Search Results

Search found 19703 results on 789 pages for 'virtual ip'.

Page 415/789 | < Previous Page | 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422  | Next Page >

• Starting a code library.

  - by Rob Stevenson-Leggett

  Hi, I've been meaning to start a library of reusable code snippets for a while and never seem to get round to it. I think my main problems are: Where to start. What structure should my library take? Should it be a compiled library (where appropriate or just classes I can drop into any project? Or a library project that can be included? In my experience, a built library will quickly become out of date and the source will get lost. So I'm leaning towards source libraries that I can export from SVN and include in any project. Intellectual property. I am employeed, so a lot of the code I write is not my IP. How can I ensure that I don't give my own IP away using it on projects in work and at home? I'm thinking the best way would be to licence my library with an open source licence and make sure I only add to it in my own time using my own equipment and therefore making sure that if I use it in a work project the same rules apply as if I was using a third party library. I write in many different languages and often would require two or more parts of this library. Should I look at implementing a few template projects and a core project for each of my chosen reusable components and languages? Has anyone else got this sort of library and how do you organise and update it?

  Read the article

• google maps api keys to be set webserver-wide, (as env var? inside apache?)

  - by ~knb

  I have a web site with many virtual hosts and each registered with several domain names (ending in .org, .de), site1.mysite.de, site2.mysite.org Then I have different templating systems based on several programming languages (perl and php) in use on the web server. The Google Maps Api requires a unique Google Maps api key for each vhost. I want to have something like a web-server wide variable $goomapkey that I can call from inside my code. In PHP code, Now I have a kludgy case-analysis solution like $domain = substr($_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], -3); if (".de" == $domain){ //if ("xxxxxx" eq substr($ENV{SERVER_NAME}, 0, 5)){ // $gookey = "ABQIAAA..."; //} else { //site1.de $gookey = "ABQIAAAA1Js..."; //} } elseif ("dev" == substr($_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], 0, 3)){ //dev.mysite.org $gookey = "ABQIAAAA1JsSb..."; } else { //www.mysite.org $gookey = "ABQIAAAA1JsS..."; //TODO: Add more keys for each virtual host, for my.machinename.de, IP-address based URL, ... } ... inside my php-based CMS. A non-ideal solution, because it is, php-only, and I still have to set it at several html templates inside the CMS, and there are too many cases. I want the google maps api key to be set by the apache web server who examines the request *early in the request loop before any php page template code is constructed and evaluated. is an environment variable a good solution? which technology should be used to set the $goomapkey variable? I'd prefer mod_perl2 Apache request handler, but the documentation is confusing (many API changes in the past ). Which Apache module could I use? Is there a built-in Apache module that does the same thing?

  Read the article

• Recommendations for IPC between parent and child processes in .NET?

  - by Jeremy

  My .NET program needs to run an algorithm that makes heavy use of 3rd party libraries (32-bit), most of which are unmanaged code. I want to drive the CPU as hard as I can, so the code runs several threads in parallel to divide up the work. I find that running all these threads simultaneously results in temporary memory spikes, causing the process' virtual memory size to approach the 2 GB limit. This memory is released back pretty quickly, but occasionally if enough threads enter the wrong sections of code at once, the process crosses the "red line" and either the unmanaged code or the .NET code encounters an out of memory error. I can throttle back the number of threads but then my CPU usage is not as high as I would like. I am thinking of creating worker processes rather than worker threads to help avoid the out of memory errors, since doing so would give each thread of execution its own 2 GB of virtual address space (my box has lots of RAM). I am wondering what are the best/easiest methods to communicate the input and output between the processes in .NET? The file system is an obvious choice. I am used to shared memory, named pipes, and such from my UNIX background. Is there a Windows or .NET specific mechanism I should use?

  Read the article

• Can a custom MFC window/dialog be a class template instantiation?

