Search Results

Search found 87956 results on 3519 pages for 'code hinting'.

Page 413/3519 | < Previous Page | 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420  | Next Page >

• How to estimate the contribution of an individual to a software project?

  - by Amit Kumar

  I work on a software project and would like to estimate the percentage out of the total contribution that I have put in the development of the software. Is there some tool doing this? Such a tool can be useful for appraisals or negotiations, for example. After all, we work for money (yes, not only money, put the point remains). I think there is enough hand-waving for the most important things. The estimation is very subjective (at least to me now) but I do not know of any tool that provides even a subjective estimate. I know of Sloccount that spells out the total effort using the lines of code but not on per-developer basis. My idea of an ideal tool for this purpose would: measure the complexity of the code (more complex is more effort, but more effort is not necessarily more contribution) measure the decomposibility/flexibility of the software (more decomposable is better) how much library code is used -- using library code speeds up the development process, increases the associated risk and requires the developer to know from before or learn about the library. be intelligent enough to differentiate between "who wrote the code", "who copied the code" and "who indented the code". It is difficult to differentiate between the complexity in the implementation and the intrinsic complexity of the problem. Perhaps a comparison can be made with an equivalent open source counterpart if there is, or for each submodule separately. If there is no such tool, is there no merit in having such a tool? Or do you believe in "I do work, I do not measure"? It takes time after all. Perhaps the project manager should do this estimation continuously, say, weekly. Are there any standards? Yes, standardization is difficult because every project has a different goal, but difficult does not mean it is not useful.

  Read the article

• java.lang.IllegalStateException: missing behavior definition for the preceding method call getMessag

  - by user362199

  Hi All, I'm using EasyMock(version 2.4) and TestNG for writing UnitTest. I have a following scenario and I cannot change the way class hierarchy is defined. I'm testing ClassB which is extending ClassA. ClassB look like this public class ClassB extends ClassA { public ClassB() { super("title"); } @Override public String getDisplayName() { return ClientMessages.getMessages("ClassB.title"); } } ClassA code public abstract class ClassA { private String title; public ClassA(String title) { this.title = ClientMessages.getMessages(title); } public String getDisplayName() { return this.title; } } ClientMessages class code public class ClientMessages { private static MessageResourse messageResourse; public ClientMessages(MessageResourse messageResourse) { this.messageResourse = messageResourse; } public static String getMessages(String code) { return messageResourse.getMessage(code); } } MessageResourse Class code public class MessageResourse { public String getMessage(String code) { return code; } } Testing ClassB import static org.easymock.classextension.EasyMock.createMock; import org.easymock.classextension.EasyMock; import org.testng.Assert; import org.testng.annotations.Test; public class ClassBTest { private MessageResourse mockMessageResourse = createMock(MessageResourse.class); private ClassB classToTest; private ClientMessages clientMessages; @Test public void testGetDisplayName() { EasyMock.expect(mockMessageResourse.getMessage("ClassB.title")).andReturn("someTitle"); clientMessages = new ClientMessages(mockMessageResourse); classToTest = new ClassB(); Assert.assertEquals("someTitle" , classToTest.getDisplayName()); EasyMock.replay(mockMessageResourse); } } When I'm running this this test I'm getting following exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: missing behavior definition for the preceding method call getMessage("title") While debugging what I found is, it's not considering the mock method call mockMessageResourse.getMessage("ClassB.title") as it has been called from the construtor (ClassB object creation). Can any one please help me how to test in this case. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Magento install errors

  - by nXqd

  I try to install new magento version 1.4.xx . But after the config menu I meet after I copy and change local.example.xml to local.xml . Error in file: "E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Catalog\sql\catalog_setup\mysql4-install-1.4.0.0.0.php" - SQLSTATE[23000]: Integrity constraint violation: 1062 Duplicate entry '4-page_layout' for key 'entity_type_id' Trace: #0 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Resource\Setup.php(374): Mage::exception('Mage_Core', 'Error in file: ...') #1 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Resource\Setup.php(260): Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup->_modifyResourceDb('install', '', '1.4.0.0.21') #2 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Resource\Setup.php(224): Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup->_installResourceDb('1.4.0.0.21') #3 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Resource\Setup.php(153): Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup->applyUpdates() #4 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\App.php(363): Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup::applyAllUpdates() #5 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\App.php(295): Mage_Core_Model_App->_initModules() #6 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\Mage.php(596): Mage_Core_Model_App->run(Array) #7 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\index.php(78): Mage::run('', 'store') #8 {main} I really need your help , thanks so much :)

