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  • Instance caching in Objective C

    - by zoul
    Hello! I want to cache the instances of a certain class. The class keeps a dictionary of all its instances and when somebody requests a new instance, the class tries to satisfy the request from the cache first. There is a small problem with memory management though: The dictionary cache retains the inserted objects, so that they never get deallocated. I do want them to get deallocated, so that I had to overload the release method and when the retain count drops to one, I can remove the instance from cache and let it get deallocated. This works, but I am not comfortable mucking around the release method and find the solution overly complicated. I thought I could use some hashing class that does not retain the objects it stores. Is there such? The idea is that when the last user of a certain instance releases it, the instance would automatically disappear from the cache. NSHashTable seems to be what I am looking for, but the documentation talks about “supporting weak relationships in a garbage-collected environment.” Does it also work without garbage collection? Clarification: I cannot afford to keep the instances in memory unless somebody really needs them, that is why I want to purge the instance from the cache when the last “real” user releases it. Better solution: This was on the iPhone, I wanted to cache some textures and on the other hand I wanted to free them from memory as soon as the last real holder released them. The easier way to code this is through another class (let’s call it TextureManager). This class manages the texture instances and caches them, so that subsequent calls for texture with the same name are served from the cache. There is no need to purge the cache immediately as the last user releases the texture. We can simply keep the texture cached in memory and when the device gets short on memory, we receive the low memory warning and can purge the cache. This is a better solution, because the caching stuff does not pollute the Texture class, we do not have to mess with release and there is even a higher chance for cache hits. The TextureManager can be abstracted into a ResourceManager, so that it can cache other data, not only textures.

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  • Opinions on collision detection objects with a moving scene

    - by Evan Teran
    So my question is simple, and I guess it boils down to how anal you want to be about collision detection. To keep things simple, lets assume we're talking about 2D sprites defined by a bounding box. In addition, let's assume that my sprite object has a function to detect collisions like this: S.collidesWith(other); Finally the scene is moving and "walls" in the scene can move, an object may not touch a wall. So a simple implementation might look like this (psuedo code): moveWalls(); moveSprite(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } The problem with this is that if the sprite and wall move towards each other, depending on the circumstances (such as diagonal moment). They may pass though each other (unlikely but could happen). So I may do this instead. moveWalls(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } moveSprite(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } This takes care of the passing through each other issue, but another rare issue comes up. If they are adjacent to each other (literally the next pixel) and both the wall and the sprite are moving left, then I will get an invalid collision since the wall moves, checks for collision (hit) then the sprite is moved. Which seems unfair. In addition, to that, the redundant collision detection feels very inefficient. I could give the player movement priority alleviating the first issue but it is still checking twice. moveSprite(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } moveWalls(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } Am I simply over thinking this issue, should this just be chalked up to "it'll happen rare enough that no one will care"? Certainly looking at old sprite based games, I often find situations where the collision detection has subtle flaws, but I figure by now we can do better :-P. What are people's thoughts?

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  • MATLAB plot moving data points in seperate subplots simutaneously

    - by Nate B.
    I wish to visualize the movement of a data point throughout space across a period of time within MATLAB. However, the way I want my figure to display is such that only a single instant is plotted at any given time. That was easy, I simply created a for loop to update my 3D plot display for every set of coordinates (x,y,z) in my data. However, I wish to display 4 different viewing angles of this plot at all times. I am well aware of how to setup subplots within MATLAB, that is not the issue. My issue is getting all 4 of these subplots to execute simultaneously so that all 4 subplots are always displaying the same point in time. I would appreciate if anyone could suggest how to handle this issue. As requested, my code for a figure with a single plot is shown below: datan = DATA; %data in form of x,y,z,a,b,c by column for row# of time points tib=zeros(size(datan,1),12); tib(:,1:3) = datan(:,1:3); tib_ref=tib(1,1:3); for i=1:size(datan,1) tib(i,1:3)=tib(i,1:3)-tib_ref; end angle_to_dircos close all figure('Name','Directions (Individual Cycles)','NumberTitle','off') for cc=1:2 hold off for bb=1:10:size(tib,1); scatter3(tib(bb,1),tib(bb,2),tib(bb,3),'green','filled'); %z and y axes are flipped in polhemus system hold on p0 = [tib(bb,1),tib(bb,2),tib(bb,3)]; p1 = [tib(bb,1)+10*tib(bb,4),tib(bb,2)+10*tib(bb,5),tib(bb,3)+10*tib(bb,6)]; p2 = [tib(bb,1)+10*tib(bb,7),tib(bb,2)+10*tib(bb,8),tib(bb,3)+10*tib(bb,9)]; p3 = [-(tib(bb,1)+100*tib(bb,10)),-(tib(bb,2)+100*tib(bb,11)),-(tib(bb,3)+100*tib(bb,12))]; vectarrow(p0,p1,1,0,0) hold on vectarrow(p0,p2,0,1,0) hold on vectarrow(p0,p3,0,0,1) hold on az = 90; el = 0; view(az, el); xlim([-50,50]); ylim([-50,50]); zlim([-50,50]); xlabel('distance from center in X'); ylabel('distance from center in Y'); zlabel('distance from center in Z'); title('XYZ Scatter Plots of Tracker Position'); hold on plot3(0,0,0,'sk','markerfacecolor',[0,0,0]); p0 = [0,0,0]; p1 = [10,0,0]; p2 = [0,10,0]; p3 = [0,0,100]; vectarrow(p0,p1,1,0,0) hold on vectarrow(p0,p2,0,1,0) hold on vectarrow(p0,p3,1,0,1) drawnow; end end

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  • markdown to HTML with customised WMD editor