  - by John

  There's a bunch of special macros that MFC uses when creating dialogs, and in my quick tests I'm getting weird errors trying to compile a template dialog class. Is this likely to be a big pain to achieve? Here's what I tried: MyDlg.h template <class W> class CMyDlg : public CDialog { typedef CDialog super; DECLARE_DYNAMIC(CMyDlg <W>) public: CMyDlg (CWnd* pParent); // standard constructor virtual ~CMyDlg (); // Dialog Data enum { IDD = IDD_MYDLG }; protected: virtual void DoDataExchange(CDataExchange* pDX); // DDX/DDV support DECLARE_MESSAGE_MAP() private: W *m_pWidget; //W will always be a CDialog }; IMPLEMENT_DYNAMIC(CMyDlg<W>, super) <------------------- template <class W> CMyDlg<W>::CMyDlg(CWnd* pParent) : super(CMyDlg::IDD, pParent) { m_pWidget = new W(this); } I get a whole bunch of errors but main one appears to be: error C2955: 'CMyDlg' : use of class template requires template argument list I tried using some specialised template versions of macros but it doesn't help much, other errors change but this one remains. Note my code is all in one file, since C++ templates don't like .h/.cpp like normal. I'm assuming someone must have done this in the past, possibly creating custom versions of macros, but I can't find it by searching, since 'template' has other meanings.

  Read the article

• How to structure this Symfony web project?

  - by James William

  I am new to Symfony and am not sure how to best structure my web project. The solution must accommodate 3 use cases: Public access to www.mydomain.com for general use Member only access to member.mydomain.com Administrator access to admin.mydomain.com All three virtual hosts point to the Symfony /web directory Questions: Is this 3 separate applications in my Symfony project (e.g. "frontend", "backend" and "admin" or "public", "member", "admin")? Is this a good approach if there is to be some duplicate code (e.g. generating a member list would be common across all 3 applications, but presented differently)? How would I route to the various applications based on the subdomain when a user accesses *.mydomain.com? Where in Symfony should this routing logic be placed? Or, is this one application with modules for each of the above use cases? EDIT: I do not have access to httpd.conf in apache to specify a default page for virtual hosts. I can only specify a directory for each subdomain using the hostin provider's cPanel.

  Read the article

• Getting functions of inherited functions to be called

  - by wrongusername

  Let's say I have a base class Animal from which a class Cow inherits, and a Barn class containing an Animal vector, and let's say the Animal class has a virtual function scream(), which Cow overrides. With the following code: Animal.h #ifndef _ANIMAL_H #define _ANIMAL_H #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Animal { public: Animal() {}; virtual void scream() {cout << "aaaAAAAAAAAAAGHHHHHHHHHH!!! ahhh..." << endl;} }; #endif /* _ANIMAL_H */ Cow.h #ifndef _COW_H #define _COW_H #include "Animal.h" class Cow: public Animal { public: Cow() {} void scream() {cout << "MOOooooOOOOOOOO!!!" << endl;} }; #endif /* _COW_H */ Barn.h #ifndef _BARN_H #define _BARN_H #include "Animal.h" #include <vector> class Barn { std::vector<Animal> animals; public: Barn() {} void insertAnimal(Animal animal) {animals.push_back(animal);} void tortureAnimals() { for(int a = 0; a < animals.size(); a++) animals[a].scream(); } }; #endif /* _BARN_H */ and finally main.cpp #include <stdlib.h> #include "Barn.h" #include "Cow.h" #include "Chicken.h" /* * */ int main(int argc, char** argv) { Barn barn; barn.insertAnimal(Cow()); barn.tortureAnimals(); return (EXIT_SUCCESS); } I get this output: aaaAAAAAAAAAAGHHHHHHHHHH!!! ahhh... How should I code this to get MOOooooOOOOOOOO!!! (and whatever other classes inheriting Animal wants scream() to be) instead?

  Read the article

• How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

  - by Dimitri C.

  In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

  Read the article

• Link failure with either abnormal memory consumption or LNK1106 in Visual Studio 2005.