  Read the article

• DrScheme versus mzscheme: treatment of definitions

  - by speciousfool

  One long term project I have is working through all the exercises of SICP. I noticed something a bit odd with the most recent exercise. I am testing a Huffman encoding tree. When I execute the following code in DrScheme I get the expected result: (a d a b b c a) However, if I execute this same code in mzscheme by calling (load "2.67.scm") or by running mzscheme -f 2.67.scm, it reports: symbols: expected symbols as arguments, given: (leaf D 1) My question is: why? Is it because mzscheme and drscheme use different rules for loading program definitions? The program code is below. ;; Define an encoding tree and a sample message ;; Use the decode procedure to decode the message, and give the result. (define (make-leaf symbol weight) (list 'leaf symbol weight)) (define (leaf? object) (eq? (car object) 'leaf)) (define (symbol-leaf x) (cadr x)) (define (weight-leaf x) (caddr x)) (define (make-code-tree left right) (list left right (append (symbols left) (symbols right)) (+ (weight left) (weight right)))) (define (left-branch tree) (car tree)) (define (right-branch tree) (cadr tree)) (define (symbols tree) (if (leaf? tree) (list (symbol-leaf tree)) (caddr tree))) (define (weight tree) (if (leaf? tree) (weight-leaf tree) (cadddr tree))) (define (decode bits tree) (define (decode-1 bits current-branch) (if (null? bits) '() (let ((next-branch (choose-branch (car bits) current-branch))) (if (leaf? next-branch) (cons (symbol-leaf next-branch) (decode-1 (cdr bits) tree)) (decode-1 (cdr bits) next-branch))))) (decode-1 bits tree)) (define (choose-branch bit branch) (cond ((= bit 0) (left-branch branch)) ((= bit 1) (right-branch branch)) (else (error "bad bit -- CHOOSE-BRANCH" bit)))) (define (test s-exp) (display s-exp) (newline)) (define sample-tree (make-code-tree (make-leaf 'A 4) (make-code-tree (make-leaf 'B 2) (make-code-tree (make-leaf 'D 1) (make-leaf 'C 1))))) (define sample-message '(0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 0)) (test (decode sample-message sample-tree))

  Read the article

• How to Disable/Enable WYSIWYG editor in Magento 1.4

  - by latvian

  Hi When entering code in CMS static block(possible page as well) and in this code there is empty DIV tags such us: <a href="javascript:hide1(),show2(),hide3()"><div class="dropoff_button"></div></a> The DIV tags will be gone next time you open the block to edit. it will look as this <a href="javascript:hide1(),show2(),hide3()"> </a> without the div tags ...and saving again it modifies your code. I think it something to do with the 'show/hide editor'. By default it goes into the WYSIWYG editor, so when updating static block i don't see any other solution than 1."hide the editor' by clicking 'show/hide editor' 2.delete the old code from the editor 3. get code that doesn't miss the DIVs 4. Merge new code with code in 3 in some other editing software than magento 5. paste result in the magento editor, 6. Save Is this bug? What is your solution? Can i turn of WYSIWYG editor?

