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  • Convert asp.net webforms logic to asp.net MVC

    - by gmcalab
    I had this code in an old asp.net webforms app to take a MemoryStream and pass it as the Response showing a PDF as the response. I am now working with an asp.net MVC application and looking to do this this same thing, but how should I go about showing the MemoryStream as PDF using MVC? Here's my asp.net webforms code: private void ShowPDF(MemoryStream ms) { try { //get byte array of pdf in memory byte[] fileArray = ms.ToArray(); //send file to the user Page.Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); Page.Response.Buffer = true; Response.Clear(); Response.ClearContent(); Response.ClearHeaders(); Response.Charset = string.Empty; Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; Response.AddHeader("content-length", fileArray.Length.ToString()); Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment;filename=TID.pdf;"); Response.BinaryWrite(fileArray); Response.Flush(); Response.Close(); } catch { // and boom goes the dynamite... } }

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  • iPhone application update (using Core Data on Sqlite)

    - by owen
    I have an app which is using Core Data on Sqlite, Now I have a update which has some DB structure changes say adding a new table I know when an app get updated, it updates the app binary only, nothing on document directory will be changed. When the app gets updated and launchs at the first time and run [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; It will find the difference between the data model and DB structure in Sqlite and will throw an exception and quit. Error: "The model used to open the store is incompatible with the one used to create the store" So, can anyone here give me some idea how to update an app when there is a DB structure change? I think we can run a DB script to create that new table when it launchs the update at the first time. But if there are other changes like changing the type of some fields or deleting some fields, and we need to migrate the old data, this is really a headache. In this case, Is the only way to do is creating a new app? Is there anyone tried something similar like this?

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  • How to create extensible dynamic array in Java without using pre-made classes?

    - by AndrejaKo
    Yeah, it's a homework question, so givemetehkodezplsthx! :) Anyway, here's what I need to do: I need to have a class which will have among its attributes array of objects of another class. The proper way to do this in my opinion would be to use something like LinkedList, Vector or similar. Unfortunately, last time I did that, I got fire and brimstone from my professor, because according to his belief I was using advanced stuff without understanding basics. Now next obvious solution would be to create array with fixed number of elements and add checks to get and set which will see if the array is full. If it is full, they'd create new bigger array, copy older array's data to the new array and return the new array to the caller. If it's mostly empty, they'd create new smaller array and move data from old array to new. To me this looks a bit stupid. For my homework, there probably won't be more that 3 elements in an array, but I'd like to make a scalable solution without manually calculating statistics about how often is array filled, what is the average number of new elements added, then using results of calculation to calculate number of elements in new array and so on. By the way, there is no need to remove elements from the middle of the array. Any tips?

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  • Loader.php trying to load Doctrine classes, but we use Propel!

    - by kewpiedoll99
    We are finding cases where we get the following 500 error: File xyz.php does not exist or class "xyz" was not found in the file at () in SF_ROOT_DIR/lib/vendor/Zend/Loader.php line 107 ... where xyz == Memcache (when trying to use symfony cc on the command line) or sfDoctrineAdminGenerator (when using an old-ish AdminGenerator-generated CMS page). We use Propel, but Loader.php is trying to load classes used only for Doctrine. Currently I am using a filthy hack where I request Loader.php to check if the file is either of these two cases, and if so simply return rather than trying to load it. Obviously, this is unacceptable longer term. Has anybody encountered this, and how did you solve it? Edited to add: We have: class ProjectConfiguration extends sfProjectConfiguration { public function setup() { // for compatibility / remove and enable only the plugins you want $this->enableAllPluginsExcept(array('sfDoctrinePlugin')); } } And we have a propel.ini file in our top level config directory. This has only started in the past four weeks or so, and we've had a stable build for over a year now. I'm pretty sure Doctrine is totally disabled.

