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• Does it exist: smart pointer, owned by one object allowing access.

  - by Noah Roberts

  I'm wondering if anyone's run across anything that exists which would fill this need. Object A contains an object B. It wants to provide access to that B to clients through a pointer (maybe there's the option it could be 0, or maybe the clients need to be copiable and yet hold references...whatever). Clients, lets call them object C, would normally, if we're perfect developers, be written carefully so as to not violate the lifetime semantics of any pointer to B they might have...but we're not perfect, in fact we're pretty dumb half the time. So what we want is for object C to have a pointer to object B that is not "shared" ownership but that is smart enough to recognize a situation in which the pointer is no longer valid, such as when object A is destroyed or it destroys object B. Accessing this pointer when it's no longer valid would cause an assertion/exception/whatever. In other words, I wish to share access to data in a safe, clear way but retain the original ownership semantics. Currently, because I've not been able to find any shared pointer in which one of the objects owns it, I've been using shared_ptr in place of having such a thing. But I want clear owneship and shared/weak pointer doesn't really provide that. Would be nice further if this smart pointer could be attached to member variables and not just hold pointers to dynamically allocated memory regions. If it doesn't exist I'm going to make it, so I first want to know if someone's already released something out there that does it. And, BTW, I do realize that things like references and pointers do provide this sort of thing...I'm looking for something smarter.

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• Async task ASP.net HttpContext.Current.Items is empty - How do handle this?

  - by GuruC

  We are running a very large web application in asp.net MVC .NET 4.0. Recently we had an audit done and the performance team says that there were a lot of null reference exceptions. So I started investigating it from the dumps and event viewer. My understanding was as follows: We are using Asyn Tasks in our controllers. We rely on HttpContext.Current.Items hashtable to store a lot of Application level values. Task<Articles>.Factory.StartNew(() => { System.Web.HttpContext.Current = ControllerContext.HttpContext.ApplicationInstance.Context; var service = new ArticlesService(page); return service.GetArticles(); }).ContinueWith(t => SetResult(t, "articles")); So we are copying the context object onto the new thread that is spawned from Task factory. This context.Items is used again in the thread wherever necessary. Say for ex: public class SomeClass { internal static int StreamID { get { if (HttpContext.Current != null) { return (int)HttpContext.Current.Items["StreamID"]; } else { return DEFAULT_STREAM_ID; } } } This runs fine as long as number of parallel requests are optimal. My questions are as follows: 1. When the load is more and there are too many parallel requests, I notice that HttpContext.Current.Items is empty. I am not able to figure out a reason for this and this causes all the null reference exceptions. 2. How do we make sure it is not null ? Any workaround if present ? NOTE: I read through in StackOverflow and people have questions like HttpContext.Current is null - but in my case it is not null and its empty. I was reading one more article where the author says that sometimes request object is terminated and it may cause problems since dispose is already called on objects. I am doing a copy of Context object - its just a shallow copy and not a deep copy.

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• nextSibling difference between IE and FF?

  - by Ahmet Yildirim

  Hi fellows, I just wrote a javascript code for layering in raphaeljs it works perfectly on FF. But it doesn't on IE. The problem is IE returns null for nextSibling for any object. How does one use it correctly, or is there a nextElementSibling call in IE? Here is the code fragment I used to change the order of objects: n = items[selected_item_id].nextSibling.id; if (n != '') { items[selected_item_id].insertAfter(items[n]); } <div id="consarea"> <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" version="1.1" width="100%" height="100%"> <desc>Created with Raphaël</desc> <defs/> <rect x="188" y="100" width="200" height="200" r="10" rx="10" ry="10" fill="#ee8515" stroke="none" style="opacity: 1;" opacity="1"/> <rect x="253" y="158" width="50" height="50" r="0" rx="0" ry="0" fill="#0080ff" stroke="none" style="opacity: 1;" opacity="1" id="0"/> <rect x="230" y="140" width="50" height="50" r="0" rx="0" ry="0" fill="#c03022" stroke="none" style="opacity: 1;" opacity="1" id="1"/></svg> here it is above. the piece of the html im working on

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• iPhone Development - calling external JSON API (will Apple reject?)