  Read the article

• Query optimization (OR based)

  - by john194

  I have googled but I can't find answers for these questions. Your advice is appreciated. centOS on vps with 512MB RAM, nginx, php5 (fastcgi), mysql5 (myisam, not innodb). I need to optimize this app created by some ex-employee. This app is working, but it's slow. Table: t1(id[bigint(20)],c1[mediumtext],c2[mediumtext],c3[mediumtext],c4[mediumtext]) id is some random big number, and is PK Those mediumtext rows look like this: c1="|box-002877|" c2="|ct-2348|rd-11124854|hw-3949|wd-8872|hw-119037736|...etc.. " c3="|fg-2448|wd-11172|hw-1656|...etc.. " c4="|hg-2448|qd-16667|...etc." (some columns contain a lot of data, around 900 KiB, database around 300 MiB) Yes, mediumtext "is bad", and (20) is too big... but I didn't create this. Those codes can be found on any of those 4 mediumtext's... //he needs all the columns of the row containing $code, so he wrote this: function f1($code) { SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE c1 LIKE '%$code%' OR c2 LIKE '%$code%' OR c3 LIKE '%$code%' OR c4 LIKE '%$code%'; Questions: Q1. If $code is found on c1... mysql automatically stops checking and returns row=id+c1+c2+c3+c4? or it will continue (wasting time) checking c2, c3 and c4?... Q2. Mysql is working with this table on disk (not RAM) because of the mediumtext, right? is this the primary cause of slowness? Q3. That query can be cached by mysql (if using a big query_cache_size=128M value on the my.cnf)? or that's not cacheable due to the mediumtexts, or due to the "OR LIKE"...? Q4. Do you recommend rewriting this with mysql's INSTR() / LOCATE() / MATCH..AGAINST [FULLTEXT]?

  Read the article

• NetBeans Tips and Tricks

  - by cdmckay

  I just saw an Eclipse tips & tricks post and was wondering if anyone had any tips & tricks for my IDE of choice: NetBeans. Here's a few I know and find to be useful: Removing a package: After you remove a package in NetBeans, it sticks around as a grayed-out package in your Project view. To get rid of that, switch to Files view and delete the directory. Alt-Insert (in Windows) opens up a Generate submenu at your cursor. A nice shortcut for quickly generating getters/setters (among other things). Selecting a chunk of code, right-clicking and then clicking "Refactor Introduce Method" will have NetBeans introduce a method, complete with arguments and return value. Of course you have to make sure the chunk of code only has one return value. Sometimes when you run a build and it crashes, the Java window sticks around at the bottom. I used to just click X until Windows let me End Task, but there's a nicer way to get rid of them. Click "Run Stop Build/Run" and NetBeans will close the window for you. It'll even let you close multiple applications at once. These may seem obvious to grizzled NetBeans developers, but I thought they might be useful for NetBeans newbs like me. Anyone else have any tips/tricks to share? Here are some from the comments: NetBeans allows for code templates. You can even add yours on the Code Templates tab under the Editor settings on the Options window. Some examples: Type sout and hit the tab key as a shorcut for System.out.println("") Type psvm and hit the tab key as a shorcut for public static void main(String args[]) {} Ctrl Shift C: Comments out the selected block of code. Alt Shift F: Formats the selected block of code. Ctrl E: Deletes current line. Ctrl Shift I: Fixes your imports, handy if you've just written a piece of code that needs a lot of packages imported.

  Read the article

• Using Pragma in Oracle Package Body

  - by asalamon74

  I'd like to create an Oracle Package and two functions in it: A public function ( function_public ) and a private one ( function_private ). The public function calls the private one. I'd like to add the same pragma to the functions: WNDS, WNPS. Without the pragma I can create a code like this: CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE PRAGMA_TEST AS FUNCTION function_public(x IN VARCHAR2) RETURN VARCHAR2; END PRAGMA_TEST; CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE BODY PRAGMA_TEST AS FUNCTION function_private(y IN VARCHAR2) RETURN VARCHAR2 IS BEGIN -- code END; FUNCTION function_public(x IN VARCHAR2) RETURN VARCHAR2 IS BEGIN -- code -- here is a call for function_private -- code END; END PRAGMA_TEST; If I'd like to add WNDS, WNPS pragma to function_public I should also add the same pragma to function_private because function_public calls function_private. It seems to me pragma can be used only in the package declaration, and not in package body, so I have to declare function_private in the package as well: CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE PRAGMA_TEST AS FUNCTION function_private(y IN VARCHAR2) RETURN VARCHAR2; PRAGMA RESTRICT_REFERENCES( function_private, WNDS, WNPS); FUNCTION function_public(x IN VARCHAR2) RETURN VARCHAR2; PRAGMA RESTRICT_REFERENCES( function_public, WNDS, WNPS); END PRAGMA_TEST; CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE BODY PRAGMA_TEST AS FUNCTION function_private(y IN VARCHAR2) RETURN VARCHAR2 IS BEGIN -- code END; FUNCTION function_public(x IN VARCHAR2) RETURN VARCHAR2 IS BEGIN -- code -- here is a call for function_private -- code END; END PRAGMA_TEST; This solution makes my function_private public as well. Is there a solution to add pragma to a function which can be found only in the package body?