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  • Protecting an Application's Memory From Tampering

    - by Changeling
    We are adding AES 256 bit encryption to our server and client applications for encrypting the TCP/IP traffic containing sensitive information. We will be rotating the keys daily. Because of that, the keys will be stored in memory with the applications. Key distribution process: Each server and client will have a list of initial Key Encryption Key's (KEK) by day If the client has just started up or the server has just started up, the client will request the daily key from the server using the initial key. The server will respond with the daily key, encrypted with the initial key. The daily key is a randomly generated set of alphanumeric characters. We are using AES 256 bit encryption. All subsequent communications will be encrypted using that daily key. Nightly, the client will request the new daily key from the server using the current daily key as the current KEK. After the client gets the new key, the new daily key will replace the old daily key. Is it possible for another bad application to gain access to this memory illegally or is this protected in Windows? The key will not be written to a file, only stored in a variable in memory. If an application can access the memory illegally, how can you protect the memory from tampering? We are using C++ and XP (Vista/7 may be an option in the future so I don't know if that changes the answer).

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  • How does the socket API accept() function work?

    - by Eli Bendersky
    The socket API is the de-facto standard for TCP/IP and UDP/IP communications (that is, networking code as we know it). However, one of its core functions, accept() is a bit magical. To borrow a semi-formal definition: accept() is used on the server side. It accepts a received incoming attempt to create a new TCP connection from the remote client, and creates a new socket associated with the socket address pair of this connection. In other words, accept returns a new socket through which the server can communicate with the newly connected client. The old socket (on which accept was called) stays open, on the same port, listening for new connections. How does accept work? How is it implemented? There's a lot of confusion on this topic. Many people claim accept opens a new port and you communicate with the client through it. But this obviously isn't true, as no new port is opened. You actually can communicate through the same port with different clients, but how? When several threads call recv on the same port, how does the data know where to go? I guess it's something along the lines of the client's address being associated with a socket descriptor, and whenever data comes through recv it's routed to the correct socket, but I'm not sure. It'd be great to get a thorough explanation of the inner-workings of this mechanism.

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  • Processing XML form input in ASP

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I'm maintaining a legacy application which consists of some ASP.Net pages with c# code behinds and some asp pages. I need to change the way the application accepts it's input from reading a set of parameters from some form fields to reading in one form field which contains contains some XML and parsing to get the parameters out. I've written a C# class that takes an The NameValueCollection from the C# HttpRequest's Form Element. Like so NameValueCollection form = Request.Form; Dictionary<string, string> fieldDictionary = RequestDataExtractor.BuildFieldDictionary(form); The code in the class looks for a particular parameter and if it's there processes the XML and outputs a Dictionary, if its not there it just cycles through the Form parameters and puts them all into the dictionary (Allowing the old method to still work) How would I do this in ASP? Can I use my same class, or a modified version of it? or do I have to write some new code to get this working? If I have to write ASP code Whats the best way to process the XML in ASP? Sorry if this seems like a stupid question but I know next to nothing about ASP and VB.

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  • Getting a nicely formatted timestamp without lots of overhead?

    - by Brad Hein
    In my app I have a textView which contains real-time messages from my app, as things happen, messages get printed to this text box. Each message is time-stamped with HH:MM:SS. Up to now, I had also been chasing what seemed to be a memory leak, but as it turns out, it's just my time-stamp formatting method (see below), It apparently produces thousands of objects that later get gc'd. For 1-10 messages per second, I was seeing 500k-2MB of garbage collected every second by the GC while this method was in place. After removing it, no more garbage problem (its back to a nice interval of about 30 seconds, and only a few k of junk typically) So I'm looking for a new, more lightweight method for producing a HH:MM:SS timestamp string :) Old code: /** * Returns a string containing the current time stamp. * @return - a string. */ public static String currentTimeStamp() { String ret = ""; Date d = new Date(); SimpleDateFormat timeStampFormatter = new SimpleDateFormat("hh:mm:ss"); ret = timeStampFormatter.format(d); return ret; }

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  • Toggling between instances of NiftyPlayer on a page - won't stop playing when hidden on IE