    - by spirytus
    For my application I customized slightly the way WMD behaves so when user enters empty lines, these are reflected in HTML output as <br />'s. Now I came to a point when I should store it somewhere at backend and so after going thru SO posts for a while I'm not sure what is the best way to do it. I have few options and if you could point out which their pros/cons that would be much appreciated. send to server and store as markdown rather than HTML. To me obvious advantage would be keeping exactly same formatting as user originally entered. But then how can I convert it back to HTML for display to a client? It seems very troublesome to convert it on client side as even if it would be possible what would happen if JS would be disabled? If I wanted to do it on the server, then standard server side implementations of markup to HTML might be resource expensive. Would that be an issue in your opinion? Even if it wouldn't be the case then as I mentioned my WMD implementation is customised and those server side solutions wouldn't probably do the right conversion to markdown anyway and there always would be a risk that something would convert wrong. Send to server as converted HTML. Same as above.. conversion on client side would be difficult, server side same with possibility of getting it wrong. send original markdown and converted HTML and store both. No performance issues related to converting markdown to HTML on client side, nor on server side. Users would have always same markdown they originally entered and same HTML they originally saw in preview (possibly sanitized in php though). It would have to take twice that much storage space though and that is my biggest worry. I tend to lean towards 3rd solution as it seems simplest, but there is a worry of doubled storage space needed for this solution. Please bear in mind that my implementation of WMD is slightly modified and also I'm going with PHP/MySql server side implementation. So apart from 3 options I listed above, are there any other possible solutions to my problem? Did I miss anything important that would make one of the options above better then the rest? And what other pros/cons would apply to each solution I listed? Also how is it implemented on SO? I read somwhere that they using option 3, and so if its good enough for SO would be good enough for me :) but not sure if its true anyway, so how is it done? Also please forgive me, but at least for once I got to say that StackOverflow IS THE BEST DAMN RESOURCE ON THE WEB and I truly appreciate all the people trying to help others here! The site and users here are simply amazing!

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  • SEO Help with Pages Indexed by Google

    - by Joe Majewski
    I'm working on optimizing my site for Google's search engine, and lately I've noticed that when doing a "site:www.joemajewski.com" query, I get results for pages that shouldn't be indexed at all. Let's take a look at this page, for example: http://www.joemajewski.com/wow/profile.php?id=3 I created my own CMS, and this is simply a breakdown of user id #3's statistics, which I noticed is indexed by Google, although it shouldn't be. I understand that it takes some time before Google's results reflect accurately on my site's content, but this has been improperly indexed for nearly six months now. Here are the precautions that I have taken: My robots.txt file has a line like this: Disallow: /wow/profile.php* When running the url through Google Webmaster Tools, it indicates that I did, indeed, correctly create the disallow command. It did state, however, that a page that doesn't get crawled may still get displayed in the search results if it's being linked to. Thus, I took one more precaution. In the source code I included the following meta data: <meta name="robots" content="noindex,follow" /> I am assuming that follow means to use the page when calculating PageRank, etc, and the noindex tells Google to not display the page in the search results. This page, profile.php, is used to take the $_GET['id'] and find the corresponding registered user. It displays a bit of information about that user, but is in no way relevant enough to warrant a display in the search results, so that is why I am trying to stop Google from indexing it. This is not the only page Google is indexing that I would like removed. I also have a WordPress blog, and there are many category pages, tag pages, and archive pages that I would like removed, and am doing the same procedures to attempt to remove them. Can someone explain how to get pages removed from Google's search results, and possibly some criteria that should help determine what types of pages that I don't want indexed. In terms of my WordPress blog, the only pages that I truly want indexed are my articles. Everything else I have tried to block, with little luck from Google. Can someone also explain why it's bad to have pages indexed that don't provide any new or relevant content, such as pages for WordPress tags or categories, which are clearly never going to receive traffic from Google. Thanks!

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  • Algorithm to split an article without breaking the reading flow or HTML code

    - by Victor Stanciu
    Hello, I have a very large database of articles, of varying lengths. The articles have HTML elements in them. I have to insert some ads (simple <script> elements) in the body of each article when it is displayed (I know, I hate ads that interrupt my reading too). Now, the problem is that each ad must be inserted at about the same position in each article. The simplest solution is to simply split the article on a fixed number of characters (without breaking words), and insert the ad code. This, however, runs the risk of inserting the ad in the middle of a HTML tag. I could go the regex way, but I was thinking about the following solution, using JS: Establish a character count threshold. For example, "the add should be inserted at about 200 words" Set accepted deviations in each direction, say -20, +20 characters. Loop through each text node inside the article, and while doing so, keep count of the total number of characters so far Once the count exceeds the threshold, make the following decision: 4.1. If count exceeds the threshold by a value lower that the positive accepted deviation (for example, 17 characters), insert the ad code just after the current text node. 4.2. If the count is greater than the sum of the threshold and the deviation, roll back to the previous text node, and make the same decision, only this time use the previous count and check if it's lower than the difference between the threshold and the deviation, and if not, insert the ad between the current node and the previous one. 4.3. If the 4.1 and 4.2 fail (which means that the previous node reached a too low character count and the current node a too high one), insert the ad after whatever character count is needed inside the current element. I know it's convoluted, but it's the first thing out of my mind and it has the advantage that, by trying to insert the ad between text nodes, perhaps it will not break the flow of the article as bad as it would if I would just stick it in (like the final 4.3 case) Here is some pseudo-code I put together, I don't trust my english-explaining skills: threshold = 200 deviation = 20 current_count = 0 for each node in article_nodes { previous_count = current_count current_count = current_count + node.length if current_count < threshold { continue // next interation } if current_count > threshold + deviation { if previous_count < threshdold - deviation { // insert ad in current node } else { // insert ad between the current and previous nodes } } else { // insert ad after the current node } break; } Am I over-complicating stuff, or am I missing a simpler, more elegant solution?

