks. Is SQL server just not able to handle big loads? Is there some better workaround than reading uncommited data? I would love to hear what people think. Thanks

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• Are reads and (transactional) writes faster for entities of the same group than otherwise?

  - by indiehacker

  What advantage is there to designing child-parent relationships, which allow us to do writes in transactions, when there is never a real concern for consistency and contention and those sort of more complex issues? Does it make writes and reads faster? Consider my situation where there are many .png images that are referenced to one mosaic layer, and these .png images are written just once by a single user. The user can design many mosaic layers and her mosaic layers and referenced image entities are never changed/updated, they are just deleted some time in the future. Other users can come to the web project site and interactively view the mosaic layer as different layouts/configurations of the images as they play (query) with different criteria. So reads should be very fast. So there is no real worry of contention, or users conflicting with one another with writing new image entities. And because of that I am assuming there is no "requirement" for the .png image entities to be grouped by their same mosaic layer in child-parent relationship. However, perhaps, since the documentation says they are stored close to one another, if the many image entities were grouped as children to a single mosaic layer parent than this has the advantage that the writing (in transaction) and reading will happen much faster?

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• linux bash script: set date/time variable to auto-update (for inclusion in file names)

  - by user1859492

  Essentially, I have a standard format for file naming conventions. It breaks down to this: target_dateUTC_timeUTC_tool So, for instance, if I run tcpdump on a target of 'foo', then the file would be foo_dateUTC_timeUTC_tcpdump. Simple enough, but a pain for everyone to constantly (and consistently) enter... so I've tried to create a bash script which sets system variables like so: FILENAME=$TARGET\_$UTCTIME\_$TOOL Then, I can just call the variable at runtime, like so: tcpdump -w $FILENAME.lpc All of this works like a champ. I've got a menu-driven .sh which gives the user the options of viewing the current variables as well as setting them... file generation is a breeze. Unfortunately, by setting the date/time variable, it is locked to the value at the time of creation (naturally). I set the variable like so: UTCTIME=$(/bin/date --utc +"%Y%m%d_%H%M%Z") What I really need is either a way to create a variable which updates at runtime, or (more likely) another way to skin this cat. While scouring for solutions, I came across a similar issues... like this. But, to be honest, I'm stumped on how to marry the two approaches and create a simple, distributable solution. I can post the entire .sh if anyone cares to review (about 120 lines)

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• List all foreign key constraints that refer to a particular column in a specific table

  - by Sid

  I would like to see a list of all the tables and columns that refer (either directly or indirectly) a specific column in the 'main' table via a foreign key constraint that has the ON DELETE=CASCADE setting missing. The tricky part is that there would be an indirect relationships buried across up to 5 levels deep. (example: ... great-grandchild- FK3 = grandchild = FK2 = child = FK1 = main table). We need to dig up the leaf tables-columns, not just the very 1st level. The 'good' part about this is that execution speed isn't of concern, it'll be run on a backup copy of the production db to fix any relational issues for the future. I did SELECT * FROM sys.foreign_keys but that gives me the name of the constraint - not the names of the child-parent tables and the columns in the relationship (the juicy bits). Plus the previous designer used short, non-descriptive/random names for the FK constraints, unlike our practice below The way we're adding constraints into SQL Server: ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] FOREIGN KEY([UserId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[UserMasterTable] ([UserId]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] GO The comments in this SO question inpire this question.

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• How can i test my TSQL syntax?

  - by acidzombie24

  Quick question: How do i get some kind of database to use to test my sql syntax and create basic data. I have Sqlite Code which i'll soon put on a server. I have sql server 2008 installed with visual studio 2010. I tried connecting to the database and had no luck. I also tried using a .mdf file instead thinking its a file and i wont have connectivity issues. Wrong, i still couldnt connect and i used this site to help me (i'm aware its 2005) In that case i used var conn = new SqlConnection(@"Server=.\SQLExpress;AttachDbFilename=C:\dev\src\test\SQL_DB_VS_Test\test.mdf;Database=dbo;Trusted_Connection=Yes;"); exception Unable to open the physical file "C:\dev\src\test\SQL_DB_VS_Test\test.mdf". Operating system error 5: "5(Access is denied.)". Cannot attach the file 'C:\dev\src\test\SQL_DB_VS_Test\test.mdf' as database 'dbo'. with trusted = no i get Login failed for user ''. (What user am i suppose to set...). I created the .mdf with visual studio somehow.