  - by RPM1984

  Ok guys, so im new to iPhone development, so apologies if this is a silly question, but before i actually create my app i want to know if this is possible, and if Apple will reject this. (Note this is all theoretical) So i'd have a API (.NET) that runs on a cloud server somewhere and can return HTML/JSON/XML. I'll have a website that can access this API and allow customers to do some stuff (but this is not important for this question). I would then like my iPhone app to make a call to this API which would return JSON data. So my iPhone app might make a call to http://myapp/Foos which would return a JSON string of Foo objects. The iPhone app would then parse this JSON and do some funky stuff with it. So, that's the background, now the questions: Is this possible? (that is, call an external cloud API over HTTP, parse JSON response?) What are the chances of Apple rejecting this application (because it would be calling a non-Apple API) Are there any limitations (security, libraries, etc) on the iPhone/Objective-C/Cocoa that might hinder this solution? On this website, they seem to be doing exactly what im asking. Thoughts, suggestions, links would be greatly appreciated...

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• MemoryFailPoint fires to early in WinXP 64

  - by msedi

  Hello, I have created a volume class (called VoxelVolume) with a self-organizing memory management, since the GC in C# didn't provide a good mechanism for managing contents of the volume for mapping, unmapping and remapping. Although I could have used the mechanisms of virtual memory, the problem is that the files are often too large to fit into the page file and I don't want to force the users to increase the pagefile size. Currently this system is working quite well and there is no problem in lacking resources and OutOfMemoryExceptions since the InsufficientMemoryException using the MemoryFailPoint works quite well. This was all testes on a 32bit WinXP system with 2GB of main memory. Running the same mechanism on 64bit system with 32GB of main memory also works well, but when the application runs the MemoryFailPoint suddenly throws an exception although 24GB of main memory are still free. Another point is when the MemoryFailPoint has fired once, it fires everytime and there is no chance to get rid of it. What I have read so far, that there is a small object and a large object heap (SOH and LOH). But only for the SOH the GC takes real care of and I can free the SOH from unused objects by applying GC.Collect() and GC.WaitForPendingFinalizers. The MemoryFailPoint is obviously the only way to get a little bit of control for the LOH, but since there is enough memory left on the system I see no reason why the MemoryFilePoint should fire. Is there any experience around here using the MemoryFailPoint? Thank you for your help Martin

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• Need an advice for unit testing using mock object

  - by Andree

  Hi there, I just recently read about "Mocking objects" for unit testing and currently I'm having a difficulties implementing this approach in my application. Please let me explain my problem. I have a User model class, which is dependent on 2 data sources (database and facebook web service). The controller class simply use this User model as an interface to access data and it doesn't care about where the data came from. Currently I never done any unit test to this User model because it is dependent on an external web service. But just a while ago, I read about object mocking and now I know that it is a common approach to unit test a class that depends on external resources (like in my case). Now I want to create a unit test for the User model, but then I encountered a design issue: In order for the User model to use a mocked Facebook SDK, I have to inject this mocked Facebook SDK to the User object (probably using a setter). Therefore I can't construct the Facebook SDK inside the User object. I have to construct it outside the User object, and inject the SDK into the User object. The real client of my User model is the application's controller. Therefore I have to construct the Facebook SDK inside the controller and inject it to the user object. Well, this is a problem because I want my controller to be as clean as possible. I want my controller to be ignorant about the application's data source. I'm not good at explaining something systematically, so you'll probably sleeping before reading this last paragraph. But anyway, I want to ask if anyone here ever encountered the same problem as mine? How do you solve this problem? Regards, Andree

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• nhibernate mapping: delete collection, insert new collection with old IDs