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  • Schema to support dynamic properties

    - by Johan Fredrik Varen
    Hi people. I'm working on an editor that enables its users to create "object" definitions in real-time. A definition can contain zero or more properties. A property has a name a type. Once a definition is created, a user can create an object of that definition and set the property values of that object. So by the click of a mouse-button, the user should ie. be able to create a new definition called "Bicycle", and add the property "Size" of type "Numeric". Then another property called "Name" of type "Text", and then another property called "Price" of type "Numeric". Once that is done, the user should be able to create a couple of "Bicycle" objects and fill in the "Name" and "Price" property values of each bike. Now, I've seen this feature in several software products, so it must be a well-known concept. My problem started when I sat down and tried to come up with a DB schema to support this data structure, because I want the property values to be stored using the appropriate column types. Ie. a numeric property value is stored as, say, an INT in the database, and a textual property value is stored as VARCHAR. First, I need a table that will hold all my object definitions: Table obj_defs id | name | ---------------- 1 | "Bicycle" | 2 | "Book" | Then I need a table for holding what sort of properties each object definition should have: Table prop_defs id | obj_def_id | name | type | ------------------------------------ 1 | 1 | "Size" | ? | 2 | 1 | "Name" | ? | 3 | 1 | "Price" | ? | 4 | 2 | "Title" | ? | 5 | 2 | "Author" | ? | 6 | 2 | "ISBN" | ? | I would also need a table that holds each object: Table objects id | created | updated | ------------------------------ 1 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | 2 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | 3 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | Finally, I need a table that will hold the actual property values of each object, and one solution is for this table to have one column for each possible value type, such as this: Table prop_vals id | prop_def_id | object_id | numeric | textual | boolean | ------------------------------------------------------------ 1 | 1 | 1 | 27 | | | 2 | 2 | 1 | | "Trek" | | 3 | 3 | 1 | 1249 | | | 4 | 1 | 2 | 26 | | | 5 | 2 | 2 | | "GT" | | 6 | 3 | 2 | 159 | | | 7 | 4 | 3 | | "It" | | 8 | 5 | 3 | | "King" | | 9 | 6 | 4 | 9 | | | If I implemented this schema, what would the "type" column of the prop_defs table hold? Integers that each map to a column name, varchars that simply hold the column name? Any other possibilities? Would a stored procedure help me out here in some way? And what would the SQL for fetching the "name" property of object 2 look like?

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  • User Defined Exceptions with JMX

    - by Daniel
    I have exposed methods for remote management in my application server using JMX by creating an MXBean interface, and a class to implement it. Included in this interface are operations for setting attributes on my server, and for getting the current value of attributes. For example, take the following methods: public interface WordManagerMXBean { public void addWord(String word); public WordsObject getWords(); public void removeWord(String word); } The WordsObject is a custom, serializable class used to retrieve data about the state of the server. Then I also have a WordManager class that implements the above interface. I then create a JMX agent to manage my resource: MBeanServer mbs = ManagementFactory.getPlatformMBeanServer(); ObjectName wordManagerName = new ObjectName("com.example:type=WordManager"); mbs.registerMBean(wordManager, wordManagerName); I have created a client that invokes these methods, and this works as expected. However, I would like to extend this current configuration by adding user defined exceptions that can be sent back to my client. So I would like to change my interface to something like this: public interface WordManagerMXBean { public void addWord(String word) throws WordAlreadyExistsException; public WordsObject getWords(); public void removeWord(String word); } My WordAlreadyExistsException looks like this: public class WordAlreadyExistsException extends Exception implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -9095552123119275304L; public WordAlreadyExistsException() { super(); } } When I call the addWord() method in my client, I would like to get back a WordAlreadyExistsException if the word already exists. However, when I do this, I get an error like this: java.rmi.UnmarshalException: Error unmarshaling return; nested exception is: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.example.WordAlreadyExistsException The WordAlreadyExistsException, the WordsObject and the WordManagerMXBean interface are all in a single jar file that is available to both the client and the server. If I call the getWords() method, the client has no difficulty handling the WordsObject. However, if a user defined exception, like the one above, is thrown, then the client gives the error shown above. Is it possible to configure JMX to handle this exception correctly in the client? Following some searching, I noticed that there is an MBeanException class that is used to wrap exceptions. I'm not sure if this wrapping is performed by the agent automatically, or if I'm supposed to do the wrapping myself. I tried both, but in either case I get the same error on the client. I have also tried this with both checked and unchecked exceptions, again the same error occurs. One solution to this is to simply pass back the error string inside a generic error, as all of the standard java exceptions work. But I'd prefer to get back the actual exception for processing by the client. Is it possible to handle user defined exceptions in JMX? If so, any ideas how?

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  • Python-How to call up a function from another module?

    - by user2691540
    I am making a project where I need several modules which are imported into one main module to make a pizza ordering service. Upon finishing this (to a working standard) I decided to re-code it so that the whole order is completed with one tkinter window, now instead of using input(), I use tkinter.Entry() etc. etc. To do this I had to use functions for each step so it is broken up nicely, e.g. the code asks if the user wants pickup or delivery, the user clicks a button which sets some variables and one of the buttons is then configured to say "continue" and the command leads to the next step of the pizza ordering process e.g. getting the name. The problem I have is that when I get past the last function of the first module the configured button has a command to go to a function in the second module, but it says that the command is not defined??? I have tried my way around this but cannot import the configured button variable into the next module, and anything else I tried gave no result, it simply doesn't go to the next module after the first module is done. I have made the main tkinter window in the main module and have it that it will mainloop after importing the other modules so shouldn't the function I want to call upon be defined? How can I get from one function to the next if the latter is in a seperate module? Is this possible or do I have to rethink my approach and if so how? Ok then, have made some more code to show what my problem is, this isn't what I am actually using but it's a lot shorter and has the same issue: this is the main module: import tkinter mainwindow = tkinter.Tk() # here i set the window to a certain size etc. import mod1 import mod2 mainwindow.mainloop() this is mod1: import tkinter def button1(): label.destroy() button1.destroy() button2.config(text = "continue", command = func2) def button2(): label.destroy() button1.destroy() button2.config(text = "continue", command = func2) label = tkinter.Label(text = "example label") button1 = tkinter.Button(text = "button1", command = button1) button2 = tkinter.Button(text = "button2", command = button2) label.pack() button1.pack() button2.pack() this is mod2: def func2(): button2.destroy() print ("haha it works...") I still get the problem that func2 is not defined? Thanks in advance

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  • Why I can't draw in a loop? (Using UIView in iPhone)