    - by Ashley
    Hi, i've got a page with links to MP3s, when the link is clicked I use javascript to show a small Flash player (NiftyPlayer) under the link. When a different link is clicked, the old player is hidden and the new player is revealed. The player auto-starts when the element is shown, and auto-stops when hidden - in Firefox. In IE it will only auto-start and NOT auto-stop. This is what I would like to solve. This is an example HTML with link and player <a href="Beat The Radar - Misunderstood What You Said.mp3" onclick="toggle_visibility('player662431');return false;" class="mp3caption">Misunderstood What You Said</a> <div id="player662431" class="playerhide"><embed src="http://www.xxx.com/shop/flash/player.swf?file=/mp3/Beat The Radar - Misunderstood What You Said.mp3&as=1" quality="high" bgcolor="#000000" width="161" height="13" name="niftyPlayer662431" align="" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" swLiveConnect="true" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer"></embed> Here is the javascript (i've got jquery installed to let me hide all the open players on this page apart from the new one) function toggle_visibility(id) { $('.playerhide').hide(); var e = document.getElementById(id); e.style.display = 'block'; } I think what I need to do is start the player manually with javascript (rather than using the autostart as=1 function in the URL string) There is some javascript that comes with NiftyPlayer to allow this EG niftyplayer('niftyPlayer1').play() there is also a stop method. I need some help with javascript - how do I add this call to play into my toggle_visibility function (it has the same unique ID number added to the name of the player as the ID of the div that's being shown, but I don't know how to pull this ID number out of one thing and put it in another) I also would like to be able to do niftyplayer('niftyPlayer1').stop() to stop the audio of the previously running player. Is it possible to store the current ID number somewhere and call it back when needed? Thanks for the help, i'm a PHP programmer who needs some support with Javascript - I know what I want to achieve, just don't know the commands to do it! Thanks

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  • Implementing scroll view that is much larger than the screen view with random images

    - by pulegium
    What I'm trying to do is to implement something like the fruit machine scroll view. Basically I have a sequence of images (randomly generated on the fly) and I want to allow the users to scroll through this line. There can fit approx 10 images on the screen, but the line is virtually unlimited. My question is what would be the best approach in implementing this? So far I've thought of having a UIImageView going across the screen (with width equal to the sum of 10 images) and the image associated with it would be a combination of 12 or so images, with two images falling out of the visible area, this would allow for smooth scrolling. If the user scrolls further, then I would reconstruct the image associated with the view so the new images are appended and the old one's are discarded. This image reconstruction business sounds bit complicated, so I was wondering if there's a more logical way to implement this. There's one more thing, I want to have two lines crossing each other with images, bit like conveyor belts crossing. If that makes any sense... Bit like below: V1 V2 H1 H2 H3 H4 H5 V4 V5 So if the vertical belt is moved it'd be like: V2 H3 H1 H2 V4 H4 H5 V5 V6 H1-H5, V1-V6 being automatically generated images. I'm not asking for the implementation code, just the thoughts on the principles how to implement this. Thanks!! :)

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  • How do I setup Linq to SQL and WCF

    - by Jisaak
    So I'm venturing out into the world of Linq and WCF web services and I can't seem to make the magic happen. I have a VERY basic WCF web service going and I can get my old SqlConnection calls to work and return a DataSet. But I can't/don't know how to get the Linq to SQL queries to work. I'm guessing it might be a permissions problem since I need to connect to the SQL Database with a specific set of credentials but I don't know how I can test if that is the issue. I've tried using both of these connection strings and neither seem to give me a different result. <add name="GeoDataConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=SQLSERVER;Initial Catalog=GeoData;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> <add name="GeoDataConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=SQLSERVER;Initial Catalog=GeoData;User ID=domain\userName; Password=blahblah; Trusted_Connection=true" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> Here is the function in my service that does the query and I have the interface add the [OperationContract] public string GetCity(int cityId) { GeoDataContext db = new GeoDataContext(); var city = from c in db.Cities where c.CITY_ID == 30429 select c.DESCRIPTION; return city.ToString(); } The GeoData.dbml only has one simple table in it with a list of city id's and city names. I have also changed the "Serialization Mode" on the DataContext to "Unidirectional" which from what I've read needs to be done for WCF. When I run the service I get this as the return: SELECT [t0].[DESCRIPTION] FROM [dbo].[Cities] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[CITY_ID] = @p0 Dang, so as I'm writing this I realize that maybe my query is all messed up?