  - by npeBeg

  my issue lokks similar to this one: (link) but i have one-to-many association: <set name="Fields" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false" inverse="true"> <key column="[TEMPLATE_ID]"></key> <one-to-many class="MyNamespace.Field, MyLibrary"/> </set> (i also tried to use ) this mapping is for Template object. this one and the Field object has their ID generators set to identity. so when i call session.Update for the Template object it works fine, well, almost: if the Field object has an Id number, UPDATE sql request is called, if the Id is 0, the INSERT is performed. But if i delete a Field object from the collection it has no effect for the Database. I found that if i also call session.Delete for this Field object, everything will be ok, but due to client-server architecture i don't know what to delete. so i decided to delete all the collection elements from the DB and call session.Update with a new collection. and i've got an issue: nhibernate performs the UPDATE operation for the Field objects that has non-zero Id, but they are removed from DB! maybe i should use some other Id generator or smth.. what is the best way to make nhibernate perform "delete all"/"insert all" routine for the collection?

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• Some questions about the .NET Entity Framework and Stored Procedures

  - by Bara

  Hey everyone, I had a couple of questions relating to the .NET Entity Framework and using stored procedures. Here goes: I know that we can right click a stored procedure and choose Function Import to be able to use with code. Is there a way to do this for many stored procedures at once? When doing a Function Import, I can create a new Complex type or use an existing Complex type. Well, how can I access Complex types/objects that are outside of the edmx file? That is, if I have a class in my project, is it possible to access it while doing a Function Import? When calling the stored procedure from code, it returns an IEnumerable of the Complex type I set it as. However, sometimes these complex types do not have all of the properties that I need, so I create a new class in my project that inherits from the complex type used in the stored procedure. Problem is, I can't seem to cast the complex type returned from the stored procedure to the new class I created. Any reason why I can't do this? What I ended up doing is looping through the IEnumerable and adding each item to a new list of the class that I created. But this feels and looks messy. Bara

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• [MFC] What is the reciprocal of CComboBox.GetItemData?

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  Instead of associating objects with Combo Box items, I associate long ids representing choices. They come from a database, so it seems natural to do so anyway. Now, I persist the id and not the index of the user's selection, so that the choice is remembered across sessions. If id no longer exists in database - no big deal. The choice will be messed up once. If db does not change, however, then it would be a great success ;) Here is how I get the id : chosenSomethingIndex = cmbSomething.GetCurSel(); lastSomethingId = cmbSomething.GetItemData(chosenSomethingIndex); How do I reverse this? When I load the stored value for user's last choice, I need to convert that id into an index. I can do: cmbSomething.SetCurSel(chosenSomethingIndex); However, how can I attempt (it might not exist) to get an index once I have an id? I am looking for a reciprocal function to GetItemData I am using VS2008, probably latest version of MFC, whatever that is. Thank you.

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• Elegant Disjunctive Normal Form in Django

  - by Mike

  Let's say I've defined this model: class Identifier(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User) key = models.CharField(max_length=64) value = models.CharField(max_length=255) Each user will have multiple identifiers, each with a key and a value. I am 100% sure I want to keep the design like this, there are external reasons why I'm doing it that I won't go through here, so I'm not interested in changing this. I'd like to develop a function of this sort: def get_users_by_identifiers(**kwargs): # something goes here return users The function will return all users that have one of the key=value pairs specified in **kwargs. Here's an example usage: get_users_by_identifiers(a=1, b=2) This should return all users for whom a=1 or b=2. I've noticed that the way I've set this up, this amounts to a disjunctive normal form...the SQL query would be something like: SELECT DISTINCT(user_id) FROM app_identifier WHERE (key = "a" AND value = "1") OR (key = "b" AND value = "2") ... I feel like there's got to be some elegant way to take the **kwargs input and do a Django filter on it, in just 1-2 lines, to produce this result. I'm new to Django though, so I'm just not sure how to do it. Here's my function now, and I'm completely sure it's not the best way to do it :) def get_users_by_identifiers(**identifiers): users = [] for key, value in identifiers.items(): for identifier in Identifier.objects.filter(key=key, value=value): if not identifier.user in users: users.append(identifier.user) return users Any ideas? :) Thanks!

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• Are there equivalents to Ruby's method_missing in other languages?