    - by Tattat
    I can draw many things using this : NSString *imagePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"dummy2.png" ofType:nil]; UIImage *img = [UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:imagePath]; image = CGImageRetain(img.CGImage); CGRect imageRect; double x = 0; double y = 0; for (int k=0; k<someValue; k++) { x += k; y += k; imageRect.origin = CGPointMake(x, y); imageRect.size = CGSizeMake(25, 25); CGContextDrawImage(UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(), imageRect, image); } } CGImageRelease(img.CGImage); So, it works, so, I put it into a command object's execute method. Then, I want to do similar thing, but this time, my execute method only do this: NSString *imagePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"dummy2.png" ofType:nil]; UIImage *img = [UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:imagePath]; image = CGImageRetain(img.CGImage); CGRect imageRect; double x = inComingX; double y = inComingY; imageRect.origin = CGPointMake(x, y); imageRect.size = CGSizeMake(25, 25); CGContextDrawImage(UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(), imageRect, image); CGImageRelease(img.CGImage); This time, this is also a Command, and it is the execute method. But I take the for loop away. I will have another method that pass the inComingX , and inComingY into my Command object. My Drawing method is simply execute the Cmd that passed in my drawingEngine: -(void)drawInContext:(CGContextRef)context { [self.cmdToBeExecuted execute]; } I also have the assign method to assign the command,: -(void)assignCmd:(Command* )cmd{ self.cmdToBeExecuted = cmd; } And this is the way I called the drawingEngine for(int k=0; k<5; k++){ [self.drawingEngine assignCmd:[DrawingCmd setDrawingInformation:(10*k):0:@"dummy.png"]]; [self.drawingEngine setNeedsDisplay]; } It can draw, but the sad thing is it only draw the last one. Why? and how to fix it? I can draw all the things in my First code, but after I take the loop outside, and use the loop in last code, it just only draw the last one. Plz help

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  • Scalable Database Tagging Schema

    - by Longpoke
    EDIT: To people building tagging systems. Don't read this. It is not what you are looking for. I asked this when I wasn't aware that RDBMS all have their own optimization methods, just use a simple many to many scheme. I have a posting system that has millions of posts. Each post can have an infinite number of tags associated with it. Users can create tags which have notes, date created, owner, etc. A tag is almost like a post itself, because people can post notes about the tag. Each tag association has an owner and date, so we can see who added the tag and when. My question is how can I implement this? It has to be fast searching posts by tag, or tags by post. Also, users can add tags to posts by typing the name into a field, kind of like the google search bar, it has to fill in the rest of the tag name for you. I have 3 solutions at the moment, but not sure which is the best, or if there is a better way. Note that I'm not showing the layout of notes since it will be trivial once I get a proper solution for tags. Method 1. Linked list tagId in post points to a linked list in tag_assoc, the application must traverse the list until flink=0 post: id, content, ownerId, date, tagId, notesId tag_assoc: id, tagId, ownerId, flink tag: id, name, notesId Method 2. Denormalization tags is simply a VARCHAR or TEXT field containing a tab delimited array of tagId:ownerId. It cannot be a fixed size. post: id, content, ownerId, date, tags, notesId tag: id, name, notesId Method 3. Toxi (from: http://www.pui.ch/phred/archives/2005/04/tags-database-schemas.html, also same thing here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/20856/how-do-you-recommend-implementing-tags-or-tagging) post: id, content, ownerId, date, notesId tag_assoc: ownerId, tagId, postId tag: id, name, notesId Method 3 raises the question, how fast will it be to iterate through every single row in tag_assoc? Methods 1 and 2 should be fast for returning tags by post, but for posts by tag, another lookup table must be made. The last thing I have to worry about is optimizing searching tags by name, I have not worked that out yet. I made an ASCII diagram here: http://pastebin.com/f1c4e0e53

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  • Delphi Unit local variables - how to make each instance unique?

    - by Justin
    Ok, this, I'm sure is something simple that is easy to do. The problem : I've inherited scary spaghetti code and am slowly trying to better it when new features need adding - generally when a refactor makes adding the new feature neater. I've got a bunch of code I'm packing into a single unit which, in different places in the application, controls the same physical thing in the outside world. The control appears in several places in the application and operates slightly differently in each instance. What I've done is to create a unit with all of the features I need which I can simply drop, as a frame, into each form that requires it. Each form then uses the unit's interface methods to customise the behaviour for each instance. The problem within the problem : In the unit in question (the frame) I have a variable declared in the IMPLEMENTATION section - local to the unit. I also have a procedure, declared in the TYPE section which takes an argument and assigns that argument to the local variable in question - each form passes a unique variable to each instance of the frame/unit. What I want it to do is for each instance of the frame to keep its own version of that variable, different from the others, and use that to define how it operates. What seems to be happening, however, is that all instances are using the same value, even if I explicitly pass each instance a different variable. ie: Unit FlexibleUnit; interface uses //the uses stuff type TFlexibleUnit=class(TFrame) //declarations including procedure makeThisInstanceX(passMeTheVar:integer); private // public // end; implementation uses //the uses var myLocalVar; procedure makeThisInstanceX(passMeTheVar:integer); begin myLocalVar:=passMeTheVar; end; //other procedures using myLocalVar //etc to the end; Now somewhere in another Form I've dropped this Frame onto the Design pane, sometimes two of these frames on one Form, and have it declared in the proper places, etc. Each is unique in that : ThisFlexibleUnit : TFlexibleUnit; ThatFlexibleUnit : TFlexibleUnit; and when I do a: ThisFlexibleUnit.makeThisInstanceX(var1); //want to behave in way "var1" ThatFlexibleUnit.makeThisInstanceX(var2); //want to behave in way "var2" it seems that they both share the same variable "myLocalVar". Am I doing this wrong, in principle? If this is the correct method then it's a matter of debugging what I have (which is too huge to post) but if this is not correct in principle then is there a way to do what I am suggesting? Thanks in advance, Stack Overflow - you guys (and gals!) are legendary.

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  • How to handle environment-specific application configuration organization-wide?