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  • InstallExecuteSequence cache interferes with custom action operation

    - by Dima G
    I need to upgrade a product that could be installed in per-user context to a new version that is always in per-machine context. The requirements are: Whether the old version was installed in a Per-User (no matter who) or Per-Machine context should be completely seamless to an administrator user that performs the upgrade. The MSI upgrade should succeed without the need to know the password of the user that originally installed the previous version of the product in a Per-User context. The installation should be performed from a single .msi file (no setup.exe is allowed). The installation should be able to run in a silent (non-UI) mode. No reboots are allowed during installation. My strategy is to find in the beginning of the installation whether the product is already installed in per-user context, and if so, to transform the registry keys manually to Per-Machine context (I checked: no additional changes such as file system changes etc. are needed except this transform). I figured out how to move all appropriate keys in the registry from the user settings to the machine settings (pre-loaded appropriate user hive in case it didn't appear in HKEY_USERS) and created custom action that does it - and it does work when I run it as a stand-alone executable before running the MSI. The problem, however, is that when Windows Installer runs InstallExecuteSequence it first creates a 'cached product context' for all products. So when my custom action runs in the course of InstallExecuteSequence, this cache has already been created. Thus FindRelatedProducts action that determines if older product with same upgrade code exists looks on that cache and ignores the changes that my custom action applied. If before running the MSI the previous product was in per-user context, FindRelatedProducts will look at the cache and not apply the upgrade and remove the previous version, because the new product is in per-machine context, even though the previous product version is already configured to per-machine context in the registry by that time by my custom action. What can be done to solve this problem without violating the requirements stated above?

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  • Why would I be seeing execution timeouts when setting $_SESSION values?

    - by Kev
    I'm seeing the following errors in my PHP error logs: PHP Fatal error: Maximum execution time of 60 seconds exceeded in D:\sites\s105504\www\index.php on line 3 PHP Fatal error: Maximum execution time of 60 seconds exceeded in D:\sites\s105504\www\search.php on line 4 The lines in question are: index.php: 01 <?php 02 session_start(); 03 ob_start(); 04 error_reporting(E_All); 05 $_SESSION['nav'] = "range"; // <-- Error generated here search.php 01 <?php 02 03 session_start(); 04 $_SESSION['nav'] = "range"; 05 $_SESSION['navselected'] = 21; // <-- Error generated here Would it really take as long as 60+ seconds to assign a $_SESSION[] value? The platform is: Windows 2003 SP2 + IIS6 FastCGI for Windows 2003 (original RTM build) PHP 5.2.6 Non thread-safe build There aren't any issues with session data files being cleared up on the server as sessions expire. The oldest sess_XXXXXXXXXXXXXX file I'm seeing is around 2 hours old. There are no disk timeouts evident in the event logs or other such disk health issues that might suggest difficulty creating session data files. The site is also on a server that isn't under heavy load. The site is busy but not being hammered and is very responsive. It's just that we get these errors, three or four in a row, every three or four hours. I should also add that I'm not the original developer of this code and that it belongs to a customer who's developer has long since departed.

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  • Can I interrupt javascript code and then continue on a keystroke?

    - by Brian Ramsay
    I am porting an old game from C to Javascript. I have run into an issue with display code where I would like to have the main game code call display methods without having to worry about how those status messages are displayed. In the original code, if the message is too long, the program just waits for the player to toggle through the messages with the spacebar and then continues. This doesn't work in javascript, because while I wait for an event, all of the other program code continues. I had thought to use a callback so that further code can execute when the player hits the designated key, but I can't see how that will be viable with a lot of calls to display.update(msg) scattered throughout the code. Can I architect things differently so the event-based, asynchronous model works, or is there some other solution that would allow me to implement a more traditional event loop? Am I making sense? Example: // this is what the original code does, but obviously doesn't work in Javascript display = { update : function(msg) { // if msg is too long // wait for user input // ok, we've got input, continue } }; // this is more javascript-y... display = { update : function(msg, when_finished) { // show part of the message $(document).addEvent('keydown', function(e) { // display the rest of the message when_finished(); }); } }; // but makes for amazingly nasty game code do_something(param, function() { // in case do_something calls display I have to // provide a callback for everything afterwards // this happens next, but what if do_the_next_thing needs to call display? // I have to wait again do_the_next_thing(param, function() { // now I have to do this again, ad infinitum } }

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  • How to structure applications as multiple projects an name the packages in Java