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• When to save a mongoose model

  - by kentcdodds

  This is an architectural question. I have models like this: var foo = new mongoose.Schema({ name: String, bars: [{type: ObjectId, ref: 'Bar'}] }); var FooModel = mongoose.model('Foo', foo); var bar = new mongoose.Schema({ foobar: String }); var BarModel = mongoose.model('Bar', bar); Then I want to implement a convenience method like this: BarModel.methods.addFoo = function(foo) { foo.bars = foo.bars || []; // Side note, is this something I should check here? foo.bars.push(this.id); // Here's the line I'm wondering about... Should I include the line below? foo.save(); } The biggest con I see about this is that if I did include foo.save() then I should pass in a callback to addFoo so I avoid issues with the async operation. I'm thinking this is not preferable. But I also think it would be nice to include because addFoo hasn't really "addedFoo" until it's been saved... Am I breaking any design best practices doing it either way?

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• Automate Field Entry in outside site

  - by JClaspill

  I am attempting to automate the entry of data into form fields. The problem is that this data (user/pass) is not known by the user. I'm not expressly hiding it from them, but they also don't need to know it. This is used to automate logins on several of our outside partner websites, who do not want our agents knowing their passwords. Sadly, most of these sites do not have any APIs I can work with... so I have to get the user logged in. I tried using an iframe and javascript, but I ran into the issue of security permissions denying it access. And sadly, our clients do not have access to add our domain to their sites(they seem to be 3rd party). Requirements: - Display webpage - Automatically enter data into fields Would be nice: - Automate signin similar to form.submit() - Flash/AJAX support. These seem to give the VB app issues. Is there a way to do this via javascript/html, and if not, do you have any recommendations for C#/php/asp.net options? PS: I am not sure what this techinque is called, so google isn't helping me it seems. Please set me straight on the terminology of what I am actually trying to accomplish.

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• DB optimization to use it as a queue

  - by anony

  We have a table called worktable which has some columns(key(primary key), ptime, aname, status, content) we have something called producer which puts in rows in this table and we have consumer which does an order-by on the key column and fetches the first row which has status as 'pending'. The consumer does some processing on this row: 1. updates status to "processing" 2. does some processing using content 3. deletes the row we are facing contention issues when we try to run multiple consumers(probably due to the order-by which does a full table scan)... using Advanced queues would be our next step but before we go there we want to check what is the max throughput we can achieve with multiple consumers and producer on the table. What are the optimizations we can do to get the best numbers possible? Can we do an in-memory processing where a consumer fetches 1000 rows at a time processes and deletes? will that improve? What are other possibilities? partitioning of table? parallelization? Index organized tables?...

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• Printing an Image embedded into an asp.net page. C#

  - by user1683846

  I am looking to print using C#, micorsoft visual studio, asp.net. The goal:- I am trying to print all pages in a fax document. Format:- The fax document is received as a single .tiff file with multiple pages. What needs to be done:- I need to iterate each page in the .tiff image and print them all. // This function will iterate all pages, one at a time. // protected void PrintAll_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // counts number of pages in the fax document.// int number = _FaxPages.Count; // for loop to iterate through each page. // for (int i = 0; i < number; i++) { string _FaxId = Page.Request["FaxId"]; _PageIndex = i; imgFax.ImageUrl = "ShowFax.ashx?n=" + _FaxId + "&f=" + _PageIndex + "&mw=750"; PrintAll.Attributes.Add("onclick", "return printing()"); } } and In my Java script I have: function printing() { window.print(); } Now the issues are: <1 The function only prints one page (the very last page of the tiff file)....and it prints the entire window and not just the embedded .tiff image in the entire web browser window. Any Ideas of how to go about just printing the .tiff embedded image instead of the entire web browser window. <2 Although my for loop iterates through the pages. The print function is only called after the loop has iterated through all the pages and stopped on the final page (say page 6/6). And then it only prints that last page (along with the rest of the contents on the browser window). This is not what I want to happen... I dont want to print all the excess material on the browser window such as buttons, links etc... I just want the embedded .tiff image from the browser window.

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• LINQ - 'Could not translate expression' with previously used and proven query condition

  - by tomfumb

  I am fairly new to LINQ and can't get my head around some inconsistency in behaviour. Any knowledgeable input would be much appreciated. I see similar issues on SO and elsewhere but they don't seem to help. I have a very simple setup - a company table and an addresses table. Each company can have 0 or more addresses, and if 0 one must be specified as the main address. I'm trying to handle the cases where there are 0 addresses, using an outer join and altering the select statement accordingly. Please note I'm currently binding the output straight to a GridView so I would like to keep all processing within the query. The following DOES work IQueryable query = from comp in context.Companies join addr in context.Addresses on comp.CompanyID equals addr.CompanyID into outer // outer join companies to addresses table to include companies with no address from addr in outer.DefaultIfEmpty() where (addr.IsMain == null ? true : addr.IsMain) == true // if a company has no address ensure it is not ruled out by the IsMain condition - default to true if null select new { comp.CompanyID, comp.Name, AddressID = (addr.AddressID == null ? -1 : addr.AddressID), // use -1 to represent a company that has no addresses MainAddress = String.Format("{0}, {1}, {2} {3} ({4})", addr.Address1, addr.City, addr.Region, addr.PostalCode, addr.Country) }; but this displays an empty address in the GridView as ", , ()" So I updated the MainAddress field to be MainAddress = (addr.AddressID == null ? "" : String.Format("{0}, {1}, {2} {3} ({4})", addr.Address1, addr.City, addr.Region, addr.PostalCode, addr.Country)) and now I'm getting the Could not translate expression error and a bunch of spewey auto-generated code in the error which means very little to me. The condition I added to MainAddress is no different to the working condition on AddressID, so can anybody tell me what's going on here? Any help greatly appreciated.