    - by Stuart Lange
    Problem Your organization has many separate applications, some of which interact with each other (to form "systems"). You need to deploy these applications to separate environments to facilitate staged testing (for example, DEV, QA, UAT, PROD). A given application needs to be configured slightly differently in each environment (each environment has a separate database, for example). You want this re-configuration to be handled by some sort of automated mechanism so that your release managers don't have to manually configure each application every time it is deployed to a different environment. Desired Features I would like to design an organization-wide configuration solution with the following properties (ideally): Supports "one click" deployments (only the environment needs to be specified, and no manual re-configuration during/after deployment should be necessary). There should be a single "system of record" where a shared environment-dependent property is specified (such as a database connection string that is shared by many applications). Supports re-configuration of deployed applications (in the event that an environment-specific property needs to change), ideally without requiring a re-deployment of the application. Allows an application to be run on the same machine, but in different environments (run a PROD instance and a DEV instance simultaneously). Possible Solutions I see two basic directions in which a solution could go: Make all applications "environment aware". You would pass the environment name (DEV, QA, etc) at the command line to the app, and then the app is "smart" enough to figure out the environment-specific configuration values at run-time. The app could fetch the values from flat files deployed along with the app, or from a central configuration service. Applications are not "smart" as they are in #1, and simply fetch configuration by property name from config files deployed with the app. The values of these properties are injected into the config files at deploy-time by the install program/script. That install script takes the environment name and fetches all relevant configuration values from a central configuration service. Question How would/have you achieved a configuration solution that solves these problems and supports these desired features? Am I on target with the two possible solutions? Do you have a preference between those solutions? Also, please feel free to tell me that I'm thinking about the problem all wrong. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Memory issues - Living vs. overall -> app is killed

    - by D33
    I'm trying to check my applications memory issues in Instruments. When I load the application I play some sounds and show some animations in UIImageViews. To save some memory I load the sounds only when I need it and when I stop playing it I free it from the memory. problem 1: My application is using about 5.5MB of Living memory. BUT The Overall section is growing after start to 20MB and then it's slowly growing (about 100kB/sec). But responsible Library is OpenAL (OAL::Buffer), dyld (_dyld_start)-I am not sure what this really is, and some other stuff like ft_mem_qrealloc, CGFontStrikeSetValue, … problem 2: When the overall section breaks about 30MB, application crashes (is killed). According to the facts I already read about overall memory, it means then my all allocations and deallocation is about 30MB. But I don't really see the problem. When I need some sound for example I load it to the memory and when I don't need it anymore I release it. But that means when I load 1MB sound, this operation increase overall memory usage with 2MB. Am I right? And when I load 10 sounds my app crashes just because the fact my overall is too high even living is still low??? I am very confused about it. Could someone please help me clear it up? (I am on iOS 5 and using ARC) SOME CODE: creating the sound OpenAL: MYOpenALSound *sound = [[MyOpenALSound alloc] initWithSoundFile:filename willRepeat:NO]; if(!sound) return; [soundDictionary addObject:sound]; playing: [sound play]; dispatch_after(dispatch_time(DISPATCH_TIME_NOW, ((sound.duration * sound.pitch) + 0.1) * NSEC_PER_SEC), dispatch_get_current_queue(), ^{ [soundDictionary removeObjectForKey:[NSNumber numberWithInt:soundID]]; }); } creating the sound with AVAudioPlayer: [musics replaceObjectAtIndex:ID_MUSIC_MAP withObject:[[Music alloc] initWithFilename:@"mapMusic.mp3" andWillRepeat:YES]]; pom = [musics objectAtIndex:musicID]; [pom playMusic]; and stop and free it: [musics replaceObjectAtIndex:ID_MUSIC_MAP withObject:[NSNull null]]; AND IMAGE ANIMATIONS: I load images from big PNG file (this is realated also to my other topic : Memory warning - UIImageView and its animations) I have few UIImageViews and by time I'm setting animation arrays to play Animations... UIImage *source = [[UIImage alloc] initWithCGImage:[[UIImage imageNamed:@"imageSource.png"] CGImage]]; cutRect = CGRectMake(0*dimForImg.width,1*dimForImg.height,dimForImg.width,dimForImg.height); image1 = [[UIImage alloc] initWithCGImage:CGImageCreateWithImageInRect([source CGImage], cutRect)]; cutRect = CGRectMake(1*dimForImg.width,1*dimForImg.height,dimForImg.width,dimForImg.height); ... image12 = [[UIImage alloc] initWithCGImage:CGImageCreateWithImageInRect([source CGImage], cutRect)]; NSArray *images = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:image1, image2, image3, image4, image5, image6, image7, image8, image9, image10, image11, image12, image12, image12, nil]; and this array I just use simply like : myUIImageView.animationImages = images, ... duration -> startAnimating

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  • Stepping into Ruby Meta-Programming: Generating proxy methods for multiple internal methods

    - by mstksg
    Hi all; I've multiply heard Ruby touted for its super spectacular meta-programming capabilities, and I was wondering if anyone could help me get started with this problem. I have a class that works as an "archive" of sorts, with internal methods that process and output data based on an input. However, the items in the archive in the class itself are represented and processed with integers, for performance purposes. The actual items outside of the archive are known by their string representation, which is simply number_representation.to_s(36). Because of this, I have hooked up each internal method with a "proxy method" that converts the input into the integer form that the archive recognizes, runs the internal method, and converts the output (either a single other item, or a collection of them) back into strings. The naming convention is this: internal methods are represented by _method_name; their corresponding proxy method is represented by method_name, with no leading underscore. For example: class Archive ## PROXY METHODS ## ## input: string representation of id's ## output: string representation of id's def do_something_with id result = _do_something_with id.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 result = _do_something_with_pair id_1.to_i(36), id_2.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_these ids result = _do_something_with_these ids.map { |n| n.to_i(36) } return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def get_many_from id result = _get_many_from id return nil if result == nil # no sparse arrays returned return result.map { |n| n.to_s(36) } end ## INTERNAL METHODS ## ## input: integer representation of id's ## output: integer representation of id's def _do_something_with id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returning an id represented as an integer end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 # does something with two integer-represented id's, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _do_something_with_these ids # does something with multiple integer ids, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _get_many_from id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returns a collection of id's represented as integers end end There are a couple of reasons why I can't just convert them if id.class == String at the beginning of the internal methods: These internal methods are somewhat computationally-intensive recursive functions, and I don't want the overhead of checking multiple times at every step There is no way, without adding an extra parameter, to tell whether or not to re-convert at the end I want to think of this as an exercise in understanding ruby meta-programming Does anyone have any ideas? edit The solution I'd like would preferably be able to take an array of method names @@PROXY_METHODS = [:do_something_with, :do_something_with_pair, :do_something_with_these, :get_many_from] iterate through them, and in each iteration, put out the proxy method. I'm not sure what would be done with the arguments, but is there a way to test for arguments of a method? If not, then simple duck typing/analogous concept would do as well.