  - by Justin Ethier

  In Ruby, objects have a handy method called method_missing which allows one to handle method calls for methods that have not even been (explicitly) defined: Invoked by Ruby when obj is sent a message it cannot handle. symbol is the symbol for the method called, and args are any arguments that were passed to it. By default, the interpreter raises an error when this method is called. However, it is possible to override the method to provide more dynamic behavior. The example below creates a class Roman, which responds to methods with names consisting of roman numerals, returning the corresponding integer values. class Roman def romanToInt(str) # ... end def method_missing(methId) str = methId.id2name romanToInt(str) end end r = Roman.new r.iv #=> 4 r.xxiii #=> 23 r.mm #=> 2000 For example, Ruby on Rails uses this to allow calls to methods such as find_by_my_column_name. My question is, what other languages support an equivalent to method_missing, and how do you implement the equivalent in your code?

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• transfering a container of data to different classes

  - by user340699

  I am passing a vector of bids from Trader class to Simulator class.which class then passes it on to the auctioneer class.something seems messed up, can anyone spot it please. Below is part of the code: Error: 199 expected primary-expression before '&' token //Class of Origin of the vector. class Trader { private: int nextBidId; public: Trader(); ~Trader(){}; Bid getNextBid(); Bid getNextBid(int trdId, int qty, int price, char type); void loadRange( vector <Bid> & bids ) {} ; void loadRange(BidList &, int trdId, int qty, int price, char type, int size); }; //To be received by the Simulator class Simulator { vector <Bid> list; Trader trader; Auctioneer auctioneer; public: void run(); }; // Passing the vector into a function in simulator Simulator::accept_bids(bid_vector::const_iterator begin, bid_vector::const_iterator end){ vector<Bid>::iterator itr; } //Its journey should end with the Auctioneer. who displays the data class Auctioneer { public: vector <Bid>v2;// created a new vector to hold the objects void accept_bids(vector<Bid> & bids); void displayBids(){return bids} };

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• ZF2 - How to use the Hydrator/exchangeArray() to populate a nested object

  - by Dominic Watson

  I've got an object with values that are stored in my database. My object also contains another object which is stored in the database using just the ID of it (foreign key). http://framework.zend.com/manual/2.0/en/modules/zend.stdlib.hydrator.html Before the Hydrator/exchangeArray functionality in ZF2 you would use a Mapper to grab everything you need to create the object. Now I'm trying to eliminate this extra layer by just using Hydration/exchangeArray to populate my objects but am a bit stuck on creating the nested object. Should my entity have the Inner object's table injected into it so I can create it if the ID of it is passed to my 'exchangeArray' ? Here are example entities as an example. // Village id, name, position, square_id // Map Square id, name, type Upon sending square_id to my Village's exchangeArray() function. It would get the mapTable and use hydrator to pull in the square using the ID I have. It doesn't seem right to be to have mapper instances inside my entity as I thought they should be disconnected from anything but it's own entity specific parameters and functionality?

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• rails xml to active record object

  - by Brian D.

  I've been googling for a while to try and convert and incoming XML request into an active record object. I've tried using the ActiveRecordObject.new.from_xml method but it doesn't seem to handle relationships. For example, say I have the following xml: <blog> <title></title> <blog-pages> <blog-page> <page-number></page-number> <content></content> </blog-page> </blog-pages> </blog> And I have the following model objects: class Blog < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :blog_pages end class BlogPage < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :blog end Is there a way to convert the xml into a blog object WITH relationships? Or do I need to manually parse the XML? Thanks in advance.

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• Passing list of values to django view via jQuery ajax call

  - by finspin

  I'm trying to pass a list of numeric values (ids) from one web page to another with jQuery ajax call. I can't figure out how to pass and read all the values in the list. I can successfully post and read 1 value but not multiple values. Here is what I have so far: jQuery: var postUrl = "http://localhost:8000/ingredients/"; $('li').click(function(){ values = [1, 2]; $.ajax({ url: postUrl, type: 'POST', data: {'terid': values}, traditional: true, dataType: 'html', success: function(result){ $('#ingredients').append(result); } }); }); /ingredients/ view: def ingredients(request): if request.is_ajax(): ourid = request.POST.get('terid', False) ingredients = Ingredience.objects.filter(food__id__in=ourid) t = get_template('ingredients.html') html = t.render(Context({'ingredients': ingredients,})) return HttpResponse(html) else: html = '<p>This is not ajax</p>' return HttpResponse(html) With Firebug I can see that POST contains both ids but probably in the wrong format (terid=1&terid=2). So my ingredients view picks up only terid=2. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: To clarify, I need the ourid variable pass values [1, 2] to the filter in the ingredients view.