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• Why does applying this gradient style break my silverlight app ?

  - by Robotsushi

  I am having some issues with applying a gradient to a RadButton. I have a gradient definition in my styles resource dictionairy like so : <LinearGradientBrush x:Key="GridView_HeaderBackground" EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF5B5B5B" Offset="1"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF868686"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF4F4F4F" Offset="0.42"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF0E0E0E" Offset="0.43"/> </LinearGradientBrush> When i apply this gradient directly to the background of a RadButton everything works. Here is the button and the template definition: Button <telerik:RadButton Margin="5,10,5,0" Click="RadButton_Click" Tag="30" Content="30 Days" Style="{StaticResource SliderButton}" Background="{StaticResource GridView_HeaderBackground}" /> Template: <!-- Style Template for Slider RadButton --> <Style x:Key="SliderButton" TargetType="telerik:RadButton"> <Setter Property="Height" Value="30" /> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="#FFFFFF" /> <Setter Property="BorderThickness" Value="0" /> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="5,2" /> </Style> However when applying this gradient in the resource dictionary, my application will not load it simply gets to the silverlight loading screen and then never proceeds Here is the button and template which breaks my app. Button: <telerik:RadButton Margin="5,10,5,0" Click="RadButton_Click" Tag="30" Content="30 Days" Style="{StaticResource SliderButton}" /> Template: <!-- Style Template for Slider RadButton --> <Style x:Key="SliderButton" TargetType="telerik:RadButton"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{StaticResource GridView_HeaderBackground}" /> <Setter Property="Height" Value="30" /> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="#FFFFFF" /> <Setter Property="BorderThickness" Value="0" /> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="5,2" /> </Style> When i observe the js error console in google chrome i notice the following error is produced: "Cannot find a resource with the name/key ResourceWrapper"

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• Excel VBA: Error Handling with Case Statement

  - by AME

  I am trying to validate a file that is uploaded by the user using the code below. The error handler checks the top row of the uploaded file for three specific column names. If one or more of the column names is not present, the program should return a prompt to the user notifying them which column(s) are missing from the file that they uploaded and then close the file. There are a couple issues with my current VBA code that I am seeking help with: The prompt doesn't specify which column(s) are missing to the user. The error handler is triggered even when all required columns are present in the uploaded file. Code: Sub getworkbook() ' Get workbook... Dim ws As Worksheet Dim filter As String Dim targetWorkbook As Workbook, wb As Workbook Dim Ret As Variant Set targetWorkbook = Application.ActiveWorkbook ' get the customer workbook filter = ".xlsx,.xls" caption = "Please select an input file " Ret = Application.GetOpenFilename(filter, , caption) If Ret = False Then Exit Sub Set wb = Workbooks.Open(Ret) On Error GoTo ErrorLine: 'Check for columns var1 = ActiveSheet.Range("1:1").Find("variable1", LookIn:=xlValues, LookAt:=xlWhole, MatchCase:=True).Column var2 = ActiveSheet.Range("1:1").Find("variable2", LookIn:=xlValues, LookAt:=xlWhole, MatchCase:=True).Column var3 = ActiveSheet.Range("1:1").Find("variable3", LookIn:=xlValues, LookAt:=xlWhole, MatchCase:=True).Column ErrorLine: MsgBox ("The selected file is missing a key data column, please upload a correctly formated file.") If Error = True Then ActiveWorkSheet.Close wb.Sheets(1).Move Before:=targetWorkbook.Sheets("Worksheet2") ActiveSheet.Name = "DATA" End Sub

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• Overlaying several CLR reference fields with each other in explicit struct?