  Read the article

• JavaScript: input validation in the keydown event

  - by c411

  Hi, I'm attempting to do info validation against user text input in the process of keydown event. The reason that I am trying to validate in the keydown event is because I do not want to display the characters those that are considered to be illegal in the input box at the beginning. The validation I am writing is like this, function validateUserInput(){ var code = this.event.keyCode; if ((code<48||code>57) // numerical &&code!==46 //delete &&code!==8 //back space &&code!==37 // <- arrow &&code!==39) // -> arrow { this.event.preventDefault(); } } I can keep going like this, however I am seeing drawbacks on this implmentation. Those are, for example, Conditional statement become longer and longer when I put more conditions to be examined. keyCodes can be different by browsers. I have to not only check what is not legal but also have to check what are exceptionals. In above examples, delete,backspace, and arrow keys are exceptionals. But the feature that I don't want to lose is having not to display the input in the textarea unless it passes the validation. (In case the user try to put illegal characters in the textarea, nothing should appear at all) That is why I am not doing validation upon keyup event. So my question is, Are there better ways to validate input in keydown event than checking keyCode by keyCode? Are there other ways to capture the user inputs other than keydown event before browser displays it? And a way to put the validation on it? Thanks for the help in advance.

  Read the article

• How do you clear a CustomValidator Error on a Button click event?

  - by George

  I have a composite User control for entering dates: The CustomValidator will include server sided validation code. I would like the error message to be cleared via client sided script if the user alters teh date value in any way. To do this, I included the following code to hook up the two drop downs and the year text box to the validation control: <script type="text/javascript"> ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlMonth.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlDate.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= txtYear.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); </script> However, I would also like the Validation error to be cleared when the user clicks the clear button. When the user clicks the Clear button, the other 3 controls are reset. To avoid a Post back, the Clear button is a regular HTML button with an OnClick event that resets the 3 controls. Unfortunately, the ValidatorHookupControlID method does not seem to work on HTML controls, so I thought to change the HTML Button to an ASP button and to Hookup to that control instead. However, I cannot seem to eliminate the Postback functionality associated by default with the ASP button control. I tried to set the UseSubmitBehavior to False, but it still submits. I tried to return false in my btnClear_OnClick client code, but the code sent to the browser included a DoPostback call after my call. btnClear.Attributes.Add("onClick", "btnClear_OnClick();") Instead of adding OnClick code, I tried overwriting it, but the DoPostBack code was still included in the final code that was sent to the browser. What do I have to do to get the Clear button to clear the CustomValidator error when clicked and avoid a postback? btnClear.Attributes.Item("onClick") = "btnClear_OnClick();"

  Read the article

• Adding Unlimited Form Fields With JQuery Problem.

  - by TheCREATOR

  I'm fairly new to JQuery and I'm trying to add multiple form fields for example, <li id="container" id="add_field"><input type="text" name="text" value="text" /></li> but I think my JQuery code is off can some one please help me fix the JQuery code? Here is the JQuery script. var count = 0; $(function(){ $('li#add_field').click(function(){ count += 1; $('#container').append( '<li><input id="field_' + count + '" name="fields[]' + '" type="text" /></li>' ); }); }); Here is the html code. <form method="post" action="index.php"> <fieldset> <ul> <li><label for="code">Code: </label> <textarea rows="8" cols="60" name="code" id="code"></textarea></li> <li id="container" id="add_field"><input type="text" name="text" value="text" /></li> <li><label for="comment">Comments: </label> <textarea rows="8" cols="60" name="comment" id="comment"></textarea></li> <li><input type="submit" name="submit" value="Submit" /></li></ul> </fieldset> </form>