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• What's the best approach for modifying PDF interactive form fields on iOS?

  - by gbreen

  I've been doing some head banging on this one and solicit your advice. I am building an app that as part of it's features is to present PDF forms; meaning display them, allow fields to be changed and save the modified PDF file back out. UIWebViews do not support PDF interactive forms. Using the CGPDF apis (and benefit from other questions posted here and elsewhere), I can certainly present the PDF (without the form fields/widgets), scan and find the fields in the document, figure out where on the screen to draw something and make them interactive. What I can't seem to figure out is how to change the CGPDFDictionary objects and write them back out to a file. One could use the CGPDF Apis to create a new PDF document from whole cloth, but how do you use it to modify an existing file? Should I be looking elsewhere such as 3rd party PDF libs like PoDoFo or libHaru? I'd love to hear from anyone who has successfully modified a PDF and written it back out as to your approach. Thanks!

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• WPF - Extend ListView with checkable AND selectable ListViewItems

  - by Marks

  Hi there. I already read many examples on extending ListViews with checkboxes bound with IsSelected. But I want something more. I want a seperation between the checked and selected state, so i get a ListBox that has a single selected item, but can have multiple checked items. Unfortunately ListViewItem does not have a property for checked and I dont see a possibility to get the ListView to work with a custom CheckableListViewItem. Of course i could use a List of objects with a checked property as ItemSource, but I dont think thats a good way to go. Checked or not is a matter of the list or item-container, not of the object listed in it. Beside that I dont want all my classes like user, role, group to have counterparts like checkableUser, checkableRole and checkableGroup. The behaviour i want can be easyly accomblished for the UI with a <DataTemplate x:Key="CheckBoxCell"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <CheckBox /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> and a <GridViewColumn CellTemplate="{StaticResource CheckBoxCell}" Width="30"/> But without a binding on the checkbox i cant check if it is checked or not. Is there any way to accomplish something like that? The perfect solution for me would be to have listView1.SelectedItem, listView1.CheckedItems and maybe a listView1.UncheckedItems and of course listView1.CheckItem and listView1.UncheckItem. Thanks for any help.

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• GUID or int entity key with SQL Compact/EF4?

  - by David Veeneman

  This is a follow-up to an earlier question I posted on EF4 entity keys with SQL Compact. SQL Compact doesn't allow server-generated identity keys, so I am left with creating my own keys as objects are added to the ObjectContext. My first choice would be an integer key, and the previous answer linked to a blog post that shows an extension method that uses the Max operator with a selector expression to find the next available key: public static TResult NextId<TSource, TResult>(this ObjectSet<TSource> table, Expression<Func<TSource, TResult>> selector) where TSource : class { TResult lastId = table.Any() ? table.Max(selector) : default(TResult); if (lastId is int) { lastId = (TResult)(object)(((int)(object)lastId) + 1); } return lastId; } Here's my take on the extension method: It will work fine if the ObjectContext that I am working with has an unfiltered entity set. In that case, the ObjectContext will contain all rows from the data table, and I will get an accurate result. But if the entity set is the result of a query filter, the method will return the last entity key in the filtered entity set, which will not necessarily be the last key in the data table. So I think the extension method won't really work. At this point, the obvious solution seems to be to simply use a GUID as the entity key. That way, I only need to call Guid.NewGuid() method to set the ID property before I add a new entity to my ObjectContext. Here is my question: Is there a simple way of getting the last primary key in the data store from EF4 (without having to create a second ObjectContext for that purpose)? Any other reason not to take the easy way out and simply use a GUID? Thanks for your help.

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• Using Memcached in Python/Django - questions.