  - by Corvin

  Hello, I am trying to build a solution for windows XP in Visual Studio 2005. This solution contains 81 projects (static libs, exe's, dlls) and is being successfully used by our partners. I copied the solution bundle from their repository and tried setting it up on 3 similar machines of people in our group. I was successful on two machines and the solution failed to build on my machine. The build on my machine encountered two problems: During a simple build creation of the biggest static library (about 522Mb in debug mode) would fail with the message "13libd\ui1d.lib : fatal error LNK1106: invalid file or disk full: cannot seek to 0x20101879" Full solution rebuild creates this library, however when it comes to linking the library to main .exe file, devenv.exe spawns link.exe which consumes about 80Mb of physical memory and 250MB of virtual and spawns another link.exe, which does the same. This goes on until the system runs out of memory. On PCs of my colleagues where successful build could be performed, there is only one link.exe process which uses all the memory required for linking (about 500Mb physical). There is a plenty of hard drive space on my machine and the file system is NTFS. All three of our systems are similar - Core2Quad processors, 4Gb of RAM, Windows XP SP3. We are using Visual studio installed from the same source. I tried using a different RAM and CPU, using dedicated graphics adapter to eliminate possibility of video memory sharing influencing the build, putting solution files to different location, using different versions of VS 2005 (Professional, Standard and Team Suite), changing the amount of available virtual memory, running memtest86 and building the project from scratch (i.e. a clean bundle). I have read what MSDN says about LNK1106, none of the cases apply to me except for maybe "out of heap space", however I am not sure how I should fight this. The only idea that I have left is reinstalling the OS, however I am not sure that it would help and I am not sure that my situation wouldn't repeat itself on a different machine. Would anyone have any sort of advice for me? Thanks

  Read the article

• Local Network - Windows 7 and Vista can't see each other

  - by ca8msm

  I've got a strange issue at home that has been bugging me for weeks, but I really need to get it sorted now so I'll detail as much as I can and hopefully someone can spot what might might be wrong. I have a wireless router connected to the internet and 3 devices connected to it. They are: Name OS Network IPv4 PC1 Windows 7 WORKGROUP 192.168.2.2 LAPTOP1 Vista WORKGROUP 192.168.2.3 PS3 192.168.2.4 and they all get their IP addresses dynamically. Both PC1 and LAPTOP1 can ping PS3 and get a response. PC1 and LAPTOP1 are unable to ping each other by ip address unless I ping by their name (which bizarrely shows that it is pinging via the IPv6 address). Also, to confirm this both PC1 and LAPTOP1 can ping each other via the long IPv6 address that they both have so they can obviously see each other just not via IPv4. I've disabled the firewalls on both machines as well to rule that out. I don't really know what IPv6 is used for and I've tried disabling it on both machines but all that happens then is that neither machine can see each other at all then. Does anyone have any idea of what may be stopping them seeing each other, any ways I can look at fixing this, or any network tools that may help identify where it is failing? Thanks, Mark

  Read the article

• Forwarding HTTP Request with Direct Server Return

  - by Daniel Crabtree

  I have servers spread across several data centers, each storing different files. I want users to be able to access the files on all servers through a single domain and have the individual servers return the files directly to the users. The following shows a simple example: 1) The user's browser requests http://www.example.com/files/file1.zip 2) Request goes to server A, based on the DNS A record for example.com. 3) Server A analyzes the request and works out that /files/file1.zip is stored on server B. 4) Server A forwards the request to server B. 5) Server B returns file1.zip directly to the user without going through server A. Note: steps 4 and 5 must be transparent to the user and cannot involve sending a redirect to the user as that would violate the requirement of a single domain. From my research, what I want to achieve is called "Direct Server Return" and it is a common setup for load balancing. It is also sometimes called a half reverse proxy. For step 4, it sounds like I need to do MAC Address Translation and then pass the request back onto the network and for servers outside the network of server A tunneling will be required. For step 5, I simply need to configure server B, as per the real servers in a load balancing setup. Namely, server B should have server A's IP address on the loopback interface and it should not answer any ARP requests for that IP address. My problem is how to actually achieve step 4? I have found plenty of hardware and software that can do this for simple load balancing at layer 4, but these solutions fall short and cannot handle the kind of custom routing I require. It seems like I will need to roll my own solution. Ideally, I would like to do the routing / forwarding at the web server level, i.e. in PHP or C# / ASP.net. However, I am open to doing it at a lower level such as Apache or IIS, or at an even lower level, i.e. a custom proxy service in front of everything.