  - by thr

  Edit: I'm well aware of that this works very well with value types, my specific question is about using this for reference types. I've been tinkering around with structs in .NET/C#, and I just found out that you can do this: using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Foo { } class Bar { } [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Explicit)] struct Overlaid { [FieldOffset(0)] public object AsObject; [FieldOffset(0)] public Foo AsFoo; [FieldOffset(0)] public Bar AsBar; } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var overlaid = new Overlaid(); overlaid.AsObject = new Bar(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsBar); overlaid.AsObject = new Foo(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsFoo); Console.ReadLine(); } } } Basically circumventing having to do dynamic casting during runtime by using a struct that has an explicit field layout and then accessing the object inside as it's correct type. Now my question is: Can this lead to memory leaks somehow, or any other undefined behavior inside the CLR? Or is this a fully supported convention that is usable without any issues? I'm aware that this is one of the darker corners of the CLR, and that this technique is only a viable option in very few specific cases.

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• Cast exception being generated when using the same type of object

  - by David Tunnell

  I was previously using static variables to hold variable data that I want to save between postbacks. I was having problems and found that the data in these variables is lost when the appdomain ends. So I did some research and decided to go with ViewStates: static Dictionary<string, linkButtonObject> linkButtonDictonary; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (ViewState["linkButtonDictonary"] != null) { linkButtonDictonary = (Dictionary<string, linkButtonObject>)ViewState["linkButtonDictonary"]; } else { linkButtonDictonary = new Dictionary<string, linkButtonObject>(); } } And here is the very simple class I use: [Serializable] public class linkButtonObject { public string storyNumber { get; set; } public string TaskName { get; set; } } I am adding to linkButtonDictionary as a gridview is databound: protected void hoursReportGridView_OnRowDataBound(Object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { if (e.Row.RowType == DataControlRowType.DataRow) { LinkButton btn = (LinkButton)e.Row.FindControl("taskLinkButton"); linkButtonObject currentRow = new linkButtonObject(); currentRow.storyNumber = e.Row.Cells[3].Text; currentRow.TaskName = e.Row.Cells[5].Text; linkButtonDictonary.Add(btn.UniqueID, currentRow); } } It appears that my previous issues are resolved however a new one has arisin. Sometime when I postback I am getting this error: [A]System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[System.String,linkButtonObject] cannot be cast to [B]System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[System.String,linkButtonObject]. Type A originates from 'mscorlib, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location 'C:\Windows\Microsoft.Net\assembly\GAC_32\mscorlib\v4.0_4.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089\mscorlib.dll'. Type B originates from 'mscorlib, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location 'C:\Windows\Microsoft.Net\assembly\GAC_32\mscorlib\v4.0_4.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089\mscorlib.dll'. I don't understand how there can be a casting issue when I am using the same class everywhere. What am I doing wrong and how do I fix it?

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• Collision Handling in Javascript - Particles Get Stuck

  - by Conner Ruhl

  I am trying to recreate this, and I have been fairly successful. I am having issues with the collision handling though. Although the collision handling seems to work, it has very strange behavior. Here is what I have so far. This is the code that handles collisions: var dx = particle2.getX() - particle1.getX(); var dy = particle2.getY() - particle1.getY(); var angle = Math.atan2(dy, dx); var newP2X = particle1.getX() + (particle1.getRadius() + particle2.getRadius()) * Math.cos(angle); var newP2Y = particle1.getY() + (particle1.getRadius() + particle2.getRadius()) * Math.sin(angle); particle2.setX(newP2X); particle2.setY(newP2Y); var p1Vxi = particle1.getVx(); var p1Vyi = particle1.getVy(); var p1Mass = particle1.getMass(); var p2Vxi = particle2.getVx(); var p2Vyi = particle2.getVy(); var p2Mass = particle2.getMass(); var vxf = (p1Mass * p1Vxi + p2Mass * p2Vxi) / (p1Mass + p2Mass); var vyf = (p1Mass * p1Vyi + p2Mass * p2Vyi) / (p1Mass + p2Mass); particle1.setVx(vxf); particle1.setVy(vyf); particle2.setVx(vxf); particle2.setVy(vyf); EDIT: I have tried to change it to inelastic collisions like suggested, but for some reason the balls collide erratically. Check it out here. Any help is much appreciated!

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• Using Threads to Handle Sockets

  - by user340468

  I am working on a java program that is essentially a chat room. This is an assignment for class so no code please, I am just having some issues determining the most feasible way to handle what I need to do. I have a server program already setup for a single client using threads to get the data input stream and a thread to handle sending on the data output stream. What I need to do now is create a new thread for each incoming request. My thought is to create a linked list to contain either the client sockets, or possibly the thread. Where I am stumbling is figuring out how to handle sending the messages out to all the clients. If I have a thread for each incoming message how can I then turn around and send that out to each client socket. I'm thinking that if I had a linkedlist of the clientsockets I could then traverse the list and send it out to each one, but then I would have to create a dataoutputstream each time. Could I create a linkedlist of dataoutputstreams? Sorry if it sounds like I'm rambling but I don't want to just start coding this, it could get messy without a good plan. Thanks!

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