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  • expand div with focus-jquery

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, I'm revisiting this after a few weeks, because I could never get it to work before, and hoping to now. Please look at this website-notice the newsletter signup form at the top right. http://www.rattletree.com I am wanting it to look exactly this way for now, but when the user clicks in the box to enter their email address, the containing div will expand (or simply appear) above the email field to also include a "name" and "city" field. I'm using jquery liberally in the sight, so that is at my disposal. This form is in the header so any id info, etc can't be withing the body tag... This is what I have so far: <div class="outeremailcontainer"> <div id="emailcontainer"> <?php include('verify.php'); ?> <form action="index_success.php" method="post" id="sendEmail" class="email"> <h3 class="register2">Newsletter Signup:</h3> <ul class="forms email"> <li class="email"><label for="emailFrom">Email: </label> <input type="text" name="emailFrom" class="info" id="emailFrom" value="<?= $_POST['emailFrom']; ?>" /> <?php if(isset($emailFromError)) echo '<span class="error">'.$emailFromError.'</span>'; ?> </li> <li class="buttons email"> <button type="submit" id="submit">Send</button> <input type="hidden" name="submitted" id="submitted" value="true" /> </li> </ul> </form> <div class="clearing"> </div> </div> css: p.emailbox{ text-align:center; margin:0; } p.emailbox:first-letter { font-size: 120%; font-weight: bold; } .outeremailcontainer { height:60px; width: 275px; background-image:url(/images/feather_email2.jpg); /*background-color:#fff;*/ text-align:center; /* margin:-50px 281px 0 auto ; */ float:right; position:relative; z-index:1; } form.email{ position:relative; } #emailcontainer { margin:0; padding: 0 auto; z-index:1000; display:block; position:relative; } Thanks for any help! Joel

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  • C# DLL Deployed in COM+. Error while accessing the methods.

    - by Dakshinamurthy
    I have the C# Dll (ABService) deployed in COM + and my os Is windows 2008. I have given the strong name for this dll and its dependent dll’s When I access the method of this dll through localhost or if I add the reference to the client project the method are executed successfully. Simply if I access the dll from the same machine with the reference it is working. So I think there is no problem with the way I deployed in the COM +. I have the doubt whether I have the problem in OS and Visual Studio 2008 combination. I have built all the dll with the Visual Studio 2008 with Target cpu as x86 and targert framework as 2.0. I have given in below the codes I have tried with and the errors. I need to create the object for the dll in server machine(64 bit) and access its method from the client(32 bit) Code : Type svr = Type.GetTypeFromProgID("ABService.Service", strserver1url[2],false); ABService.Service service1= (ABService.Service)Activator.CreateInstance(svr); strresult = service1.ExecuteService(orequest.xml); Error :{"Retrieving the COM class factory for remote component with CLSID {77BF00E0-41AC-3967-9E72-A4927CC0B880} from machine 10.105.138.64 failed due to the following error: 80040154."} Code Type svr = Type.GetTypeFromProgID("ABService.Service", strserver1url[2],true); object Service1 = null; Service1 = (ABService.Service)Activator.CreateInstance(svr, true); strresult = Convert.ToString(ReflectionHelper.Invoke(Service1, "ExecuteService", new object[] { orequest.xml })); Service1 = null; Error: Retrieving the COM class factory for remote component with CLSID {77BF00E0-41AC-3967-9E72-A4927CC0B880} from machine ftpsite failed due to the following error: 80040154. With the below code instead of C#.Net dll if i have the vb dll in Com + the method is executed successfully. Code ords = new RDS.DataSpace(); ords.InternetTimeout = 600000; object M_Service = null; ABService.Service oabservice = null; M_Service = ords.CreateObject("ABService.Service",url); strresult = Convert.ToString(ReflectionHelper.Invoke(M_Service, "ExecuteService", new object[] { orequest.xml })); Error : {"Object doesn't support this property or method 'ExecuteService'"} Code object obj=Interaction.CreateObject("ABService.Service", "10.105.138.64"); strresult = Convert.ToString(ReflectionHelper.Invoke(obj, "ExecuteService", new object[] { orequest.xml })); Error: {"Cannot create ActiveX component."} Code object obj = Activator.GetObject(typeof(ABService.Service), @"http://10.105.138.64:80/ABANET"); strresult = Convert.ToString(ReflectionHelper.Invoke(obj, "ExecuteService", new object[] { orequest.xml })); Error: InnerException {"The remote server returned an error: (405) Method Not Allowed."} System.Exception {System.Net.WebException} Message "Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation.”

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  • How to return a property name when comparing two properties at class-level

    - by CodeMonkey
    Hi I have implemented an 'EqualTo' Validation Attribute, that compares two Properties of an object, during ModelBinding in ASP.NET MVC 2. The problem I have is not with it not working, because it does work. The problem is, when I do my request - which is an ajax request - I get back errors to my front-end, where it sets a class on the input fields to indicate invalid input. What it does is iterate through a list of Errors (in a JsonResult), and set a class. This is all dandy. But the ValidationAtrribute I am having trouble with is set at a Class-level, i.e., it's not like other ValidationAttributes where you set something like "[Required]" or something like that. [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple=true, Inherited=false)] public class EqualToAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public String SourceProperty { get; set; } public String MatchProperty { get; set; } public EqualToAttribute(string source, string match) { SourceProperty = source; MatchProperty = match; } public override Boolean IsValid(Object value) { Type objectType = value.GetType(); PropertyInfo[] properties = objectType.GetProperties(); object sourceValue = new object(); object matchValue = new object(); Type sourceType = null; Type matchType = null; int counter = 0; foreach (PropertyInfo propertyInfo in properties) { if (propertyInfo.Name == SourceProperty || propertyInfo.Name == MatchProperty) { if (counter == 0) { sourceValue = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null); sourceType = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null).GetType(); } if (counter == 1) { matchValue = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null); matchType = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null).GetType(); } counter++; if (counter == 2) { break; } } } if (sourceType != null && matchType != null) { return sourceValue.ToString().Equals(matchValue.ToString()); //return Convert.ChangeType(sourceValue, sourceType) == Convert.ChangeType(matchValue, matchType); } return false; } private object _typeId = new object(); public override object TypeId { get { return this._typeId; } } } Now this code works, except for the fact that the validation process does not return which Property failed. And I simply can't figure out how to make it return one of the two. In reality I don't care which one it returns.. because both are failing.. Do you have an idea how to make it return the/or both Property/Properties that is/are failing.