    - by lostiniceland
    Hello Everyone I would like to know how you set up your projects in Java For example, in my current work-project, a six year old J2EE app with approximately 2 million LoC, we only have one project in Eclipse. The package structure is split into tiers and then domains, so it follows guidelines from Sun/Oracle. A huge ant-script is building different jars out of this one source-folder Personally I think it would be better to have multiple projects, at least for each tier. Recently I was playing around with a projects-structure like this: Domainproject (contains only annotated pojos, needed by all other projects) Datalayer (only persistence) Businesslogic (services) Presenter View This way, it should be easier to exchange components and when using a build tool like Maven I can have everything in a repository so when only working on the frontend I can get the rest as a dependecy in my classpath. Does this makes sense to you? Do you use different approaches and how do they look like? Furthermore I am struggeling how to name my packages/projects correctly. Right now, the above project-structure reflects in the names of the packages, eg. de.myapp.view and it continues with some technical subfolders like internal or interfaces. What I am missing here, and I dont know how to do this properly, is the distinction to a certain domain. When the project gets bigger it would be nice to recognise a particular domain but also the technical details to navigate more easily within the project. This leads to my second question: how do you name your projects and packages?

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  • PHP Notice: Undefined property: stdClass:

    - by 4D
    I've got an array coming back from a Flash app created in Flash Builder 4. I have a service setup that queries and brings data back from the DB successfully, however the Update script is generating the Undefined Property errors. I'm still learning both PHP and Flash Builder, and don't fully understand what the $this- commands do. If anyone can suggest where this script is going wrong, it is basically just generated by Flash Builder and is not something I've developed myself, I would appreciate it? Also if someone can explain $this- to me that would be awesome too? I've seen them before, but then I've seen scripts doing the same thing that do not use them, so is this an old way of doing things? Really appreciate any input anyone can give. public function updateItem($item) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub // Update an existing record in the database and return the item // Sample code \' $this->connect(); $sql = "UPDATE tbltrust SET inst_code = '$item->inst_code', trust_name = '$item->trust_name', trust_code = '$item->trust_code' WHERE trust_key = '$item->trust_key'"; mysqli_query($this->connection, $sql) or die('Query failed: ' . mysqli_error($this->connection)); mysqli_close($this->connection); }

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  • Caching Authentication Data

    - by PartlyCloudy
    Hi, I'm currently implementing a REST web service using CouchDB and RESTlet. The RESTlet layer is mainly for authentication and some minor filtering of the JSON data served by CouchDB: Clients <= HTTP = [ RESTlet <= HTTP = CouchDB ] I'm using CouchDB also to store user login data, because I don't want to add an additional database server for that purpose. Thus, each request to my service causes two CouchDB requests conducted by RESTlet (auth data + "real" request). In order to keep the service as efficent as possible, I want to reduce the number of requests, in this case redundant requests for login data. My idea now is to provide a cache (i.e.LRU-Cache via LinkedHashMap) within my RESTlet application that caches login data, because HTTP caching will probabily not be enough. But how do I invalidate the cache data, once a user changes the password, for instance. Thanks to REST, the application might run on several servers in parallel, and I don't want to create a central instance just to cache login data. Currently, I save requested auth data in the cache and try to auth new requests by using them. If a authentication fails or there is now entry available, I'll dispatch a GET request to my CouchDB storage in order to obtain the actual auth data. So in a worst case, users that have changed their data will perhaps still be able to login with their old credentials. How can I deal with that? Or what is a good strategy to keep the cache(s) up-to-date in general? Thanks in advance.

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  • Ajax function partially fails when alert removed

    - by YsoL8
    Hello. I have a problem in the following code: //quesry the db for image information function queryDB (parameters) { var parameters = "p="+parameters; alert ("hello"); if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { // use the info alert (xmlhttp.responseText); } } xmlhttp.open("POST", "js/imagelist.php", true); //Send the proper header information along with the request xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameters.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.send(parameters); } When I remove the alert statement 4 lines down I hit problems. This function is being called by a loop, and without the alert, I only get results for the last value sent to the statement. With it, I get everything I was expecting and really I'm at a loss to know why. I've heard that this may be a timing issue as I'm sending new requests before the old one is finished. I also heard polling being mentioned, but I can't find any information detailed enough. I'm new to synchronous services and I'm not really aware of the issues.

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  • jQuery: Stop browser scrolling on event update beyond the fold?