  Read the article

• Inheritance of TCollectionItem

  - by JamesB

  I'm planning to have collection of items stored in a TCollection. Each item will derive from TBaseItem which in turn derives from TCollectionItem, With this in mind the Collection will return TBaseItem when an item is requested. Now each TBaseItem will have a Calculate function, in the the TBaseItem this will just return an internal variable, but in each of the derivations of TBaseItem the Calculate function requires a different set of parameters. The Collection will have a Calculate All function which iterates through the collection items and calls each Calculate function, obviously it would need to pass the correct parameters to each function I can think of three ways of doing this: Create a virtual/abstract method for each calculate function in the base class and override it in the derrived class, This would mean no type casting was required when using the object but it would also mean I have to create lots of virtual methods and have a large if...else statement detecting the type and calling the correct "calculate" method, it also means that calling the calculate method is prone to error as you would have to know when writing the code which one to call for which type with the correct parameters to avoid an Error/EAbstractError. Create a record structure with all the possible parameters in and use this as the parameter for the "calculate" function. This has the added benefit of passing this to the "calculate all" function as it can contain all the parameters required and avoid a potentially very long parameter list. Just type casting the TBaseItem to access the correct calculate method. This would tidy up the TBaseItem quite alot compared to the first method. What would be the best way to handle this collection?

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC4: How do I keep from having multiple identical results in my lookup tables

  - by sehummel

  I'm new to ASP.NET so this may be an easy question. I'm seeding my database with several rows of dummy data. Here is one of my rows: new Software { Title = "Microsoft Office", Version = "2012", SerialNumber = "12346231434543", Platform = "PC", Notes = "Macs really rock!", PurchaseDate = "2011-12-04", Suite = true, SubscriptionEndDate = null, SeatCount = 0, SoftwareTypes = new List<SoftwareType> { new SoftwareType { Type="Suite" }}, Locations = new List<Location> { new Location { LocationName = "Paradise" }}, Publishers = new List<SoftwarePublisher> { new SoftwarePublisher { Publisher = "Microsoft" }}} But when I do this, a new row is created for each location, with the LocationName being set in each row like this. We only have two locations. How do I get it to create a LocationID property for the Software class and in my Locations class. Here is my Location class: public class Location { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(20)] public string LocationName { get; set; } public virtual Software Software { get; set; } } I have this line in my Software class to reference this table: public virtual List<Location> Locations { get; set; } Again, what I want when I am done is a Locations table with two entries, and a LocationID field in my Software table. How do I do this?

  Read the article

• Method not being resolved for dynamic generic type

  - by kelloti

  I have these types: public class GenericDao<T> { public T Save(T t) { return t; } } public abstract class DomainObject { // Some properties protected abstract dynamic Dao { get; } public virtual void Save() { var dao = Dao; dao.Save(this); } } public class Attachment : DomainObject { protected dynamic Dao { get { return new GenericDao<Attachment>(); } } } Then when I run this code it fails with RuntimeBinderException: Best overloaded method match for 'GenericDAO<Attachment.Save(Attachment)' has some invalid arguments var obj = new Attachment() { /* set properties */ }; obj.Save(); I've verified that in DomainObject.Save() "this" is definitely Attachment, so the error doesn't really make sense. Can anyone shed some light on why the method isn't resolving? Some more information - It succeeds if I change the contents of DomainObject.Save() to use reflection: public virtual void Save() { var dao = Dao; var type = dao.GetType(); var save = ((Type)type).GetMethod("Save"); save.Invoke(dao, new []{this}); }