  - by Thomas

  I am starting use Memcached to make my website faster. For constant data in my database I use this: from django.core.cache import cache cache_key = 'regions' regions = cache.get(cache_key) if result is None: """Not Found in Cache""" regions = Regions.objects.all() cache.set(cache_key, regions, 2592000) #(2592000sekund = 30 dni) return regions For seldom changed data I use signals: from django.core.cache import cache from django.db.models import signals def nuke_social_network_cache(self, instance, **kwargs): cache_key = 'networks_for_%s' % (self.instance.user_id,) cache.delete(cache_key) signals.post_save.connect(nuke_social_network_cache, sender=SocialNetworkProfile) signals.post_delete.connect(nuke_social_network_cache, sender=SocialNetworkProfile) Is it correct way? I installed django-memcached-0.1.2, which show me: Memcached Server Stats Server Keys Hits Gets Hit_Rate Traffic_In Traffic_Out Usage Uptime 127.0.0.1 15 220 276 79% 83.1 KB 364.1 KB 18.4 KB 22:21:25 Can sombody explain what columns means? And last question. I have templates where I am getting much records from a few table (relationships). So in my view I get records from one table and in templates show it and related info from others. Generating page last a few seconds for very small table (<100records). Is it some easy way to cache queries from templates? Have I to do some big structure in my view (with all related tables), cache it and send to template?

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• File.Replace throwing IOException

  - by WebDevHobo

  I have an app that can make modify images. In some cases, this makes the filesize smaller, in some cases bigger. The program doesn't have an option to "not replace the file if result has a bigger filesize". So I wrote a little C# app to try and solve this. Instead of overwriting the files, I make the app write the result to a folder under the current one and name that folder Test. The C# app I wrote compares grabs the contents of both folders and puts the full path to the file(s) in two List objects. I then compare and replace. The replacing isn't working however. I get the following IOException: Unable to remove the file to be replaced The location is on an external hard-drive, on which I have full rights. Now, I know I can just do File.Delete and File.Move in that order, but this exception has gotten me interested in why this particular setup wont work. Here's the source code: http://pastebin.com/4Vq82Umu And yes, the file specified as last argument of the Replace function does exist.

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• Refactoring an ASP.NET 2.0 app to be more "modern"

  - by Wayne M

  This is a hypothetical scenario. Let's say you've just been hired at a company with a small development team. The company uses an internal CRM/ERP type system written in .NET 2.0 to manage all of it's day to day things (let's simplify and say customer accounts and records). The app was written a couple of years ago when .NET 2.0 was just out and uses the following architectural designs: Webforms Data layer is a thin wrapper around SqlCommand that calls stored procedures Rudimentary DTO-style business objects that are populated via the sprocs A "business logic" layer that acts as a gateway between the webform and database (i.e. code behind calls that layer) Let's say that as there are more changes and requirements added to the application, you start to feel that the old architecture is showing its age, and changes are increasingly more difficult to make. How would you go about introducing refactoring steps to A) Modernize the app (i.e. proper separation of concerns) and B) Make sure that the app can readily adapt to change in the organization? IMO the changes would involve: Introduce an ORM like Linq to Sql and get rid of the sprocs for CRUD Assuming that you can't just throw out Webforms, introduce the M-V-P pattern to the forms Make sure the gateway classes conform to SRP and the other SOLID principles. Change the logic that is re-used to be web service methods instead of having to reuse code What are your thoughts? Again this is a totally hypothetical scenario that many of us have faced in the past, or may end up facing.

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• Does "delegate" mean a type or an object?

  - by Michal Czardybon

  Reading from MSDN: "A delegate is a type that references a method. Once a delegate is assigned a method, it behaves exactly like that method." Does then "delegate" mean a type or an object?! ...It cannot be both. It seems to me that the single word is used in two different meanings: a type containing a reference to a method of some specified signature, an object of that type, which can be actually called like a method. I would prefer a more precise vocabulary and use "delegate type" for the first case. I have been recently reading a lot about events and delegates and that ambiguity was making me confused many times. Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the first meaning: "Custom event delegates are needed only when an event generates event data" "A delegate declaration defines a class that is derived from the class System.Delegate" Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the second meaning: "specify a delegate that will be called upon the occurrence of some event" "Delegates are objects that refer to methods. They are sometimes described as type-safe function pointers" What do you think? Why did people from Microsoft introduced this ambiguity? Am I the only person to have conceptual problems with different notions being referenced with the same word.