    - by neezer
    I have several links at the bottom of my page that update content at the top of my page (more than a viewport away). Here's the gist of what the update looks like: $('#private-photo div').fadeOut(function() { $(this).html('<%= escape_javascript(image_tag current_user.private_photo.image.url(:profile)) %>'); }).fadeIn(); Basically it's just fading out the old content and fading in the new content. My problem is that when this happens, the browser window automatically scrolls up just far enough so that the bottom of the updated content (#private-photo div) appears at the top of the browser viewport. I do not want this to happen. I want the content to be updated (still fading in and out), but without the browser viewport realigning its focus. I want to keep the animation because if the user has a big enough screen, or if they are using a link closer to the top of the page, I still want them to see the animation. Any ideas about how to prevent the browser from scrolling as described? If not, any suggestions for workarounds? FYI, I have this same problem in Safari 4, Chrome (for Mac), & Firefox 3.5. EDIT: Here's the link that calls the update action, which is itself inside a Colorbox: $('a.edit-photo').colorbox({ title: function() { return 'Edit Photo in ' + $(this).attr('rel'); }, overlayClose: false, onComplete: function() { $('#edit-photo-modal').submit(function(e) { $('#photo_submit').after('<span id="saving">Saving...</span>'); e.preventDefault(); $.post($(this).attr('action'), $(this).serialize(), function() { $('#edit-photo-modal #saving').text('Saved!'); }, "script"); }); } }); The lightbox opens, presents a form fetched through an AJAX request, then (on submit) triggers the update action mentioned above. I had these links outside of the Colorbox in an earlier design revision, and they exhibited the same problem, so I've ruled out Colorbox itself as a cause. If you need anymore info, let me know!

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  • ipad tabbar rotation

    - by MaKo
    hi, please help with this noob questions but really making me go crazy if I create a project from scratch (using windows based app) for the ipad, and add a tabbar , with firstviewController, and secondviewController, it works fine, starts in landscape mode, but in info.plist I set it to Landscape(left home button), but really in simulator starts with the button on the right side! in the FirstViewController.m (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { if (interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft || interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight) return YES; else { return NO; }} so it starts in landscape, and rotates as the simulator rotates, but if I create a template app for iphone tabbar, set the info.plist Initial interface orientation Landscape (left home button) and add the code above, IT DOESNT WORK!!! simulator starts with button at left but tab bar on the side, same problem that I had with an app that Im porting from iphone to ipad, (landscape intended) I get to the landscape start mode, but the tab bar remains on the side! also the only way to make the old ported app to show the simulator on the side was with UIInterfaceOrientation UIIntefaceOrientationLandscapeLeft (didnt work with Initial interface orientation), does not let me choose the value for the key, but it shows the simulator on landscape,, so,, what can I do please to show the tab bar on landscape mode??? the tabbar from scratch was made to see if the code will work , but it didnt?? why does it work in the tab bar made from windows app and not tab bar app? I just want the tab bar to show in landscape ahhh, thanks

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  • How do I create a new project in TFS from an existing project (breaking history)?

    - by Lindsay
    My team is taking over a project from a previous team. We use a different TFS server than the original team, and we are also not interested in keeping the history of the project because we are accepting the latest version of the code as the beginning of our history with the project. Branching is not an option since we want to start our history from the current version of the code. We just want a fresh project with the existing code. I have not been able to create the new project from the old code successfully. I keep getting an error: "Source control cannot add the solution: Solution would span multiple workspaces" My process for attempting the new project creation: Create a workspace for the previous team's version of the code. Get latest version of that code into local mapped workspace directory Open the solution. Unbind all projects and solution. Close solution. Create a workspace for the new version of the code on our TFS server. Copy the unbound code on my local box to the new local workspace mapped folder. Open the solution from the new directory. "Add to source control" from the new solution. Then I get the error. I have tried removing the TFS security files out of the code directories in the unbound version and tried changing source control instead of adding to source control (but it just binds back to the original instead of letting me bind to the new). Is there any other way to do this besides recreating the solution/projects and adding back all the files and references? It doesn't seem like it should be this difficult... Any advice much appreciated!

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  • Unit tests - The benefit from unit tests with contract changes?