  Read the article

• C# Interface Method calls from a controller

  - by ArjaaAine

  I was just working on some application architecture and this may sound like a stupid question but please explain to me how the following works: Interface: public interface IMatterDAL { IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersByCode(string input); IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersBySearch(string input); } Class: public class MatterDAL : IMatterDAL { private readonly Database _db; public MatterDAL(Database db) { _db = db; LoadAll(); //Private Method } public virtual IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersBySearch(string input) { //CODE return result; } public virtual IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersByCode(string input) { //CODE return results; } Controller: public class MatterController : ApiController { private readonly IMatterDAL _publishedData; public MatterController(IMatterDAL publishedData) { _publishedData = publishedData; } [ValidateInput(false)] public JsonResult SearchByCode(string id) { var searchText = id; //better name for this var results = _publishedData.GetMattersBySearch(searchText).Select( matter => new { MatterCode = matter.Code, MatterName = matter.Name, matter.ClientCode, matter.ClientName }); return Json(results); } This works, when I call my controller method from jquery and step into it, the call to the _publishedData method, goes into the class MatterDAL. I want to know how does my controller know to go to the MatterDAL implementation of the Interface IMatterDAL. What if I have another class called MatterDAL2 which is based on the interface. How will my controller know then to call the right method? I am sorry if this is a stupid question, this is baffling me.

  Read the article

• Fast find object by string property

  - by Andrew Kalashnikov

  Hello, colleagues. I've got task to fast find object by its string property. Object: class DicDomain { public virtual string Id{ get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } For storing my object I use List[T] dictionary where T is DicDomain for now . I've got 5-10 such lists, which contain about 500-20000 at each one. Task is find objects by its Name. I use next code now: List<T> entities = dictionary.FindAll(s => s.Name.Equals(word, StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)); I've got some questions: Is my search speed optimal. I think now. Data structure. It List good for this task. What about hashtable,sorted... Method Find. May be i should use string intern?? I haven't much exp at these tasks. Can u give me good advice for increase perfomance. Thanks

  Read the article

• NHibernate + Cannot insert the value NULL into...

  - by mybrokengnome

  I've got a MS-SQL database with a table created with this code CREATE TABLE [dbo].[portfoliomanager]( [idPortfolioManager] [int] NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY IDENTITY, [name] [varchar](45) NULL ) so that idPortfolioManager is my primary key and also auto-incrementing. Now on my Windows WPF application I'm using NHibernate to help with adding/updating/removing/etc. data from the database. Here is the class that should be connecting to the portfoliomanager table namespace PortfolioManager { [Class(Table="portfoliomanager",NameType=typeof(PortfolioManagerClass))] public class PortfolioManagerClass { [Id(Name = "idPortfolioManager")] [Generator(1, Class = "identity")] public virtual int idPortfolioManager { get; set; } [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Property(Name = "name")] public virtual string name { get; set; } public PortfolioManagerClass() { } } } and some short code to try and insert something PortfolioManagerClass portfolio = new PortfolioManagerClass(); Portfolio.name = "Brad's Portfolios"; The problem is, when I try running this, I get this error: {System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'idPortfolioManager', table 'PortfolioManagementSystem.dbo.portfoliomanager'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated... with an outer exception of {"could not insert: [PortfolioManager.PortfolioManagerClass][SQL: INSERT INTO portfoliomanager (name) VALUES (?); select SCOPE_IDENTITY()]"} I'm hoping this is the last error I'll have to solve with NHibernate just to get it to do something, it's been a long process. Just as a note, I've also tried setting Class="native" and unsaved-value="0" with the same error. Thanks! Edit: Ok removing the 1, from Generator actually allows the program to run (not sure why that was even in the samples I was looking at) but it actually doesn't get added to the database. I logged in to the server and ran the sql server profiler tool and I never see the connection coming through or the SQL its trying to run, but NHibernate isn't throwing an error anymore. Starting to think it would be easier to just write SQL statements myself :(

  Read the article

• Can a custom MFC window/dialog be a template class?