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• C++ design related question

  - by Kotti

  Hi! Here is the question's plot: suppose I have some abstract classes for objects, let's call it Object. It's definition would include 2D position and dimensions. Let it also have some virtual void Render(Backend& backend) const = 0 method used for rendering. Now I specialize my inheritance tree and add Rectangle and Ellipse class. Guess they won't have their own properties, but they will have their own virtual void Render method. Let's say I implemented these methods, so that Render for Rectangle actually draws some rectangle, and the same for ellipse. Now, I add some object called Plane, which is defined as class Plane : public Rectangle and has a private member of std::vector<Object*> plane_objects; Right after that I add a method to add some object to my plane. And here comes the question. If I design this method as void AddObject(Object& object) I would face trouble like I won't be able to call virtual functions, because I would have to do something like plane_objects.push_back(new Object(object)); and this should be push_back(new Rectangle(object)) for rectangles and new Circle(...) for circles. If I implement this method as void AddObject(Object* object), it looks good, but then somewhere else this means making call like plane.AddObject(new Rectangle(params)); and this is generally a mess because then it's not clear which part of my program should free the allocated memory. ["when destroying the plane? why? are we sure that calls to AddObject were only done as AddObject(new something).] I guess the problems caused by using the second approach could be solved using smart pointers, but I am sure there have to be something better. Any ideas?

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• GWT + Seam, cannot fetch scoped beans from gwt servlet in seam resource servlet.

  - by David Göransson

  Hello all I am trying to get session and conversation scoped beans to a gwt servlet in the seam resource servlet. I have a conversation scoped bean: @Name ("viewFormCopyAction") @Scope (ScopeType.CONVERSATION) public class ViewFormCopyAction {} and a session scoped bean: @Name ("authenticator") @Scope (ScopeType.SESSION) public class AuthenticatorAction {} There is a RemoteService interface: @RemoteServiceRelativePath ("strokesService") public interface StrokesService extends RemoteService { public Position getPosition (int conversationId); } with corresponding async interface: public interface StrokesServiceAsync extends RemoteService { public void getPosition (int conversationId, AsyncCallback callback); } and implementation: @Name ("com.web.actions.forms.gwt.client.StrokesService") @Scope (ScopeType.EVENT) public class StrokesServiceImpl implements StrokesService { @In Manager manager; @Override @WebRemote public Position getPosition (int conversationId) { manager.switchConversation( "" + conversationId ); ViewFormCopyAction vfca = (ViewFormCopyAction) Component.getInstance( "viewFormCopyAction" ); AuthenticatorAction aa = (AuthenticatorAction) Component.getInstance( "authenticator" ); return null; } } The gwt page is within an IFrame in a regular seam page and the conversationId is propagted with the src attribute of the IFrame. Both bean objects end up with only null values. Can anyone see anything wrong with the code? I know that I could use strings instead of the int, but never mind that at this point.

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• Dealing With Java Default Level Access Specifiers

  - by Tom Tresansky

  I've seen some code in a project recently where some fields in a couple classes have been using the default access modifier without good reason to. It almost looks like a case of "oops, forgot to make these private". Since the classes are used almost exclusively outside of the package they are defined in, the fields are not visible from the calling code, and are treated as private. So the mistake/oversight would not be very noticeable. However, encapsulation is broken. If I wanted to add a new class to the existing package, I could then mess with internal data in objects using fields with default access. So, my questions: Are there any best practices concerning default access specifiers that I should be aware of? Anything that would help prevent this type of accident from re-occurring? Are are any annotations which might say something to the effect of "I really meant for these to be default access"? Using CheckStyle, or any other Eclipse plugins, is there any way to flag instances of default fields, or disallow any not accompanied by, say, a "//default access" comment trailing them?

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