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  • Wordpress pages address rewrite

    - by kemp
    UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

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  • Xcode + Perforce: it frequently shows me the spinning wheel for no reason! What can i do?

    - by GamingHorror
    While working on an Xcode project i keep getting the spinning wheel while switching files, scrolling, searching, typing, debugging, removing breakpoints, switching back from another app or saving. It also happens before compiling but usually it just happens from time to time for no apparent reason. This is the second time this started happening in a Xcode project and it's driving me nuts. It completely breaks my flow of work to have to wait for the spinning wheel to go away (2-5 seconds). What on earth could i possibly do to ... figure out what's causing the problem? resolve the problem? More details: When any project is small, everything is super-smooth with Xcode and Perforce. Two of my projects eventually had this spinning wheel problem after about 4 weeks of work. It only happened with those two projects so far. They consist of around 1000-1200 files in source control, most of them assets. The problem occurs even if i manually check out the whole project in Perforce. The problem is gone when i copy the project directory and work in the copy which is no longer under source control, or if i create a branch in Perforce and work in the branch (under source control). One of these projects i shared with a colleague, and he had exactly the same issues on his Mac. We eventually switched to Subversion and the spinning-wheel issue immediately went away. Now that i've received an updated copy of the project and simply put it under Perforce as a new project, the problem also went away (so far it did not resurface). It leads me to think that it may be caused by a larger number of file revisions. The server itself (version 2009.1) is on a different (Windows) machine on my LAN, so there's definetely no Internet lag involved. The complete repository is just 1 GB in size spread over a dozen projects or so. I'm sorry if the question seems more like a support inquiry for Perforce. However i'm using the free version of Perforce so i'm not entitled to get support from them. I hope no one minds me asking here. I'm really bummed out by this. I don't want to have to create a new branch for the project each time the spinning wheel problem surfaces.

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  • Setting shadowColor with property syntax gives compiler error: Expected identifier before '[' token.

    - by sam
    I have an iPad app in which I'm setting the shadow color of a UILabel in a UIView's initWithFrame: method. When I use the following syntax: m_label.shadowColor = [UIColor colorWithWhite:1.0 alpha:0.5]; I get this compiler error: Expected identifier before '[' token However, when I use the following syntax: [m_label setShadowColor:[UIColor colorWithWhite:1.0 alpha:0.5]]; It compiles without complaint. Using property syntax for other properties of the UILabel is working fine (shadowOffset, autoresizingMask, backgroundColor, font, textColor, etc.). Incidentally, I get the same error message when the statement is simply this: m_label.shadowColor; Whereas this, for example, gives no error: m_label.shadowOffset; FWIW, the entire method looks like this: #define shadowColor [UIColor colorWithWhite:1.00 alpha:0.5] #define selectedColor [UIColor colorWithWhite:0.25 alpha:1.0] #define unselectedColor [UIColor colorWithWhite:0.45 alpha:1.0] #define CLOSEBUTTON_WIDTH 26.0 #define CLOSEBUTTON_HEIGHT 26.0 - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if ((self = [super initWithFrame:frame])) { m_imageView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, self.frame.size.width, self.frame.size.height)]; m_imageView.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight; m_imageView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; m_imageView.image = [[UIImage imageNamed:@"tab.png"] stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:8.0 topCapHeight:0.0]; m_imageView.highlightedImage = [[UIImage imageNamed:@"tabSelected.png"] stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:8.0 topCapHeight:0.0]; m_label = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; m_label.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight; m_label.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; m_label.font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:12.0]; m_label.textColor = unselectedColor; m_label.shadowOffset = CGSizeMake(0.0, 1.0); m_label.shadowColor = shadowColor; // Expected identifier before '[' token [m_label setShadowColor:shadowColor]; m_closeButton = [[UIButton alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(9.0, 1.0, CLOSEBUTTON_WIDTH, CLOSEBUTTON_HEIGHT)]; [m_closeButton setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"tabClose.png"] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [m_closeButton addTarget:self action:@selector(closeTab) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [self addSubview:m_imageView]; [self addSubview:m_label]; [self addSubview:m_closeButton]; self.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; } return self; } Any ideas?

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  • Specializating a template function that takes a universal reference parameter

    - by David Stone
    How do I specialize a template function that takes a universal reference parameter? foo.hpp: template<typename T> void foo(T && t) // universal reference parameter foo.cpp template<> void foo<Class>(Class && class) { // do something complicated } Here, Class is no longer a deduced type and thus is Class exactly; it cannot possibly be Class &, so reference collapsing rules will not help me here. I could perhaps create another specialization that takes a Class & parameter (I'm not sure), but that implies duplicating all of the code contained within foo for every possible combination of rvalue / lvalue references for all parameters, which is what universal references are supposed to avoid. Is there some way to accomplish this? To be more specific about my problem in case there is a better way to solve it: I have a program that can connect to multiple game servers, and each server, for the most part, calls everything by the same name. However, they have slightly different versions for a few things. There are a few different categories that these things can be: a move, an item, etc. I have written a generic sort of "move string to move enum" set of functions for internal code to call, and my server interface code has similar functions. However, some servers have their own internal ID that they communicate with, some use strings, and some use both in different situations. Now what I want to do is make this a little more generic. I want to be able to call something like ServerNamespace::server_cast<Destination>(source). This would allow me to cast from a Move to a std::string or ServerMoveID. Internally, I may need to make a copy (or move from) because some servers require that I keep a history of messages sent. Universal references seem to be the obvious solution to this problem. The header file I'm thinking of right now would expose simply this: namespace ServerNamespace { template<typename Destination, typename Source> Destination server_cast(Source && source); } And the implementation file would define all legal conversions as template specializations.