  Read the article

• Google App Engine - Caching generated HTML

  - by Alexander

  I have written a Google App Engine application that programatically generates a bunch of HTML code that is really the same output for each user who logs into my system, and I know that this is going to be in-efficient when the code goes into production. So, I am trying to figure out the best way to cache the generated pages. The most probable option is to generate the pages and write them into the database, and then check the time of the database put operation for a given page against the time that the code was last updated. Then, if the code is newer than the last put to the database (for a particular HTML request), new HTML will be generated and served, and cached to the database. If the code is older than the last put to the database, then I will just get the HTML direct from the database and serve it (therefore avoiding all the CPU wastage of generating the HTML). I am not only looking to minimize load times, but to minimize CPU usage. However, one issue that I am having is that I can't figure out how to programatically check when the version of code uploaded to the app engine was updated. I am open to any suggestions on this approach, or other approaches for caching generated html. Note that while memcache could help in this situation, I believe that it is not the final solution since I really only need to re-generate html when the code is updated (as opposed to every time the memcache expires). Kind Regards, and thank you in advance for any suggestions you may be able to offer. -Alex

  Read the article

• Problem with std::ostringstream

  - by Dony

  Hi, I tried to make the code #1 more terse by changing it to code #2 but it doesn't work as expected. Can anyone please tell me why it doesn't work? Thanks. Code #1 double x = 8.9, y = 3.4, z = -4.5; std::ostringstream q0; q0 << "(" << x << "," << y << "," << z << ")"; std::string s = q0.str(); Code #2 double x = 8.9, y = 3.4, z = -4.5; std::string s = static_cast<std::ostringstream &>( std::ostringstream() << "(" << x << "," << y << "," << z << ")").str(); EDIT : Even code #3 works. Then why does code #2 not? Code #3 double x = 8.9, y = 3.4, z = -4.5; std::string s = static_cast<std::ostringstream *>( &(std::ostringstream() << "(" << x << "," << y << "," << z << ")"))->str();

  Read the article

• How to exit an if clause

  - by Roman Stolper

  What sorts of methods exist for prematurely exiting an if clause? There are times when I'm writing code and want to put a break statement inside of an if clause, only to remember that those can only be used for loops. Lets take the following code as an example: if some_condition: ... if condition_a: # do something # and then exit the outer if block ... if condition_b: # do something # and then exit the outer if block # more code here I can think of one way to do this: assuming the exit cases happen within nested if statements, wrap the remaining code in a big else block. Example: if some_condition: ... if condition_a: # do something # and then exit the outer if block else: ... if condition_b: # do something # and then exit the outer if block else: # more code here The problem with this is that more exit locations mean more nesting/indented code. Alternatively, I could write my code to have the if clauses be as small as possible and not require any exits. Does anyone know of a good/better way to exit an if clause? If there are any associated else-if and else clauses, I figure that exiting would skip over them.

  Read the article

• Latex: Text cannot be placed below image

  - by Frederik Wordenskjold

  I love latex! But sometimes, it does not love me... I'm having a problem with an image and some text. I have this code: Some text...\\ \begin{figure}[ht] \centering \includegraphics[scale=0.75]{picture.jpg} \caption{The caption} \label{fig:picture} \end{figure} Some more text... Basically, I want this: Some text. (Above image in the code) [end of page / new page] image Some more text. (Below the image in the code) [start of new section] But, what the above code gives me is this: Some text. (Above image in the code) Some more text. (Below the image in the code) [end of page / new page] image [start of new section] Latex insists on putting everything but a new section above the image even though its below the image in the code. Its probably because the image floats on top - but whats my alternative? There's not enough space on the first page to display the image there, to I cannot use [h] as the float-alignment. I can "hack it", by creating an empty new section, like \section*{}, but this creates some white-space, which looks weird. Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• iPhone Rendering Question