    - by Stefan Hendriks
    Recently I had an interesting discussion with a colleague about unit tests. We where discussing when maintaining unit tests became less productive, when your contracts change. Perhaps anyone can enlight me how to approach this problem. Let me elaborate: So lets say there is a class which does some nifty calculations. The contract says that it should calculate a number, or it returns -1 when it fails for some reason. I have contract tests who test that. And in all my other tests I stub this nifty calculator thingy. So now I change the contract, whenever it cannot calculate it will throw a CannotCalculateException. My contract tests will fail, and I will fix them accordingly. But, all my mocked/stubbed objects will still use the old contract rules. These tests will succeed, while they should not! The question that rises, is that with this faith in unit testing, how much faith can be placed in such changes... The unit tests succeed, but bugs will occur when testing the application. The tests using this calculator will need to be fixed, which costs time and may even be stubbed/mocked a lot of times... How do you think about this case? I never thought about it thourougly. In my opinion, these changes to unit tests would be acceptable. If I do not use unit tests, I would also see such bugs arise within test phase (by testers). Yet I am not confident enough to point out what will cost more time (or less). Any thoughts?

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  • Ant fails without message at javac

    - by digitala
    I've written an Ant build.xml file which obtains a number of source files via WSDL and compiles them. These have been working on an old, now destroyed (and therefore unavailable for comparison), system but the build process isn't completing on this newer, faster system. The relevant section of the build file looks like this: <target name="compile" depends="init"> <java classname="org.apache.axis.wsdl.WSDL2Java"> <arg line="--all --server-side --skeletonDeploy --factory --wrapArrays --output src ${srcurl}" /> </java> <javac srcdir="${src}" destdir="${build}" verbose="yes" /> </target> The files are downloaded via the WSDL service successfully, however after that point Ant simply stops & returns to the commandline. Versions of the relevant apps: # java -version java version "1.6.0_14" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_14-b08) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 14.0-b16, mixed mode) # javac -version javac 1.6.0_14 # ant -version Apache Ant version 1.6.5 compiled on January 6 2007 I'm assuming that there's a problem with javac that Ant isn't passing back. Is there any way I can get some debugging information from javac? I've tried adding a <record /> tag to the target but that doesn't give any more information than running ant -v does. Any other suggestions would be great, also!

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  • Asp.net renders string with wrong encoding, but PHP doesn't (MySQL)

    - by citronas
    I took over some old php application with MySQL as database. Inside the database, there are tables including content with localized strings (therefore containing special chars) Currently there is a PHP application accessing that database. My job is to create an ASP.net (C# codebehind) application that accesses that strings as well. That works, as far as encoding goes. If I try to access these strings, I do get a kind of encoding problem, like 'Ändern' and 'Prüfzeichen', but only in the ASP.net application. The PHP app sets utf-8 as charset and the strings are perfectly rendered. In the ASP.net application it's gibberish, regardless of the page encoding. In the MySQL database, the charset for the specified table 'translations' is set to 'latin --cp1252 West European' and collation to 'latin_swedish_ci'. I can't seem to figure out what PHP apparently does, and ASP.net does not. I traced the php code and could not find any sign of special encoding while getting a string from the database. The question is, how can I ensure correct encoding inside the ASP.net application without modifying the database, because big changes at the php code are not possible? Does anybody have a clue?

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  • How to handle pagination queries properly with mongodb and php?

    - by luckytaxi
    Am I doing this right? I went to look at some old PHP code w/ MySQL and I've managed to get it to work, however I'm wondering if there's a much "cleaner" and "faster" way of accomplishing this. First I would need to get the total number of "documents" $total_documents = $collection->find(array("tags" => $tag, "seeking" => $this->session->userdata('gender'), "gender" => $this->session->userdata('seeking')))->count(); $skip = (int)($docs_per_page * ($page - 1)); $limit = $docs_per_page; $total_pages = ceil($total_documents / $limit); // Query to populate array so I can display with pagination $data['result'] = $collection->find(array("tags" => $tag, "seeking" => $this->session->userdata('gender'), "gender" => $this->session->userdata('seeking')))->limit($limit)->skip($skip)->sort(array("_id" => -1)); My question is, can I run the query in one shot? I'm basically running the same query twice, except the second time I'm passing the value to skip between records.

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