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  • Any thoughts on how to create a true 'punch-out' area in a Sprite?

    - by rhtx
    I've been working on this for awhile, now. You might also call it a 'reverse mask', or an 'inverse mask'. Basically, I'm creating a view window within a display object. I need to allow objects on the stage that are under the window to be able to interact with the mouse. This is similar to a WPF question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/740994/use-wpf-object-to-punch-hole-in-another, which has a much shorter write-up. I've got a Class called PunchOutShield, which creates a Sprite that covers the stage (or over some desired area). The Sprite's Graphics object is filled using the color and transparency of Flex's modal screen. The result is a screen that looks like the screen which appears behind a modal PopUp. PunchOutShield has a method called punch, which takes two arguments - the first is a Shape object, which defines the shape of the punch-through area; the second is a Point object, which indicates where to position the punch-through area. It took some experimenting, but I found that I can successfully create a punch-out area (i.e. - the modal screen does not display within the bounds of the given Shape). To do this, I set cacheAsBitmap to true on the Sprite that is used to create the modal screen, and also on the Shape object, which is added to the modal screen Sprite's displayList. If I set the blend mode of the Shape to ERASE, a completely transparent area is created in the modal screen. So far, great. The problem is that Shape does not subclass InteractiveObject, so there is no way to set mouseEnabled = false on it. And so, it prevents interaction between the mouse and any objects that are visible through the punch-out area. On top of that, InteractiveObject isn't available to look at, so I can't see if there is a way to borrow what it's doing to provide the mouseEnabled functionality and apply it to a subclass of Shape. I've tried using another Sprite object, rather than a Shape object, but the blending doesn't work out correctly. I'm not sure why there is a difference, but the Shape object seems to somehow combine with the parenting Sprite, allowing the ERASE blendMode to effect the desired punch-out visual appearance. It wouldn't be the end of the world if I had to draw up the screen with a series of rectangles so that the punch-out area was just simply not drawn, but that approach won't work if the punch-out area is complex. Or round. Any thoughts on this approach, or on an alternative approach?

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  • Recommended ASP.NET Shared Hosting

    - by coffeeaddict
    Ok, I have to admit I'm getting fed up with www.discountasp.net's pricing model and this annoyance has built up over the past 8 years or so. I've been with them for years and absolutely love them on the technical side, however it's getting ridiculously expensive for so little that you get. I mean here's my scenario: 1) I am running 2 SQL Server databases which costs me $10/ea per month so that's $20/month for 2 and I only get 500 mb disk space which is horrible 2) I am paying $10/mo just for the hosting itself which I only get 1 gig of disk space! I mean common! 3) I am simply running 2 small apps (Screwturn Wiki & Subtext Blog)...so I don't really care if it's up 99% or not, it's not worth paying a total of $300 just to keep these 2 apps running over discountasp.net Anyone else feel the same? Yes, I know they have great support, probably have great servers running behind this but in the end I really don't care as long as my site is up 95% or better. Yes, the hosting toolset rocks. But you know I bet you I can find a similar set somewhere else. I like how I can totally control IIS 7 at discountasp and I can control my own app pool etc. That's very powerful and essential. But anyone have any good alternatives to discountasp that gives me close to the same at a much more reasonable cost point? I mean http://www.m6.net/prices.aspx gives you 10 SQL Databases for $7 and 200 gigs disk space! I don't know about their tools or support but just looking at those numbers and some other hosts I've seen, I feel that discountasp.net is way out of line. They don't even offer any purchasing discounts such as it would be nice if my 2nd SQL Server is only $5/month not $10...stuff like this, to make it much more realistic and fair. Opinions (people who do have discountasp.net, people who have left them, or people who have another host they like)??? But geez $300 just to host a couple DBs and lightweight open source apps? Not worth the price they are charging. I'm almost at a price point that enables me to get a decent dedicated server! I really don't care about beta support. Not a big deal to me.

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  • MySQL - Calculating fields on the fly vs storing calculated data

    - by Christian Varga
    Hi Everyone, I apologise if this has been asked before, but I can't seem to find an answer to a question that I have about calculating on the fly vs storing fields in a database. I read a few articles that suggested it was preferable to calculate when you can, but I would just like to know if that still applies to the following 2 examples. Example 1. Say you are storing data relating to a car. You store the fuel tank size in litres, and how many litres it uses per 100km. You also want to know how many KMs it can travel, which can be calculated from the tank size and economy. I see 2 ways of doing this: When a car is added or updated, calculate the amount of KMs and store this as a static field in the database. Every time a car is accessed, calculate the amount of KMs on the fly. Because the cars economy/tank size doesn't change (although it could be edited), the KMs is a pretty static value. I don't see why we would calculate it every single time the car is accessed. Wouldn't this waste cpu time as opposed to simply storing it in a separate field in the database and calculating only when a car is added or updated? My next example, which is almost an entirely different question (but on the same topic), relates to counting children. Let's say we have a app which has categories and items. We have a view where we display all the categories, and a count of all the items inside each category. Again, I'm wondering what's better. To perform a MySQL query to count all the items in each category every single time the page is accessed? Or store the count in a field in the categories table and update when an item is added / deleted? I know it is redundant to store anything that can be calculated, but I worry that calculating fields or counting records might be slow as opposed to storing the data in a field. If it's not then please let me know, I just want to learn about when to use either method. On a small scale I guess it wouldn't matter either way, but apps like Facebook, would they really count the amount of friends you have every time someone views your profile or would they just store it as a field? I'd appreciate any responses to both of these scenarios, and any resource that might explain the benefits of calculating vs storing. Thanks in advance, Christian

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