  - by slythic

  Hi all, I'm new to iPhone/Objective-C development. I "jumped the gun" and started reading and implementing some chapters from O'Reilly's iPhone Development. I was following the ebook's code exactly and my code was generating the following error: CGContextSetFillColorWithColor: invalid context CGContextFillRects: invalid context CGContextSetFillColorWithColor: invalid context CGContextGetShouldSmoothFonts: invalid context However, when I downloaded the sample code for the same chapter the code is different. Book Code: - (void) Render { CGContextRef g = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //fill background with gray CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(g, [UIColor grayColor].CGColor); CGContextFillRect(g, CGRectMake(0, 0, self.frame.size.width, self.frame.size.height)); //draw text in black. CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(g, [UIColor blackColor].CGColor); [@"O'Reilly Rules!" drawAtPoint:CGPointMake(10.0, 20.0) withFont:[UIFont systemFontOfSize:[UIFont systemFontSize]]]; } Actual Project Code from the website (works): - (void) Render { [self setNeedsDisplay]; //this sets up a deferred call to drawRect. } - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { CGContextRef g = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //fill background with gray CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(g, [UIColor grayColor].CGColor); CGContextFillRect(g, CGRectMake(0, 0, self.frame.size.width, self.frame.size.height)); //draw text in black. CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(g, [UIColor blackColor].CGColor); [@"O'Reilly Rules!" drawAtPoint:CGPointMake(10.0, 20.0) withFont:[UIFont systemFontOfSize:[UIFont systemFontSize]]]; } What is it about these lines of code that make the app render correctly? - (void) Render { [self setNeedsDisplay]; //this sets up a deferred call to drawRect. } - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { Thanks in advance for helping out a newbie!

  Read the article

• Registry remotley hacked win 7 need help tracking the perp

  - by user577229

  I was writing some .VBS code at thhe office that would allow certain file extensions to be downloaded without a warning dialog on a w7x32 system. The system I was writing this on is in a lab on a segmented subnet. All web access is via a proxy server. The only means of accessing my machine is via the internet or from within the labs MSFT AD domain. While writing and testing my code I found a message of sorts. Upon refresing the registry to verify my code changed a dword, instead the message HELLO was written and visible in regedit where the dword value wass called for. I took a screen shot and proceeded to edit my code. This same weird behavior occurred last time I was writing registry code except on another internal server. I understand that remote registry access exists for windows systems. I will block this immediately once I return to the office. What I want to know is, can I trace who made this connection? How would I do this? I suspect the cause of this is the cause of other "odd" behaviors I'm experiencing at work such as losing control of my input director master control for over an hour and unchanged code that all of a sudden fails for no logical region. These failures occur at funny times, whenver I'm about to give a demonstration of my test code. I know this sounds crazy however knowledge of the registry component makes this believable. Once the registry can be accessed, the entire system is compromised. Any help or sanity checking is appreciated.

  Read the article

• how to convert byte array to image in java?

  - by nemade-vipin

  I am developing a Web application in Java. In that application, I have created webservices in Java. In that webservice, I have created one webmethod which returns the image list in base64 format. The return type of the method is Vector. In webservice tester I can see the SOAP response as xsi:type="xs:base64Binary". Then I called this webmethod in my application. I used the following code: SBTSWebService webService = null; List imageArray = null; List imageList = null; webService = new SBTSWebService(); imageArray = webService.getSBTSWebPort().getAddvertisementImage(); Iterator itr = imageArray.iterator(); while(itr.hasNext()) { String img = (String)itr.next(); byte[] bytearray = Base64.decode(img); BufferedImage imag=ImageIO.read(new ByteArrayInputStream(bytearray)); imageList.add(imag); } In this code I am receiving the error: java.lang.ClassCastException: [B cannot be cast to java.lang.String" on line String img = (String)itr.next(); Is there any mistake in my code? Or is there any other way to bring the image in actual format? Can you provide me the code or link through which I can resolve the above issue? Note:- I already droped this question and I got the suggetion to try the following code Object next = iter.next(); System.out.println(next.getClass()) I tried this code and got the output as byte[] from webservice. but I am not able to convert this byte array to actual image. is there any other way to bring the image in actual format? Can you provide me the code or link through which I can resolve the above issue?