  - by John

  There's a bunch of special macros that MFC uses when creating dialogs, and in my quick tests I'm getting weird errors trying to compile a template dialog class. Is this likely to be a big pain to achieve? Here's what I tried: MyDlg.h template <class W> class CMyDlg : public CDialog { typedef CDialog super; DECLARE_DYNAMIC(CMyDlg <W>) public: CMyDlg (CWnd* pParent); // standard constructor virtual ~CMyDlg (); // Dialog Data enum { IDD = IDD_MYDLG }; protected: virtual void DoDataExchange(CDataExchange* pDX); // DDX/DDV support DECLARE_MESSAGE_MAP() private: W *m_pWidget; //W will always be a CDialog }; IMPLEMENT_DYNAMIC(CMyDlg<W>, super) <------------------- template <class W> CMyDlg<W>::CMyDlg(CWnd* pParent) : super(CMyDlg::IDD, pParent) { m_pWidget = new W(this); } I get a whole bunch of errors but main one appears to be: error C2955: 'CMyDlg' : use of class template requires template argument list I tried using some specialised template versions of macros but it doesn't help much, other errors change but this one remains. Note my code is all in one file, since C++ templates don't like .h/.cpp like normal.

  Read the article

• calling a function from a set of overloads depending on the dynamic type of an object

  - by Jasper

  I feel like the answer to this question is really simple, but I really am having trouble finding it. So here goes: Suppose you have the following classes: class Base; class Child : public Base; class Displayer { public: Displayer(Base* element); Displayer(Child* element); } Additionally, I have a Base* object which might point to either an instance of the class Base or an instance of the class Child. Now I want to create a Displayer based on the element pointed to by object, however, I want to pick the right version of the constructor. As I currently have it, this would accomplish just that (I am being a bit fuzzy with my C++ here, but I think this the clearest way) object->createDisplayer(); virtual void Base::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } virtual void Child::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } This works, however, there is a problem with this: Base and Child are part of the application system, while Displayer is part of the GUI system. I want to build the GUI system independently of the Application system, so that it is easy to replace the GUI. This means that Base and Child should not know about Displayer. However, I do not know how I can achieve this without letting the Application classes know about the GUI. Am I missing something very obvious or am I trying something that is not possible?

  Read the article

• dynamic inheritance without touching classes

  - by Jasper

  I feel like the answer to this question is really simple, but I really am having trouble finding it. So here goes: Suppose you have the following classes: class Base; class Child : public Base; class Displayer { public: Displayer(Base* element); Displayer(Child* element); } Additionally, I have a Base* object which might point to either an instance of the class Base or an instance of the class Child. Now I want to create a Displayer based on the element pointed to by object, however, I want to pick the right version of the constructor. As I currently have it, this would accomplish just that (I am being a bit fuzzy with my C++ here, but I think this the clearest way) object->createDisplayer(); virtual void Base::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } virtual void Child::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } This works, however, there is a problem with this: Base and Child are part of the application system, while Displayer is part of the GUI system. I want to build the GUI system independently of the Application system, so that it is easy to replace the GUI. This means that Base and Child should not know about Displayer. However, I do not know how I can achieve this without letting the Application classes know about the GUI. Am I missing something very obvious or am I trying something that is not possible?

  Read the article

• C# Hook Forms / Windows / Dialogs etc. (via HWND?) to Capture Video Buffer (D3D Device?)

  - by Drax

  I am looking to create a very simple C# application which runs Full-Screen in Direct3D, and is able to grab the Desktop 'scene', mapping each Window from the Desktop to a Textured Polygon in my D3D Scene... I'm hoping to create a simplistic "3D Desktop" type of application as an experiment, and I'm wondering if there is a specific method for doing something like the following: 1)Get a list of all the Windows open on the Desktop (List of HWNDs?). 2)Grab the X,Y position of each Window, as well as the Width and Height. 3)Grab the Rendered image of each Window (magic happens here). 4)Create a new Texture/Surface in D3D using the Width and Height of the Window(s), and apply the Image we grabbed as a Texture. Is there an efficient 'best practice' for acquiring the actual image(s) being rendered to the Desktop? Is there also a 'best practice' for "extending the desktop" to a virtual second, third, etc. "desktop" and being able to swap between them, including creating a unique instance of the task-bar for each virtual desktop. Thanks a million for any suggestions!

  Read the article

• passing the parent form on the onclick event to javascript function

  - by user1051505

  Hi I am trying to pass variables on the onclick event to a javascript function. I am trying the following way, I can't get the input value in the javascript function.(I am expecting an alert of 1.) Is it the right way of doing this? Please help. <head> <script> function submit_value(form) { alert(form.ip.value); } </script> </head> <table> <tr> <form> <td> <input id="ip" type="text" value="1"> </td> <td> <a href="javascript:;" onClick="submit_value(this)">Button</a> </td> </form> </tr> </table>

  Read the article

• Zend dubugger in eclipse - timeout everytime

  - by jax

  I am running a virtual server in the US. I am trying to get my eclipse machine at home (outside the USA), to connect to the USA server. I have setup Zend on the server. When I run phpinfo() I get the following zend output. Note: 1.2.3.4 will be the external WAN IP address of my ADSL router at home. Directive Local Value Master Value zend_debugger.allow_hosts 127.0.0.1,1.2.3.4 127.0.0.1,1.2.3.4 zend_debugger.allow_tunnel no value no value zend_debugger.deny_hosts no value no value zend_debugger.expose_remotely always always zend_debugger.httpd_uid -1 -1 zend_debugger.max_msg_size 2097152 2097152 zend_debugger.tunnel_max_port 65535 65535 zend_debugger.tunnel_min_port 1024 1024 So zend looks like it is working ok on the server side. When I run a debug session and select 'Test Debugger' I get a timeout every time. I have already added dummy.php to the root folder of the server. In 'installed debuggers' I double clicked on Zend and have put my external WAN IP address. I noticed that the port is 10000, I also have webmin running on this port on the server, will there be a conflict?

  Read the article

• How to debug JBoss out of memory problem?

  - by user561733

  Hello, I am trying to debug a JBoss out of memory problem. When JBoss starts up and runs for a while, it seems to use memory as intended by the startup configuration. However, it seems that when some unknown user action is taken (or the log file grows to a certain size) using the sole web application JBoss is serving up, memory increases dramatically and JBoss freezes. When JBoss freezes, it is difficult to kill the process or do anything because of low memory. When the process is finally killed via a -9 argument and the server is restarted, the log file is very small and only contains outputs from the startup of the newly started process and not any information on why the memory increased so much. This is why it is so hard to debug: server.log does not have information from the killed process. The log is set to grow to 2 GB and the log file for the new process is only about 300 Kb though it grows properly during normal memory circumstances. This is information on the JBoss configuration: JBoss (MX MicroKernel) 4.0.3 JDK 1.6.0 update 22 PermSize=512m MaxPermSize=512m Xms=1024m Xmx=6144m This is basic info on the system: Operating system: CentOS Linux 5.5 Kernel and CPU: Linux 2.6.18-194.26.1.el5 on x86_64 Processor information: Intel(R) Xeon(R) CPU E5420 @ 2.50GHz, 8 cores This is good example information on the system during normal pre-freeze conditions a few minutes after the jboss service startup: Running processes: 183 CPU load averages: 0.16 (1 min) 0.06 (5 mins) 0.09 (15 mins) CPU usage: 0% user, 0% kernel, 1% IO, 99% idle Real memory: 17.38 GB total, 2.46 GB used Virtual memory: 19.59 GB total, 0 bytes used Local disk space: 113.37 GB total, 11.89 GB used When JBoss freezes, system information looks like this: Running processes: 225 CPU load averages: 4.66 (1 min) 1.84 (5 mins) 0.93 (15 mins) CPU usage: 0% user, 12% kernel, 73% IO, 15% idle Real memory: 17.38 GB total, 17.18 GB used Virtual memory: 19.59 GB total, 706.29 MB used Local disk space: 113.37 GB total, 11.89 GB used