  Read the article

• Enabling/Disabling Aero from a Windows Service

  - by rgould

  I have some code to enable/disable the Windows Aero service in Vista, and I would like to run it in a Windows Service. The code works in a standalone application, but when I run it from a Service, nothing happens. No errors or exceptions are thrown. I realise that running code in a service is a different scope than running code in an application, but in this case, how would I enable/disable Aero from the service? Is this even possible? Here is the code I am working with: public static readonly uint DWM_EC_DISABLECOMPOSITION = 0; public static readonly uint DWM_EC_ENABLECOMPOSITION = 1; [DllImport("dwmapi.dll", EntryPoint="DwmEnableComposition")] protected static extern uint Win32DwmEnableComposition(uint uCompositionAction); public static bool EnableAero() { Win32DwmEnableComposition(DWM_EC_ENABLECOMPOSITION); } Edit: It turns out that the DwmEnableComposition call is returning HRESULT 0x80070018, or ERROR_BAD_LENGTH. Seems like a strange error, since the code works when not running as a service. I also tried changing the entire thing to the following code, but got the same result. It sets the window station and desktop, and it seems to be correct, but the call to DwmEnableComposition results in the same error. I've not included the PInvoke declarations for brevity. protected override void OnStop() { IntPtr winStation = OpenWindowStation("winsta0", true, 0x10000000 /* GENERIC_ALL */); if (winStation == null || winStation.ToInt32() == 0) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } if (!SetProcessWindowStation(winStation)) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } uint thread = GetCurrentThreadId(); IntPtr hdesk = OpenInputDesktop(0, false, 0x10000000 /* GENERIC_ALL */); if (hdesk == null || hdesk.ToInt32() == 0) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } if (!SetThreadDesktop(hdesk)) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } uint result = Win32DwmEnableComposition(DWM_EC_DISABLECOMPOSITION); if (result != 0) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } }

  Read the article

• How can I make a family of singletons?

  - by Jay

  I want to create a set of classes that share a lot of common behavior. Of course in OOP when you think that you automatically think "abstract class with subclasses". But among the things I want these classes to do is to each have a static list of instances of the class. The list should function as sort of a singleton within the class. I mean each of the sub-classes has a singleton, not that they share one. "Singleton" to that subclass, not a true singleton. But if it's a static, how can I inherit it? Of course code like this won't work: public abstract A { static List<A> myList; public static List getList() { if (myList==null) myList=new ArrayList<A>(10); return myList; } public static A getSomethingFromList() { List listInstance=getList(); ... do stuff with list ... } public int getSomethingFromA() { ... regular code acting against current instance ... } } public class A1 extends A { ... } public class A2 extends A { ... } A1 somethingfromA1List=(A1) A1.getSomethingFromList(); A2 somethingfromA2List=(A2) A2.getSomethingFromList(); The contents of the list for each subclass would be different, but all the code to work on the lists would be the same. The problem with the above code is that I'd only have one list for all the subclasses, and I want one for each. Yes, I could replicate the code to declare the static list in each of the subclasses, but then I'd also have to replicate all the code that adds to the lists and searches the list, etc, which rather defeats the purpose of subclassing. Any ideas on how to do this without replicating code?

  Read the article

• C# DynamicMethod prelink

  - by soywiz

  I'm the author of a psp emulator made in C#. I'm generating lots of "DynamicMethod" using ILGenerator. I'm converting assembly code into an AST, and then generating IL code and building that DynamicMethod. I'm doing this in another thread, so I can generate new methods while the program is executing others so it can run smoothly. My problem is that the native code generation is lazy, so the machine code is generated when the function is called, not when the IL is generated. So it generates in the program executing thread, native code generation is prettly slow as it is the asm-ast-il step. I have tried the Marshal.Prelink method that it is suposed to generate the machine code before executing the function. It does work on Mono, but it doesn't work on MS .NET. Marshal.Prelink(MethodInfo); Is there a way of prelinking a DynamicMethod on MS .NET? I thought adding a boolean parameter to the function that if set, exits the function immediately so no code is actually executed. I could "prelink" that way, but I think that's a nasty solution I want to avoid. Any idea?

  Read the article

• VS 2008 C++ build output?

  - by STingRaySC

  Why when I watch the build output from a VC++ project in VS do I see: 1Compiling... 1a.cpp 1b.cpp 1c.cpp 1d.cpp 1e.cpp [etc...] 1Generating code... 1x.cpp 1y.cpp [etc...] The output looks as though several compilation units are being handled before any code is generated. Is this really going on? I'm trying to improve build times, and by using pre-compiled headers, I've gotten great speedups for each ".cpp" file, but there is a relatively long pause during the "Generating Code..." message. I do not have "Whole Program Optimization" nor "Link Time Code Generation" turned on. If this is the case, then why? Why doesn't VC++ compile each ".cpp" individually (which would include the code generation phase)? If this isn't just an illusion of the output, is there cross-compilation-unit optimization potentially going on here? There don't appear to be any compiler options to control that behavior (I know about WPO and LTCG, as mentioned above). EDIT: The build log just shows the ".obj" files in the output directory, one per line. There is no indication of "Compiling..." vs. "Generating code..." steps. EDIT: I have confirmed that this behavior has nothing to do with the "maximum number of parallel project builds" setting in Tools - Options - Projects and Solutions - Build and Run. Nor is it related to the MSBuild project build output verbosity setting. Indeed if I cancel the build before the "Generating code..." step, the ".obj" files will not exist for the most recent set of "compiled" files. E.g., if I cancel the build during "c.cpp" above, I will see only "a.obj" and "b.obj".

  Read the article

• How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

  - by Randy

  So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Visual Studio and .NET programming

  - by Vit

  Hi, I just want to ask wheather I am right or not about .NET. So, .NET is new framework that enables you to easily implement new and old windows functions. It is similiar to java in the way that its also compiled into "bytecode", but its name is Common Language Infrastructure, or CLI. This language is interpreted by .NET Framework, so code generated by programming using .NET cannot be executed directly by CPU. Now, few languages can be compiled to CLI. First, it was Microsoft-developed C#, than J#, C++ others. I suspect that this is in general right, at least I hope I understand it right. But, what I am still missing is, can you write to machine code compiled code in C#? And, if using Visual Studio 2005, when I select Win32 project, it is compiled into machine code, so only thing you need to run this apps are windows dynamic-link libraries, since static libraries code is implemented into app durink linking phase. And those dynamic-link libraries are implemented in every windows installation, or provided by DirectX installations. But when I select CLR in Visual Studio 2005, than app is compiled into CLI code, and it first executes .NET framework, and than .NET framework executes that program, since its not in machine code. So, I am right? I ask becouse you can read these infos on the internet, but I have noone to tell me wheather I understand it right or not. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Design Philosophy Question - When to create new functions

  - by Eclyps19

  This is a general design question not relating to any language. I'm a bit torn between going for minimum code or optimum organization. I'll use my current project as an example. I have a bunch of tabs on a form that perform different functions. Lets say Tab 1 reads in a file with a specific layout, tab 2 exports a file to a specific location, etc. The problem I'm running into now is that I need these tabs to do something slightly different based on the contents of a variable. If it contains a 1 I may need to use Layout A and perform some extra concatenation, if it contains a 2 I may need to use Layout B and do no concatenation but add two integer fields, etc. There could be 10+ codes that I will be looking at. Is it more preferable to create an individual path for each code early on, or attempt to create a single path that branches out only when absolutely required. Creating an individual path for each code would allow my code to be extremely easy to follow at a glance, which in turn will help me out later on down the road when debugging or making changes. The downside to this is that I will increase the amount of code written by calling some of the same functions in multiple places (for example, steps 3, 5, and 9 for every single code may be exactly the same. Creating a single path that would branch out only when required will be a bit messier and more difficult to follow at a glance, but I would create less code by placing conditionals only at steps that are unique. I realize that this may be a case-by-case decision, but in general, if you were handed a previously built program to work on, which would you prefer?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420  | Next Page >