  Read the article

• Exemplars of large document-centric applications with COM/XPCOM/.NET interfaces.

  - by Warren P

  I am looking for exemplars (design examples) showing the use of interfaces (aka 'protocols' for you smalltalkers) to design a document management architecture in a large Word Processor, Spreadsheet, vector graphic or publishing package, or office-productivity (non-database) application with support for as many of the following as possible: any open source project, will be ideal, and language of implementation is unimportant since I am looking for design examples, however an object oriented language with support for "interfaces" is a must. I know at least a dozen languages, and I'm willing to study any application's source. use of "interface" could loosely be applied to either XPCOM or COM interfaces, or .NET interfaces, or even the use of pure-virtual (virtual+abstract) base-classes for OOP languages that lack the ability to declare an interface distinct from a class. I am mostly looking for a robust, thorough and flexible implementation for a document, IDocument, various document views (IDocumentView), and whatever operations make sense in that case. I am particular interested in cases where the product in question is a real-world product. For example, if anybody familiar with OpenOffice can tell me if the code contains a good sample design. I am looking for design documentation that outlines the design of the interfaces for such an application. So for example, if the openoffice spreadsheet has such an interface design, then that might be the best case, because it is a widely used real-world design, with millions of users, rather than a textbook example, which is minimal, and contrived. I know that the Mozilla platform uses XPCOM, and its design is heavily "interface" oriented, but I am looking more for a "word processor" or "spreadsheet" type of document design, rather than a web-browser. I am particularly interested in the interfaces used to access to data and meta-data such as markup (attributes like bold, and italics, and font size), and the ability to search and look up named entities within a document.

  Read the article

• No database connection when trying to use IIS locally with asp.net MVC 1.0

  - by mark4asp

  Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection. When I try to use IIS locally instead of Cassini I get this error. The ASP.NET MVC 1.0 site is running on WinXP. The database is local and has SQL Server and Windows Authentification mode enabled. The website runs OK using Cassini, with the same connection string. It fails when I try to use IIS instead of Cassini. These permissions are set on the Virtual directory which IIS points to. ASP.NET Machine Account [Full Control] Internet Guest Account [Full Control] System [Full Control] This virtual directory is the same are the directory holding my project files. I am using Linq and the database connection string is stored in the App.config file of my data project. I get the same error whether I set the connection string to use Windows or Sql server authentification. My sql server has both [MyMachineName\ASPNET] and SqlServerUser Logins and a User on the database. CREATE LOGIN [MyMachineName\ASPNET] FROM WINDOWS WITH DEFAULT_DATABASE=[master], DEFAULT_LANGUAGE=[us_english] Use My_database CREATE USER [MyMachineName\ASPNET] FOR LOGIN [MyMachineName\ASPNET] WITH DEFAULT_SCHEMA=[dbo] CREATE LOGIN [MwMvcLg] WITH PASSWORD=N'blahblah', DEFAULT_DATABASE=[master], DEFAULT_LANGUAGE=[British], CHECK_EXPIRATION=OFF, CHECK_POLICY=ON Use My_database CREATE USER [MwMvcLg] FOR LOGIN [MwMvcLg] WITH DEFAULT_SCHEMA=[dbo] How come I have no problem running this website on IIS6 remotely. Why does IIS5.1, running locally, need these extra logins? PS: My overwhelming preference is to use Sql Server authentification - as this is how it runs when deployed.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422  | Next Page >